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AIIMS Full Mock Test 20

This mock test of AIIMS Full Mock Test 20 for NEET helps you for every NEET entrance exam.
This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for NEET AIIMS Full Mock Test 20 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank.
The solved questions answers in this AIIMS Full Mock Test 20 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. NEET
students definitely take this AIIMS Full Mock Test 20 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other AIIMS Full Mock Test 20 extra questions,
long questions & short questions for NEET on EduRev as well by searching above.

QUESTION: 1

The charge stored in the 4 μF capacitor in the electric circuit shown is

A.

40 μC

B.

80 μC

C.

120 μC

D.

20 μC

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

The voltmeter shown in the circuit has resistance of 400 Ω. Its reading will be

A.

10 V

B.

15 V

C.

20 V

D.

5 V

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

A capacitor of capacity 50 μF is connected to a constant source of emf 20 volt as shown in figure. Here R2 = 2 KΩ. The amount of heat produced in R1 = 3 KΩ, when the key is shifted from contact 3 to 2, is

A.

4 mJ

B.

5 mJ

C.

6 mJ

D.

8 mJ

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field in a circular path of radius R. When energy of the particle is doubled, then new radius will be

A.

R√ 2

B.

2R

C.

R/√2

D.

R/2

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

Magnetic susceptibility is positive and small for a

A.

Diamagnetic substance

B.

Paramagnetic substance

C.

Ferromagnetic substance

D.

All of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

In a series LCR circuit the frequency of a 20 V AC voltage source is adjacent in such a fashion that the reactance of the inductor measures 30Ω and that of the capacitor is 22 Ω. If resistance R is 6 Ω, then the potential difference across the series combination of L and C will be

A.

12 V

B.

16 V

C.

14 V

D.

18 V

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

A perfectly reflecting mirror has an area of 2 cm2. Light energy is allowed to fall on it for 30 minute at the rate of 15 × 104 watt/m2. The force that acts on the mirror is

A.

2 × 10–5 N

B.

2 × 10–6 N

C.

2 × 10–7 N

D.

2 × 10–8 N

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

A small object is placed at a distance of 8 cmfrom a convex mirror of radius of curvature 24cm. The magnification of the image obtained is

A.

0.6

B.

1

C.

1.2

D.

1.6

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

A ray of light travels from an optically denserto a rarer medium. The critical angle for thetwo media is C. Without total internal reflectionthe maximum possible deviation of the raywill be

A.

2 C

B.

π /2 - C

C.

π – C

D.

π – 2C

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

A plano-convex lens has refractive index 1.4and its radius of curvature is 40 cm. The focal length of the lens is

A.

80 cm

B.

100 cm

C.

120 cm

D.

140 cm

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

A telescope has an objective lens of focal length1 m and an eye piece with focal length 2 cm. Ifthis telescope is used to see a 25 m tall building at a distance of 1 km, then the height of theimage of the building formed by the objectivelens would be

A.

10 cm

B.

7.5 cm

C.

5 cm

D.

2.5 cm

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

In the following diagram all the wires are of same material and have uniform cross-section. The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O of the square due to arm AB is B1 and dueto the arm CD is B2 then the ratio B1/B2 IS

A.

1 : 1

B.

3 : 1

C.

2 : 1

D.

4 : 1

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

After the half lives, 8 g of radioactive material remains in a sample. What will be the amount of substance at t = 0 s ?

A.

48 g

B.

64 g

C.

20 g

D.

44 g

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

In the given circuit the output y is given by

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

In the given figure a convex lens and concave mirror are separated by 40 cm. Position of final image is (from the pole of mirror)

A.

+ 6.7 cm

B.

– 6.7 cm

C.

+ 3.8 cm

D.

– 3.8 cm

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

In YDSE the fringe width is 0.06 mm. If thewavelength of light used is increased by 25%and the slit separation is decreased by 25% then fringe width will be

A.

0.06 mm

B.

0.03 mm

C.

0.05 mm

D.

0.10 mm

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

An unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incidenton a pair of two polaroids held coaxially such that their transmission axes make an angle of 30° with each other. The fraction of intensity oflight emerging from the pair is

A.

1/2

B.

3/8

C.

1/8

D.

9/16

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

The refracting angle of a prism is A and thecritical angle of the medium of the prism is QC.There will be no emergent ray when

A.

A = 2QC

B.

A < QC

C.

A > 2QC

D.

QC < A < 2QC

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

If λ is de-Broglie wavelength of electron movingin nth orbit, then the radius of 3rd orbit in hydrogen atom is

A.

3λ/n

B.

2λ/n

C.

λ/n

D.

3λ

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

Sky wave propagation can be used for frequencies

A.

127 MHZ to 4000 MHz

B.

88 MHz to 108 MHz

C.

Upto 3 MHz

D.

3 MHz to 40 MHz

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

In a common emitter configuration collectorcurrent and emitter current are 3.09 mA and 3.19 mA respectively. The current gain in this configuration is

A.

3.09

B.

31.9

C.

30.9

D.

1.003

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

An arc of radius R is charged. The linear density of charge is λ and the arc subtends an angle 3/π at the centre. What is electric potential at the centre ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejectedfrom metals if the incident light has certain maximum

A.

Amplitude

B.

Wavelength

C.

Frequency

D.

Intensity

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

Current in the following circuit will be

A.

Zero

B.

10 mA

C.

1 mA

D.

9.6 mA

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

Stopping potential in photoelectric experimentfor a given metal surface

A.

Increases with increase of wavelength

B.

Increases with increase of frequency

C.

Increases with increase of intensity

D.

All of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

A man runs towards a stationary plane mirror with velocity 15 m/s. Magnitude of velocity of the man relative to his image is

A.

15 m/s

B.

30 m/s

C.

45 m/s

D.

Zero

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

If ratio of amplitudes of two coherent sources producing an interference pattern is 3 : 4, then ratio of intensities at maxima and minima is

A.

3 : 4

B.

9 : 16

C.

49 : 1

D.

25 : 7

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

The sun maintains its brightness due to which of the following reactions in its core ?

A.

Conversion of Helium into Hydrogen

B.

Fusion of Hydrogen into Helium

C.

Fusion of Helium into Nitrogen

D.

Fission of Carbon

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

The equivalent resistance between P and Q in the network shown is

A.

r/2

B.

2r/3

C.

r

D.

2r

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

Torque on a current carrying coil is maximumin a uniform magnetic field, when

A.

Plane of the coil makes an angle 45° withthe field

B.

Plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field

C.

Plane of the coil is parallel to the field

D.

Plane of the coil makes an angle 60° withthe field

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

The electric potential due to uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R and charge Q at distance r from center is (R < r)

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

A parallel plate capacitor has plates each of area A and separation d. If both the plate joined by conductor as shown, then capacitance C is

A.

Zero

B.

C.

D.

infinite

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

A dielectric of dielectric constant K is filled between plates of a parallel plate capacitor. When it is kept closed to A, midway between A & B and closed to B, capacitance in these cases are C1, C2 and C3 respectively, then

A.

C1 = C2 = C3

B.

C1 > C2 > C3

C.

C1 < C2 < C3

D.

C1 = C3 < C2

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

Which of the following graphs represents resistivity (p) with temperature (T) for semiconductor approximately ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is more than vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at a place, then angle of true dipat that place can be

A.

45°

B.

22°

C.

90°

D.

51°

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

A wire of fixed length is wound on a solenoid of length l and radius r and its self inductance is found to be L. Now if same wire is wound ona solenoid of length l/2 and radius r/2 , then theself inductance will be

A.

2 L

B.

L

C.

4 L

D.

8 L

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

Magnetic flux through a closed loop changes according to equation (φ) = 3t2 - 6t, where φ is in weber and t is in second. At what time instantaneous emf induced is zero.

A.

1 second

B.

2 second

C.

5 second

D.

3 second

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following graph correctly shows the variation of capacitive reactance XC with frequency f ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

The power factor of LCR series circuit cannot be

A.

1

B.

Zero

C.

0.5

D.

0.75

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

In plane electromagnetic wave if average electric energy density is u, then average magnetic energy density is

A.

u

B.

2u

C.

u/2

D.

√2u

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

A: Short wave bands are used for transmission of radio waves to a large distance.
R : Short waves are reflected by ionosphere

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion,

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false,

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

A: The speed of light in a rarer medium is greater than that in a denser medium.
R : One light year equals to 9.5 × 1012 km

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion,

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false,

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

A: The refractive index of a prism depends only on the kind of glass of which it is made of and the colour of light.
R : The refractive index of a prism depends upon the refracting angle of the prism and the angle of minimum deviation

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation ofthe assertion.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 102

A : No compound has both Schottky and Frenkel defects.
R : Both defects change the density of the solids

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 103

A : If more and more solute is added to a solvent, the freezing point of the solution keeps on becoming higher and higher.
R : Presence of large amount of the solid solute does not allow the solution to freeze.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 105

A : Conductance of a substance increases with decrease in resistance.
R : The inverse of resistance is called conductance.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 106

A: For the reaction
H2(g) + I2 → 2HI (g),
Rate = K[H2][I2]

R: Rate of fornation of hydrogen iodide is proportional to the concentration of hydrogen and Iodine.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 107

​A : If in a zero order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period is also doubled.
R : For a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of initial concentration.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 108

A : p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower boiling point than o-hydroxybenzoic acid. because
R : o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 109

A : Basicity of CH3CH2NH2(I), NH3(II) and C6H5NH2(III) is in order I > II > III
R : Electron-donating groups (such as alkyl group) increase the basicity of amines, and electron-withdrawing groups (such as aryl group) decrease the basicity of amines.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 110

A : Nitrobenzene is used as a solvent in Friedel-Craft's reaction.
R : Fusion of nitrobenzene with solid KOH gives a low yield of a mixture of o- and p-nitrophenols.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 111

A : Grignard reagent reacts with aldehydes and ketones to form alcohol.
R : Alcohols have acidic hydrogen.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 112

A : CH3OH is a nucleophile.
R : CH3OH forms sodium methoxide on treatment with NaOH.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Motor vehicles should use lead with petrol if fitted with catalytic converters

C.

A scrubber can remove over 99% of particulate matter

D.

According to CPCB particulate size 2.5 micrometer or less are responsible for causing greatest harm to human health

Solution:

QUESTION: 132

Mark the incorrect one w.r.t. Exotic species

A.

Eupatorium has invaded forests in the north-east replacing Teak

B.

Nile perch, a small predator fish introduced in lake Victoria of East America

C.

Water hyacinth was introduced in India for its beautiful flowers and shape of leaves

D.

Lantana camara has replaced native species in many forests of UP and MP

Solution:

QUESTION: 133

Key industry animals are

A.

Primary consumers

B.

Secondary consumers

C.

Tertiary consumers

D.

Primary producers

Solution:

QUESTION: 134

Raunkiaer, grouped species into Five frequency classes A, B, C, D and E. Which one of the following is the correct representation of Raunkiaer’s frequency classes

A.

A > B > C >> D < E

B.

A < B < C >> D > E

C.

A > B > C = D < E

D.

A < B < C = D < E

Solution:

QUESTION: 135

In Bryophyllum vegetative propagation is brought about by

A.

Axillary buds present at the margins of leaves

B.

Axillary buds present at the tip of leaves and stems

C.

Adventitious buds present at the margins of leaves

D.

Adventitious buds present at the tip of leaf and stem

Solution:

QUESTION: 136

What is true for cotyledon is grass family?

A.

Called as scutellum that is situated at the apex of embryonal axis

B.

Called as scutellum that is situated towards lateral side of the embryonal axis

C.

Called as coleoptile that is situated at the apex of embryonal axis

D.

Called as coleoptile that is situated towards lateral side of the embryonal axis

Solution:

QUESTION: 137

Which one of the following pair is wrongly matched?

A.

Pollinium – Calotropis

B.

Caruncle – Ricinus

C.

True fruit – Strawberry

D.

Ruminate – Myristica endosperm

Solution:

QUESTION: 138

Match the following (Column-I with Column- II)

A.

a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

B.

a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

C.

a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

D.

a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

Solution:

QUESTION: 139

There are two opposing views about origin of modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Aisa were the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation in DNA, however suggested African origin of modern man. What kind of observation of DNA variation could sugest this?

A.

Greater variation in Asia than in Africa

B.

Greater variation in Africa than in Asia

C.

Similar variation in Africa and Asia

D.

Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa

Solution:

QUESTION: 140

Which is correct about the protein brazzein which was patented in USA by America?

Maximum average height of plant is 60" and that of minimum is 20". The height of the plant with genotype aaBbCcDD will be

A.

40"

B.

30"

C.

45"

D.

35"

Solution:

QUESTION: 142

Plants that complete their life cycle during rainy season and pass rest of their time in the form of seeds are called

A.

Hemicryptophytes

B.

Therophytes

C.

Chemaephytes

D.

Phanerophytes

Solution:

QUESTION: 143

The above given pedigree can’t be a/an

A.

Autosomal recessive

B.

Autosomal dominent

C.

Sex linked recessive

D.

Sex linked dominent

Solution:

QUESTION: 144

In a trihybrid cross between AABBCC and aabbcc the ratio of AaBbcc, aaBbCc, AAbbCc, aaBBCc in F2 generation is

A.

2 : 2 : 2 : 2 respectively

B.

4 : 4 : 2 : 2 respectively

C.

2 : 4 : 4 : 2 respectively

D.

4 : 4 : 4 : 4 respectively

Solution:

QUESTION: 145

Identify the label A, B, C and D in given structre of tRNA & select the correct option

A.

A-Anticodon loop, B-TψC loop, C-AA binding site, D-DHU loop

B.

A-AA binding site, B-TψC loop, CAnicodon loop, D-Recognise amino acid

C.

A-AA binding site, B-DHU loop, C-Anticodon loop, D-TψC loop

D.

A-AA binding site, B-DHU loop, C-TψC loop, D-Anticodon loop

Solution:

QUESTION: 146

Organic evolution would not have taken place if

A.

Individual in a population did not show genetic variation

B.

Individual did not transmit the characters acquired during their life time to offsprings

C.

Somatic variations were not inherited

D.

Somatic variations were not transformed into genetic variation

Solution:

QUESTION: 147

Read the following statementa.

(a) Propionibacterium sharmani is use to produce swiss cheeseb.

(b)Streptokinase is uses as clot busterc.

(c) Cyclosporian A is used as cholesterol lowering agentd.

(d)Statins produce by monascus purpureus

Find the incorrect options

A.

a and c

B.

a, b and d

C.

c only

D.

c and d

Solution:

QUESTION: 148

Consider the following sample area (1) and (2) and indicate the correct answer :
Sample Area-1 : There are three species of birds. Two species are represented by one individuals each, while the third species has four individuals.

Sample Area-2 : There are three species of birds and each species are represnted by two idividuals.

A.

Species diversity is greater in samplearea-1

B.

Species diversity is greater in samplearea-2

C.

Species diversity is same in both sample area 1 and 2

D.

Cannot explain because the number of species are same

Solution:

QUESTION: 149

Species diversity increases as one proceeds from

A.

High altitude to low altitude and high latitude to low latitude

B.

Low altitude to high altitude and high latitude to low latitude

C.

Low altitude to high altitude and low latitude to high latitude

D.

High altitude to low altitude and low latitude to high latitude

Solution:

QUESTION: 150

Edge effect is

A.

The tendency of ecotone to contain a greater number of species and lower population density

B.

The tendency of ecotone to contain a lesser number of species and higher population density

C.

The tendency of ecotone to contain a lesser number of species and lower population density

D.

The tendency of ecotone to contain a greater number of species and higher population density

Solution:

QUESTION: 151

Identify the plant given below :Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. drug obtained from the given plant :

A.

The drug binds to specific receptors present in our central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract

B.

The drug is a very effective sedative and painkiller

C.

By the acetylation of obtained drug a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound is formed commonly called as smack

D.

The drug stimulates the nervous system, so used in the treatment of patient with mental illness

The following graph shows the range of variation among population members for a trait determined by multiple genes

If this population is subject to stabilising selection for several generations, which of the distribution is most likely to result?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Both (2) and (3)

Solution:

QUESTION: 155

Which of the following is the correct sequence fo the layers in the mature follicle from inside to outside?

a. Zona pellucida

b. Membrana granulosac.

c. Theca externad.

d. Plasma membrane of ovume.

e. Corona radiataf.

f. Theca interna

A.

a, b, c, d, e, f

B.

d, a, e, b, f, c

C.

a, d, e, f, b, c

D.

e, d, a, f, c, b

Solution:

QUESTION: 156

Which of the following mophogenetic movements involves the rolling in of chordamesoderm cells towards anterior side along the roof of blastocoel?

A.

Epiboly

B.

Invagination

C.

Involution

D.

Ingression

Solution:

QUESTION: 157

Which of the following applications can be used to avoid possible pregnancy within 72 hours of coitus due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse?

a. Progestogensb.

b. Progestogen-estrogen combinationc.

c. IUDd.

d. i-pills

A.

a, b, c, d

B.

b, d only

C.

a, b, d only

D.

d only

Solution:

QUESTION: 158

Choose the correct type of placenta with number of barriers w.r.t. human beings

A.

Haemo-chorial; three

B.

Syndesmo-chorial; five

C.

Epithelio-chorial; three

D.

Haemo-endothelial; three

Solution:

QUESTION: 159

Placental mammals in Australia exhibit adaptive radiation in evolving into varieties of placental mammals each of which appears to be similar to a corresponding marsupial. What kind of evolution is exhibited by them w.r.t. each other?

A.

Divergent evolution

B.

Convergent evolution

C.

Parallel evolution

D.

Co-evolution

Solution:

QUESTION: 160

What does not normally happen during gastrulation?

A.

Three embryonic germ layers are established

B.

A cavity is formed inside the developing embryo

C.

During gastrulation there is obliteration of archenteron

D.

Cell migrations are prominent feature of this development stage

Solution:

QUESTION: 161

A : In Penicillium, asexual reproductive structures are formed on sterigmata.
R :The conidiophore is unbranched and coenocytic.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 162

A : Human skin colour is an example of polygenic inheritance.
R : It is controlled by more than one gene.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 163

A : The physical distance between two genes determines both the strength of linkage and frequency of crossing over between two genes.
R :One cross-over reduces the occurrence of another cross-over in its vicinity.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 164

A : The law of segregation is one of the most important contributions to the biology.
R : It introduced the concept of heredity factors as discrete physical entities which do not become blended.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 165

A : Polytene chromosome was first reported in salivary gland of insect.
R :Balbiani rings are presnet in polytene chromosome.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 166

A : Corpus albicans is an inactive structure which is found in the ovary.
R :Corpus albicans secretes the progesterone hormone after ovulation.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 167

A : Testes are situated in the extra abdominal cavity.
R :Spermatogenesis process requires less temperature as compared to body temperature.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

C.

If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

D.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Solution:

QUESTION: 168

A : Sperm formation continues even in old men but formation of ovum caeses in women around the age of fifty years.
R :Human male having the longer life span than the female.

A.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

B.

If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.