Whoops, I actually knew that there shouldn't be a second accent on ἐμίσησάν, I must have copied and pasted it and was thinking mainly about δωρεάς. Thanks, Timothy, for explaining why it should be acute (though it doesn't look acute in this font).

This translation of the Song of Songs is truly awful. As a professor of biblical studies who works with the original languages, I can assure you that this translation does not reflect either the words or the meaning of Song of Songs, contrary to what it claims. It’s not that the translation is careless—rather, it’s eisegesis. It is imposing pre-conceived ideas onto the text and then claiming that the change is due to the translation strategy. It’s terrible!

I’m honestly stunned at how off the mark this translation is. It claims to be bringing out the real meaning of Song of Songs, but it’s really just thrusting someone’s own wishful ideas about it onto the readership. If you want to understand Song of Songs, then please, avoid this translation. This will only dupe you into thinking you know the Song of Songs better after reading this “translation,” because it sounds fresh and cogent. But you won’t. You’ll only know the translator’s fanciful ideas about the book—not the book itself. I’m saddened and almost angry that so many have already been duped by this translation already. Please, please, please in God’s name avoid this so-called “translation.” It is a travesty to biblical translation.

I have tried to write this up in a way that might possibly be comprehensible to somebody that doesn't know Greek, here. I have attempted to be temperate.

Andrew

I think you have succeeded. When I looked these things over, I was giving the benefit of the doubt that we had someone who was simply paraphrasing heavily, but a closer examination does raise serious questions about the competence of the translator.

Thank you, sir, much appreciated. One thing that awakened my interest was noticing that in the 2014 edition of John's Gospel he transliterated ἑώρακα in John 1.34 as ‘ophesthe’. I suggest a possible partial explanation here, based on the occurrence of ὄψεσθε in John 1.39.