Have multiple questions but will start with those that are easy to lay out.

During marriage ex sells his condo in another country for lets say 60k. There is a transfer to their joint account for 40k from the relative that sold the property on ex's behalf. No other deposits from there. That money was used to buy a condo here. Upon separation condo was sold as per ex's request and divided 50:50.

Fast forward to post trial. The judge said that she sees the traceable 40k and how they were invested and later divided. But she says that according to the sale, he brought into the marriage 60k from the sale. Therefore, she owes him those remaining 20k or half of it (not clear what my friend said).

The thing is his mother took 20k or he gave it to her, and gave only 40k. There is nowhere that it shows that 60k came in. My friend never held that money, nor did it even make to Canada.

So where is this going? What does judge mean? Does this make sense?

PS. Realized posted in the wrong section. You can delete this and i will repost in the relevant section.