It occured to me recently that when I was baptized, my original sin was wiped away and I was pure and clean before God. Therefore, at that point, I had the same “full of grace” immaculate status that Mary had at her conception. Is that correct? Can I explain Mary’s immaculate conception as her baptism, and that there was nothing greater or different about it (except form) from any other Christian’s baptism?

It occured to me recently that when I was baptized, my original sin was wiped away and I was pure and clean before God. Therefore, at that point, I had the same “full of grace” immaculate status that Mary had at her conception. Is that correct? Can I explain Mary’s immaculate conception as her baptism, and that there was nothing greater or different about it (except form) from any other Christian’s baptism?

Well no., it’s not the same. You have remaining the effects of Original Sin, that allows you to lean towards giving in to temptation. Mary was not effected by Original Sin in any way.

You were however in a perfect state of Grace after your Baptism, and if you had died for some reason before the “Age of Reason” you would have gone directly to Heaven.