In Greece, we read ancient Greek texts in terms of modern Greek pronounciation, as the alphabet is exactly the same in both languages.

So, my question is about aspirated dipthongs. What exactly was their pronounciation in classic attic dialect? Was the aspiration blown at the beginning of the dipthong or between, as the orthography indicates? E.g.:

οἷς -> [ho^is] or [o^his]

If I remember correctly in the pre-Eukleidian alphabet the spelling was ΗΟΙΣ... Is it correct? What Allen sais? I luck "Vox Graeca"...

Another issue came across my mind... Simple consonants become aspirated before aspirated vowels, and that indicates the presence of aspiration in compound words. Nevertheless, in compounds with certain prefixes the aspiration is kept out of orthography; but in pronounciation? E.g.:

κατά + ὁρῶ = καθ-ορῶ [kat-h-or^oo] ἀπό + αἱρῶ = ἀφ-αιρῶ [ap-h-air^oo]

but:

πρό +ὁρῶ = προορῶ; was it said [pro-h-or^oo] or [pro-or^oo], as the spelling shows? The same with:

Swth\r wrote: Nevertheless, in compounds with certain prefixes the aspiration is kept out of orthography; but in pronounciation?

This is a gap in the orthography. I pronounce the aspiration in compounds, even if it isn't written. Not only is it consistent with the behavior of καθ-ορῶ, but from time to time we get Latin records of certain words in which they do write the aspiration. For some reason the example I always think of for this is Εὐήμερος, Euhemerus.