This is my first post here. I am at the end of my first year of Latin (Wheelock).

I am translating the first few paragraphs of Genesis from the Vulgate and have a couple of questions. I am familiar enough with the Bible that the translation is disappointingly easy- I feel like I am cheating!

However I have run into a problem interpreting exactly what Jerome meant in the latter half of the sentence:

The Hebrew isn't that way though. The noun <b>erebh</b> "evening" is the subject of the reverse-imperfect of the verb "to be" <b>vayehi</b> "and (there) was" and then thilk verbform is used again with <b>boqer</b> "morning" as the subject, literally "And there was evening and there was morning, a second day".<pre></pre>