Thank you, sir, much appreciated. One thing that awakened my interest was noticing that in the 2014 edition of John's Gospel he transliterated ἑώρακα in John 1.34 as ‘ophesthe’. I suggest a possible partial explanation here, based on the occurrence of ὄψεσθε in John 1.39.

Andrew

That's a grievous mistake indeed. How could someone dealing with the Greek text confuse ἑώρακα for ὄψεσθε? And beyond that, to confuse ψ for φ? Interesting!

That's a grievous mistake indeed. How could someone dealing with the Greek text confuse ἑώρακα for ὄψεσθε? And beyond that, to confuse ψ for φ? Interesting!

What do you think of him transliterating ἐξηγέομαι as 'hexegeomai'? And of it not being picked up by the 2015 edition, even by the 'respected scholars and editors' who are said to have evaluated every footnote?

What do you think of him transliterating ἐξηγέομαι as 'hexegeomai'? And of it not being picked up by the 2015 edition, even by the 'respected scholars and editors' who are said to have evaluated every footnote?

Any one of the errors you have cited could be explainable by itself, but the cumulative effect is... distressing.