Q3 The value of taxable securities transaction relating to 'option in securities' is the ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) aggregate of the strike price and the option premium of such option in securities.(b) the strike price of such 'option in securities'(c) the option premium of such 'option in securities'(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q4 An option to buy or sell a swap, that becomes operative at the expiry of the option, is called a _______. [ 1 Mark ]

Q7 In case a Future Contract is not traded in a day, which of the following prices is reckoned for daily mark to market settlement? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Closing price of the last traded day(b) Theoretical price(c) Closing price of the futures contract(d) Closing price of the underlying(e) I am not attempting the question

Q8 You are the owner of a 2 million portfolio with a beta 1.0. You would like to insure your portfolio against a fall in the index of magnitude higher than 15%. Spot Nifty stands at 2200. Put options on the Nifty are available at three strike prices. Which strike will give you the insurance you want? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) 1,870(b) 1,840(c) 1,970(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9 The maximum brokerage chargeable by a trading member in relation to trades effected in the contracts admitted to dealing on the F&O segment of NSEIL is fixed at ______ of the contract value, exclusive of statutory levies. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1.50%(b) 2.50%(c) 0.75%(d) 3%(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10 Ms. Shetty has sold 600 calls on DR. REDDY'S LAB at a strike price of Rs.992 for a premium of Rs.25 per call on April 1, 2002. The closing price of equity shares of DR. REDDY'S LAB is Rs. 994 on that day. If the call option is assigned against her on that day, what is her net obligation on April 01, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Pay-out of Rs.18,300(b) Pay-in of Rs.18,300(c) Pay-in of Rs.13,800(d) Pay-out of Rs.13,800(e) I am not attempting the question

Q12 What is displayed in the NEAT Trading System Ticker Screen? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) The electronic display that continuously shows only the stock symbol, volume and price at which each successive trade occurs.(b) The electronic display that continuously shows only the price at which each successive trade occurs.(c) The electronic display that continuously shows only the stock symbol and volume at each successive trade occurs.(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q13 Each user of the trading member in F&O segment of NSEIL is assigned a unique _________ ID [ 3 Marks ]

Q14 _______ order allows the user to execute a contract as soon as it is entered into the system, failing which the order is immediately cancelled from the system. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) GTD(b) IOC(c) Limit(d) GTC(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15 Which of the following statement is true? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Basket trading is illegal in India.(b) NSE does not allow basket trading in it's F&O Segment.(c) Basket trading has been discontinued in the F&O Segment.(d) F&O Segment has a Basket trading facility.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16 Immediate or cancel is an order which will automatically __________ in F&O segment of NSEIL. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) be matched because it being a preferential order(b) be cancelled if it is not matched immediately and in its entirety(c) get stored in the system for matching, if not executed immediately(d) cancel the unmatched portion of the order quantity(e) I am not attempting the question

Q17 Ms. Asha sells an options contract of M/s. XYZ Ltd. (Lot Size: 1000) expiring on 29/Sep/2005 for Rs. 10. The strike price of the contract is Rs. 300. The spot price of the share is Rs. 290. The securities transaction tax thereon would be _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) any person who is acting in any capacity on behalf of the trading member or a participant for any activity relating to the trades done and executed(b) a person authorised by the exchange as an approved user of a trading member(c) an approved user of a participant(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q20 NSCCL's on-line position monitoring system monitors open position of _____________on a real time basis. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) clearing member only(b) trading member only(c) clearing member and trading member(d) dealer only(e) I am not attempting the question

Q21 The option price is the _______. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) price paid by the buyer of the option to the seller of the option(b) price at which an option trades in the market(c) sum of intrinsic value plus time value of an option(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q22 Which of the following contracts are compulsorily settled on exercise date? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) In the money option contracts(b) Deep at the money option contracts(c) At the money option contracts(d) Out of the money option contracts(e) I am not attempting the question

Q23 Which of the following are derivatives? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Options(b) Futures(c) Forward Rate Agreements(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24 Initial margin is collected to __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) make good daily losses(b) square-off a position on the expiry of the contract(c) safeguard against potential losses on out-standing positions(d) provide for losses that have already occurred(e) I am not attempting the question

Q25 Transaction tax is payable by the __________ of the derivative instrument. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) only on being admitted as a member of a stock exchange(b) on submission of document with SEBI for registration(c) on submission of document with stock exchange for admission(d) only on having a certificate of registration granted by SEBI(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29 The market impact cost on a trade of Rs. 3 million of the S&P CNX Nifty works out to be about 0.05%. This means that if S&P CNX Nifty is at 2000, a sell order of that value will go through at a price of Rs. _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) bought and sold on an exchange(b) bought and sold directly with the mutual fund(c) bought on an exchange but sold only directly to the mutual fund(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31 Ms. Shetty has sold 300 calls on WIPRO at a strike price of Rs.1503 for a premium of Rs.28 per call on April 1, 2002. The closing price of equity shares of WIPRO is Rs. 1553 on that day. If the call option is assigned against her on that day, what is her net obligation on April 01, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Pay-out of Rs. 21,600(b) Pay-in of Rs.15,000(c) Pay-out of Rs.13,400(d) Pay-in of Rs.6,600(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32 VaR methodology seeks to measure the amount of value that a portfolio may stand to lose within a certain horizon time period due to potential changes in ______________. [ 2 Marks ]

Q35 Which of the following is the duty of the trading member? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Sending the periodical statement of accounts to clients(b) Maintaining unique client codes(c) Ensuring timely pay-in and pay-out of funds(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q36 Which of the following should be disclosed separately for long and short positions, in respect of each series of equity index futures as of the balance sheet date? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Number of equity index futures contracts having open position(b) Number of units of equity index futures pertaining to the contracts(c) The daily settlement price(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

(a) settlement of contract takes place in the future(b) both parties are bound to give/take delivery(c) positions are marked-to-market everyday(d) contracts are custom designed(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38 You have bought a portfolio of securities on the exchange. To eliminate the risk arising out of market, you should _____. [ 3 Marks ]

Q39 The clearing member/trading member is required to disclose to the clearing corporation details of any person(s) acting in concert who together own _____% or more of the open interest of all futures and options contracts on a particular underlying index on the stock exchange. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 12(b) 15(c) 20(d) 25(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40 The spot price of TISCO is Rs. 2050 and the cost of financing is 10%. What is the fair price of a one month futures contract on TISCO? [ 2 Marks ]

Q41 Cyrus is short 600 WIPRO July Puts at strike Rs. 1520 for a premium of Rs. 33 each on July 22, 2002. On July 25, 2002 (the expiration day of the contract), the spot price of WIPRO closes at Rs.1553, while the July futures on WIPRO close at 1555. Does Cyrus have an obligation to the Clearing Corporation on his positions, and how much, if any? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Yes. Rs.19,800 pay-out(b) No pay in or pay-out on expiration of contract(c) Yes. Rs.18,900 pay-out(d) Yes. Rs.19,800 pay-in(e) I am not attempting the question

Q42 Which of the following is required for personnel working in the industry in order to dispense quality intermediation? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) To follow certain code of conduct.(b) To possess requisite skills and knowledge.(c) To have a proper understanding of the business and skills to help it remain competitive.(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q43 June futures contract on WIPRO closed at Rs. 1153 on May 20 and at Rs. 1150 on May 21, 2002. Raju has a short position of 4000 in the June futures contract. On May 21, 2002, he sells 3000 units of 10-June-2002 expiring Put Options on WIPRO at strike price of Rs.1145 for a premium of Rs.28 per unit. What is his net obligation to / from the Clearing Corporation for May 21, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Pay-in of Rs.32,000(b) Pay-in of Rs.72,000(c) Pay-out of Rs.96,000(d) Pay-out of Rs.32,000(e) I am not attempting the question

Q44 Assume that the base value of a market capitalization weighted index were 1000 and the base market capitalisation were Rs.35,000 crore. If the current market capitalisation is Rs.77,000 crore, the index is at Rs. ____. [ 1 Mark ]

Q46 The SEBI Committee on derivatives has recommended that the exposure limits for brokers should be linked to the __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) daily turnover of the broker(b) networth of the broker(c) satisfactory margin payment track record of the broker(d) deposits kept by the broker with the Exchange/Clearing corporation(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47 If the annual risk free rate is 10%, then the `r' used in the Black Scholes formula should be ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 0.095(b) 0.1398(c) 1.1(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48 At the balance sheet date, the balance in the `initial margin equity index futures account' should be shown separately under the head ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) prepaid expenses(b) current assets(c) outstanding balance(d) current liabilities(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49 Hedging with index futures means ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) long security, short security(b) long index futures, short index futures(c) long security, short index futures(d) long security, long index futures(e) I am not attempting the question

Q50 Which of the following is not the duty of the trading member? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Filling of 'Know Your Client' form(b) Assisting the client to arrange for margins(c) Bringing risk factors to the knowledge of client(d) Execution of Client Broker Agreement(e) I am not attempting the question

(a) through stock exchange(s) of which he or she is admitted as a member(b) directly(c) through association of members(d) through Ministry of Finance(e) I am not attempting the question

Q55 NCFM stands for ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) National Certification in Financial Management(b) National Certification in Financial Markets(c) NSE's Certification in Financial Markets(d) NSE's Certification in Financial Management(e) I am not attempting the question

Q56 In Indian context, derivative includes: A) A security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan whether secured or unsecured, risk instrument or contract for differences or any other form of security; B) A contract which derives its value from the prices, or index of prices, of underlying securities; [ 2 Marks ]

(a) A(b) B(c) Both of the above(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q57 The futures price is ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a) the price of a contract in the future(b) spot price plus cost of carry(c) the price at which a futures contract trades in the market(d) the price set by the exchange(e) I am not attempting the question

(a)next day of the contract(b)same day as the date of the contract(c)same day as the date of the contract or on the next day(d)delivery on the date of the contract and payment on the next day(e)I am not attempting the question

(a)general comments made in good faith in regard to the trends in the securities market(b)a promise made without any intention of performing it(c)a suggestion as to a fact which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true(d)an active concealment of a fact by a person having knowledge or belief of the fact(e)I am not attempting the question

(a)a director of the portfolio manager who is responsible for the activities of portfolio management and has been designated as principal officer by the portfolio manager(b)a director of the portfolio manager who is not responsible for the activities of portfolio management but may have been designated as principal officer(c)a director of the portfolio manager who is responsible for the activities of portfolio management but may not have been designated as principal officer by the portfolio manager(d)a director of the portfolio manager who is not responsible for the activities of portfolio management and has not been designated as principal officer(e)I am not attempting the question

Q4 While preparing the CTCL file, the date format should be _________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)DDMMYY(b)YYDDMM(c)DDMMYYYY(d)YYYYDDMM(e)I am not attempting the question

Q5 Where the scheme of Corporatisation and demutualisation of a stock exchange is approved, it shall be published __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)immediately by the SEBI in the Official Gazette and within 7 days by the Recognised Stock Exchange in two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI(b)within 7 days by the SEBI in the Official Gazette and by the Recognised Stock Exchange in two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI(c)within 7 days by the Recognised Stock Exchange in two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI(d)immediately by the SEBI in the Official Gazette and by the Recognised Stock Exchange in two daily newspapers as specified by the SEBI(e)I am not attempting the question

Q6 The words and expressions used and not defined in the SEBI Act,1992, shall have the meanings assigned to them as in the ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

Q7 State which of the following is true? As per SEBI (Ombudsman) Regulations, 2003, in order to be appointed as an Ombudsman ____________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a)a person should be below thirty five years of age(b)a person should be above fifty five years of age(c)a person should be below forty five years of age(d)a person should be above forty five years of age(e)I am not attempting the question

Q8 State which of the following is false? SEBI shall take into account the following, for considering the grant of a certificate of registration to a trading or clearing member [ 1 Mark ]

(a)The applicant has financial liabilities payable to the creditors of his company(b)The applicant is not subjected to disciplinary proceedings(c)The applicant has adequate infrastructure to effectively undertake his activities(d)The applicant is eligible to be admitted as a trading member(e)I am not attempting the question

(a)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the existing shareholders of the body corporate subscribe to the securities offered to them(b)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the public subscribe to the securities offered to them(c)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the existing shareholders of the body corporate or the public do not subscribe to the securities offered to them(d)an agreement to subscribe to the securities of a body corporate when the existing shareholders of the body corporate and the public subscribe to the securities offered to them(e)I am not attempting the question

Q11 Who can be penalised u/s 15B of the SEBI Act,1992, for failure to enter into agreement with clients? [ 1 Mark ]

Q12 Choose the correct statement. Stock-broker is the member of the Stock Exchange but sub-broker is not the member of the Stock Exchange [ 1 Mark ]

(a)No, neither of them are member of the Stock Exchange.(b)No, the stock broker is not the member of the Stock Exchange, but sub-broker is the member of the Stock Exchange(c)No, both the Stock broker and sub-broker are members of the Stock Exchange.(d)Yes, the stock broker is the member of the Stock exchange, but sub-broker is not the member of the Stock Exchange.(e)I am not attempting the question

Q13 A Trading member may appear through a legal practitioner only if the Constituent is represented through a legal practitioner in an Arbitration matter [ 3 Marks ]

(a)TRUE(b)FALSE(c)I am not attempting the question

Q14 State which of the following is not a manipulative, fraudulent and unfair trade practice? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)An intermediary not disclosing to his client transactions entered into on his behalf including taking an option position.(b)An intermediary providing his clients with such information relating to a security as cannot be verified by the clients before dealing in such security.(c)An intermediary reporting trading transactions to his clients entered into on their behalf in an inflated manner in order to increase his commsission and brokerage.(d)An intermediary issuing contract notes(e)I am not attempting the question

Q15 The SEBI is exempted to comply with the provisions of ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

Q18 Which of the following books of accounts is required to be maintained by the member of a Recognised Stock Exchange? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Register containing names and addresses of other members of the recognised stock exchange(b)Securities misplaced book(c)Minutes books of the meetings with other members(d)Sauda Book(e)I am not attempting the question

Q19 The SEBI has powers to issue directions to any company in respect of __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)matters specified in Section 12A of the SEBI Act(b)matters specified in Section 11A of the SEBI Act(c)matters specified in Section 1o of the SEBI Act(d)matters specified in Section 12 of the SEBI Act(e)I am not attempting the question

Q20 What is the possible action against a stock broker or a sub broker, for failure to satisfy the net worth or capital adequacy norms, if any, specified by the SEBI? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Monetary penalty(b)Action under the Enquiry Proceeding Regulations(c)Prosecution(d)None of the above(e)I am not attempting the question

Q21 What is the liability under SEBI (Stock Broker and Sub-Broker) Regulations, 1992, for contravention of the Act, rules or the regulations ? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Suspension(b)Prosecution u/s 24 of the Act(c)Monetary penalty(d)None of the above(e)I am not attempting the question

Q22 Currently, institutional trades on exchanges make the use of _________ [ 2 Marks ]

Q23 Exchange can revise the price bands of a specific security by way of ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)only through a broadcast message(b)announcing through info vendors(c)public notice(d)issuing circular(e)I am not attempting the question

Q24 As per SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 1993, state which of the following is false? Investment of funds of the client by a portfolio manager can be made in ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)trade bill(b)certificate of deposit(c)commercial paper(d)Any or all of the above(e)I am not attempting the question

Q25 State which of the following is true, as per the SEBI (Procedure for Holding Enquiry by Enquiry Officer and Imposing Penalty) Regulations, 2002? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)An officer who has conducted an inspection in respect of alleged violation by an intermediary shall be appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.(b)An officer who has dealt in the matter of alleged violation by an intermediary shall be appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.(c)No officer who has dealt in the matter of alleged violation by an intermediary shall be appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.(d)An officer who has conducted an investigation in respect of alleged violation by an intermediary shall be appointed as an enquiry officer for the purpose of holding an enquiry into the matter.(e)I am not attempting the question

Q26 State which of the following is not a price sensitive information as per the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Expansion plans(b)Change in the Board of Directors of the company(c)Issue of securities(d)Amalgamation(e)I am not attempting the question

Q28 State which of the following is true? As per the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992 ___________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a)A listed company is required to intimate to stock exchanges information received pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures within 5 days of receipt thereof(b)A listed company is required to intimate to stock exchanges information received pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures within 7 days of receipt thereof(c)A listed company is not required to intimate to stock exchanges information received pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures(d)A listed company is required to intimate to stock exchanges information received pertaining to initial disclosure and continuous disclosures within 2 days of receipt thereof(e)I am not attempting the question

Q29 State which of the following is false? A stock broker or sub-broker shall be liable for prosecution under Section 24 of the SEBI Act if he ____________ [ 2 Marks ]

(a)fails to pay penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer(b)indulges in insider trading in violation of SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992(c)acts as an unregistered sub-broker or deals with an unregistered sub-broker(d)violates SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003(e)I am not attempting the question

Q30 In demat environment, a security can have a distinctive number [ 2 Marks ]

(a)TRUE(b)FALSE(c)I am not attempting the question

Q31 A Clearing Member of a particular sub-segment can clear deals through ________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a)the Clearing Corporation of that particular sub-segment(b)any Clearing Corporation(c)Clearing Corporation of the National Stock Exchange only(d)None of the above(e)I am not attempting the question

Q32 Collective Investment Scheme means __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)investment by investors in more than one scheme at the same time(b)contributions or payments by investors, which are pooled and utilised for product / property scheme or arrangement, managed on behalf of investors(c)investment scheme run by mutual funds(d)investment made by investors collectively(e)I am not attempting the question

Q33 Details of Clients in the F&O Segment, having order value of more than Rs. 1 lakh, have to be furnished to the Exchange as per ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Details are not required to be furnished(b)SEBI guidelines(c)Income Tax guidelines(d)RBI guidelines(e)I am not attempting the question

Q34 An appeal against the order or decision of the SAT shall be made within __________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)45 days from the receipt of the order(b)60 days from the receipt of the order(c)40 days from the receipt of the order(d)50 days from the receipt of the order(e)I am not attempting the question

Q35 Exposure of Settlement Guarantee Fund to any single bank shall not be ___________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a)more than 10% of total liquid assets forming part of SGF(b)no limits(c)more than 50% of total liquid assets forming part of SGF(d)more than 15% of total liquid assets forming part of SGF(e)I am not attempting the question

Q38 When shall SEBI reject the scheme of Corporatisation and Demutualisation of a Recognised Stock Exchange? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)In the interest of trade and also in the public interest after giving the concerned Recognised Stock Exchange an opportunity of being heard.(b)On its own without giving the concerned Recognised Stock Exchange an opportunity to be heard(c)When the concerned Recognised Stock Exchange has not produced the required documents and supportings(d)None of the above.(e)I am not attempting the question

Q39 The application for the recognition or renewal of recognition of a Stock Exchange as per the SC(R)R, 1957 is made in _________. [ 2 Marks ]

Q40 Under the SC(R)R, 1957, what shall be the status of the members nominated by SEBI on the governing bodies of the Recognised Stock Exchange? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Same status but powers differ in some respect from those exercised by the other members of the governing body(b)Different status and powers from the other members of the governing body(c)Status superior to that of the other members of the governing body(d)Same status and powers as other members of the governing body(e)I am not attempting the question

Q41 As per section 17A of the SC(R)R, 1957, the periodical returns to be submitted by every Recognised Stock Exchange shall contain __________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)number of shares delivered through the clearing house(b)any matter specified by the SEBI(c)the number of securities listed and delisted during the previous three months(d)All of the above(e)I am not attempting the question

Q42 Surrender of Membership by a Trading Member has to be approved by ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)the Exchange(b)the Clearing Member(c)the RBI(d)All of the above(e)I am not attempting the question

Q43 Which of the following statements is true? [ 2 Marks ]

(a)Fraudulent or unfair trade practice does not includes any act amounting to arriving at a fair of price of a security(b)Fraudulent or unfair trade practice does not include any act amounting to manipulation of price of a security.(c)Manipulation of price of security is not a fraudulent practice(d)Fraudulent or unfair trade practice does not include any omission amounting to manipulation of price of a security(e)I am not attempting the question

Q44 The term 'Contract' is defined under the Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956 as ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)a contract for or relating to the purchase or sale of commodities(b)a contract for or relating to the purchase or sale of real estate instruments(c)a contract for or relating to the purchase or sale of securities(d)None of the above.(e)I am not attempting the question

Q45 Short sale means a sale of security _________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a)where the seller sells his shares within a short period after he purchased the same shares(b)where the seller does not have an exercisable & unconditional right on the shares(c)where the buyer has no right on sale of securities(d)where the sale takes place within a short period(e)I am not attempting the question

Q46 The Fund constituted under the SEBI Act,1992, for meeting expenses and crediting sums received by SEBI is named as ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)Securities and Exchange Board of India General Fund(b)Consolidated Fund of India(c)SEBI General Receipt and Expenditure Fund(d)Consolidated General Fund of Securities and Exchange Board of India(e)I am not attempting the question

Q49 State which of the following is false, as per the SEBI (Procedure for Holding Enquiry by Enquiry Officer and Imposing Penalty) Regulations, 2002? [ 1 Mark ]

(a)If the enquiry officer has recommended a minor penalty, the Chairman cannot impose major penalty(b)If the enquiry officer has recommended a minor penalty, the Member of SEBI can impose major penalty subject to giving notice to the intermediary to make a written submission.(c)If the enquiry officer has recommended a minor penalty, the Chairman of SEBI can impose major penalty subject to giving notice to the intermediary to make a written submission.(d)I am not attempting the question

Q50 The Books of accounts and documents shall be maintained and preserved by the members of a Recognised Stock Exchange for a period of _______ [ 2 Marks ]

Q51 No trading member shall be eligible to continue or be nominated on the Executive Committee of a stock exchange, if ________. [ 2 Marks ]

(a)his certificate of registration as a stock broker has been cancelled by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or he has been expelled by the Exchange(b)if his certificate of registration as a stock broker or his trading rights have been suspended by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or the Exchange(c)if he falls in the category of Notified Persons as per the Special Courts (Trial of Offences Relating to Transaction in Securities) Act, 1992 and two years have not elapsed from the date the member is denotified under the said Act(d)All of the above(e)I am not attempting the question

Q52 State which of the following is false? As per SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992, SEBI has the right to investigate and inspect the books of accounts of an insider or any other person specified therein under Section 11 of the SEBI Act, 1992, for the following purposes [ 2 Marks ]

(a)To investigate into the books to verify any errors(b)To investigate into the books on complaints received from intermediaries on the allegations of insider trading(c)To investigate the books suo moto on the basis of its own knowledge or information in its possession in order to protect the interest of investors in securities against breach of these regulations.(d)To investigate into the books on complaints received from investors of allegations of insider trading(e)I am not attempting the question

Q53 As per the SEBI (Ombudsman) Regulations, 2003, a panel of persons, out of which, a person may be appointed as Stipendiary Ombudsman shall remain in force for a period of ___________. [ 2 Marks ]

Q56 As per the SEBI (Underwriters) Regulations, 1993, an underwriter whose application for renewal of certificate has been refused ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a)cannot continue to act as an underwriter even for existing commitments underwritten during the validity period of the certificate(b)shall continue to act as an underwriter for a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of the communication from the SEBI(c)shall continue to act as underwriter(d)cease to act as underwriter from the date of receipt of the communication from the SEBI (e)I am not attempting the question

Q57 The Securities and Exchange Board of India may require, further information or clarifications, regarding the dealings in securities, to consider the application for grant of certificate of registration to a stock broker. For this purpose, the following can appear on behalf of the applicant [ 1 Mark ]

(a)any employee of the company(b)Principal officer of the company.(c)a shareholder of the company(d)Auditor of the company(e)I am not attempting the question

Q58 Model format of Risk Disclosure documents has been prescribed by SEBI for the trading members to give to all clients mandatorily [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Gross Income/Average Total Asset (b) Average total asset/Gross Income (c) Return on Equity/Average total Asset (d) Net income /Average Total Asset (e) I am not attempting the question

Q4 Which of the following is a benefit of participation in a depository? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No stamp duty on transfer of securities. (b) Elimination of risks associated with physical certificates such as bad delivery, fake securities,etc. (c) Nomination facility. (d) All of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q6 Which of the following is not true about offer of shares through normal public issue? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) In normal Public issue, investors bid for shares at the floor price or above and after the closure of the process the price is determined for allotment of shares. (b) In case of the normal public issue the demand for an issue is known at the close of the issue. (c) In case of offer of shares through normal public issue price at which securities will be allotted is known to an investor in advance . (d) None of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

(a) Value of shares of the company held by Foreign Investors (b) No. of shares issued by a company multiplied by it's market price (c) Value of shares held by promoters of the company (d) Value of shares in the company held by the public (e) I am not attempting the question

Q17 What is the present value of Rs 10000 receivable after 1 year discounted at 10% p.a.? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Government borrowings (b) Supply of money (c) Inflation rate (d) All of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q19 Which of the following needs to be considered by an investor, while investing? [ 3 Marks ]

(a) Assess risk-return profile of the investment. (b) Know the liquidity and safety aspects of the investment. (c) Obtain written documents explaining the investment. (d) All of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q20 Money market mutual funds can invest in _______. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) treasury bills (b) certificate of deposits (c) commercial paper (d) All of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q21 Which of the following is not true about a debt instrument? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) It signifies a ownership right in the company. (b) It carries interest paying obligation. (c) It has a fixed maturity. (d) None of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

(a) Primary Markets are markets where commodities are sold. (b) Primary Market is the place where public can buy and sell securities from one another. (c) Primary Markets refer to the mobilization of funds from the public by corporates through the issue of shares / debentures. (d) Primary Markets are places where only short term instruments are traded. (e) I am not attempting the question

Q25 The future value of a Rs.10,000 investment done today, which gives an annual rate of return of 20% per annum, after one year should be ____________. [ 3 Marks ]

Q26 Which of the following problems have been eliminated by Depositories? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Reduction in the share transfer time to the buyer. (b) Risk of stolen, fake, forged shares. (c) Stamp duty on transfer of shares in dematerialized form. (d) All of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q27 Which of the following is not a benefit of investing in mutual funds? [ 2 Marks ]

(a) Investment in Mutual funds leads to diversification of holdings. (b) Mutual funds are managed by professional fund managers. (c) Mutual Funds regularly provide investors with information on the value of their investments. (d) None of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q28 Funds which invest only in the stocks comprising an index and aim to give returns commensurate with the index returns are called _________. [ 2 Marks ]

Q32 An investment should provide an after-tax return which is ________. [ 3 Marks ]

(a) at least higher than the rate of inflation (b) less than the rate of inflation (c) equal to the rate of inflation (d) None of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q33 Which of the following is not true about ADR? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) ADR represents the foreign shares of the company held on deposit by a custodian bank in the company's home country. (b) ADRs may be used in public or private markets inside or outside US. (c) ADRs do not eliminate the currency risk associated with an investment in a non-U.S. company. (d) An ADR is a U.S. dollar denominated form of equity ownership in a non-U.S. company. (e) I am not attempting the question

(a) The revenues and expenses during particular period of time. (b) The revenues and expenses of the company at a particular point of time. (c) The financial position of the company at a particular point of time. (d) None of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q38 Which instrument among these have historically shown to give the highest returns when invested over long periods? [ 3 Marks ]

Q42 ________________ is maintained by NSE to make good investor claims, which may arise out of non-settlement of obligations by the trading member, who has been declared defaulter, in respect of trades executed on the Exchange. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership, the management and the trading rights at the exchange are segregated from one another (b) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership and the management at the exchange are segregated from one another (c) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership, the management and the trading rights at the exchange vests in one person (d) None of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q48 Which securities can an investor invest in? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Shares (b) Debentures (c) Mutual Funds (d) All of the above (e) I am not attempting the question

Q49 _____________ gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation to sell a given quantity of underlying asset at a given price on or before a given future date. [ 1 Mark ]

Q2 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, non-executive directors shall be required to disclose their shareholding: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) In the associate companies other than the listed company in which they are proposed to be appointed(b) In the group companies of the listed company in which they are proposed to be appointed(c) In other companies other than the listed company in which they are proposed to be appointed(d) In the listed company in which they are proposed to be appointed as directors(e) I am not attempting the question

Q3 There are 13 directors in Company A. What shall be the quorum at the Board meeting? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Incorporation is not required(b) US(c) Europe(d) India(e) I am not attempting the question

Q5 A listed company is required to lay down procedures to inform board members about the risk assessment and minimization procedures. This information is given as per Clause _____ of the listing agreement. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 49 (b) 36(c) 51(d) 12(e) I am not attempting the question

Q6 Information regarding sale of material nature, of investments, subsidiaries, assets, which is not in normal course of business has to be placed before _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Audit Committee (b) Senior Management(c) Board of Directors(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q9 State which of the following is false: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the role of the Audit Committee shall include the following: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Reviewing with the management the adequacy of internal control systems(b) Reviewing with the management the adequacy of secretarial audit(c) Reviewing with the management the adequacy of internal audit function(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q10 As per the sub-clause V of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, CFO includes _____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Chairman of the Audit Committee(b) Head of Accounts department(c) Whole time finance director(d) Chairman (e) I am not attempting the question

Q11 As per Sub-clause V of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, certification is required to be done by the: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Executive Director of the company(b) CEO and CFO of the company(c) Independent Director of the company(d) Company Secretary of the company (e) I am not attempting the question

Q13 Clause 49 was introduced in the Listing Agreement pursuant to the recommendations of the report of the Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) FALSE(b) False, only amendments were made to the Clause(c) TRUE(d) False, Clause 49 existed prior to the set up of the Committee(e) I am not attempting the question

Q14 State which of the following is true: As per Section 292A of the Companies Act, 1956, the following shall have the right to vote in an Audit Committee meeting: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The members of the audit committee(b) The internal auditors(c) The director in charge of finance(d) The statutory auditors(e) I am not attempting the question

Q15 The inclusion of an independent director in a Board brings ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Independence in management(b) A more practical approach to the decision making process(c) Objective view(d) A more knowledgeable view and a more professional view(e) I am not attempting the question

Q16 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the disclosures on remuneration shall be made in the Annual Report in the: [ 1 Mark ]

Q17 Announcement in respect to the unaudited quarterly results should be made in the newspaper within _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 72 hours from the closure of the Board meeting.(b) 48 hours from the closure of the Board meeting(c) 7 days from the date of the Board meeting(d) 15 minutes of the closure of the Board meeting(e) I am not attempting the question

(a) Laws applicable to the company.(b) Accounting Standards.(c) Simulation(d) Provisions of laws.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q19 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, a statement in summary form of transactions with related parties in the ordinary course of business shall be placed before the relevant committee [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No disclosure is required to be made.(b) Significant changes should be disclosed only on directive of the SEBI.(c) Significant changes should be disclosed.(d) Changes in the accounting policies in the last two years should be made.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q24 The credibility and effectiveness of a non executive director in the board room will depend on ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Qualifications(b) His ability to acquire governance as well as company specific knowledge and skills(c) Adaptability (d) Capability to align his objectives with the objectives of the company(e) I am not attempting the question

(a) Vary or be same depending upon the size of the company (b) Same for both the classes of directors(c) Partly vary and partly be same for both the classes of directors(d) Vary for both the classes of directors(e) I am not attempting the question

Q28 A company can _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Disclose price sensitive information to the stock exchange if the SEBI asks for that(b) Not disclose the price sensitive information to the stock exchange(c) Disclose price sensitive information to the stock exchange unless the Stock Exchange is already aware of it.(d) Disclose price sensitive information to the stock exchange(e) I am not attempting the question

Q29 The maximum time gap between two audit committee meetings shall not be more than ______. [ 1 Mark ]

Q30 As per provisions of the Listing Agreement, disclosure on materially significant related party transactions that has potential conflict with the interests of the company at large is to be mandatorily made in the Report on Corporate Governance: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Disclosure on all related party transactions is to be mandatorily made in the Report on Corporate Governance(b) Listed companies are not required to comply with this.(c) Listed companies may do this on the directive of SEBI/Stock Exchange.(d) Listed companies may do so on the directive of Registrar of Companies/Ministry of Company Affairs.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q31 A listed company is required to keep the Stock Exchange informed of events such as strikes, lock-outs, closure on account of power cuts, etc in order to enable the shareholders to appraise the position of the company [ 1 Mark ]

(a) After the cessation of the event(b) At the time of occurrence of the event (c) Annually at the end of the year.(d) Both at the time of occurrence of the event and after the cessation of the event(e) I am not attempting the question

Q32 As per Sub-Clause VII of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, a listed company is required to obtain a certificate of compliance of conditions of corporate governance from: [ 1 Mark ]

Q36 As per the Listing Agreement Annual Report should be submitted to the Stock Exchange ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) within 15 days from the end of the year(b) within 5 minutes of its issuance(c) within 30 days from the end of the financial year(d) as soon as it is issued(e) I am not attempting the question

Q37 C a shareholder of Company A requested for copies of the register under section 301 of the Companies Act 1956. His request was turned down stating that as the register contains details about interest of directors and contracts in which they are interested, it is confidential and copies cannot be given. Is the refusal valid? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Yes, unless the Board approves such inspection.(b) Yes, as he is not a director, he cannot inspect such confidential documents.(c) No. Being a member he has a right to inspect the Register.(d) Yes, unless the shareholders pass a resolution in favor of it.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q38 Sub-Clause VII of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement requires certification of compliance of conditions of corporate governance. This certificate is required to be sent annually to: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India(b) Shareholders of the company(c) Directors of the company(d) Auditors of the company (e) I am not attempting the question

Q39 The Audit Committee ________ [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Can obtain outside legal or other professional advice only if the Board approves.(b) Can obtain outside legal or other professional advice only if the members decide by way of resolution.(c) Can not obtain outside legal or other professional advice.(d) Can obtain outside legal or other professional advice.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q40 The maximum time gap between two board meetings shall not be more than _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) four months(b) six months(c) three months(d) two months(e) I am not attempting the question

Q41 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, details of the following transactions which are not in the normal course of business shall be placed before the relevant committee: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) TRUE(b) FALSE (c) True, provided all the directors pass a unanimous resolution.(d) False, training of the CEO, CFO and the Chairman of every committee is mandatory.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q46 The Company shall obtain a certificate regarding compliance of conditions of corporate governance from ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Auditors(b) Practicing Company Secretary (c) Either of the two(d) Both(e) I am not attempting the question

Q47 There are ______ general types of corporate ownerships. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1(b) 2 (c) 3(d) 4(e) I am not attempting the question

Q48 The minimum number of non-executive directors on board should be _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Not less than 50%(b) Not less than 33% (c) Not less than 60%(d) Not less than 75%(e) I am not attempting the question

Q49 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, Chairman of the Remuneration Committee should be: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Chairman of the company(b) Managing Director of the company(c) Executive Director of the company(d) Independent Director of the company(e) I am not attempting the question

Q53 Annual Report of a listed company contains a brief statement on the company's philosophy on code of governance. The is conforming [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Clause 49 of the listing agreement(b) Clause 38 of the listing agreement(c) Clause 51 of the listing agreement(d) Clause 41 of the listing agreement(e) I am not attempting the question

Q54 Under Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the unaudited financial results should be furnished to the Stock Exchange within ___________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 1 month from the end of the half year (b) 1 month from the end of the quarter.(c) 2 months from the end of the half year.(d) 2 months from the end of the quarter.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q55 The filing under Clause 41 of the Listing Agreement should be made within _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Within 15 days from the end of the quarter(b) as soon as the meeting is over(c) 15 minutes from the closure of the concerned meeting(d) Within 30 days from the end of the half year(e) I am not attempting the question

Q56 As per Section 292A of the Companies Act, 1956, an Audit Committee of the Board shall comprise of not less than: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Four directors(b) Two directors(c) Three directors(d) Five directors(e) I am not attempting the question

Q57 X & Y, both directors of Company A are brothers who stay in the same apartment. Company A decided to do away with sending notice to X as Y promised to inform X about the meeting? Is the contention of Company A valid? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Yes, if all directors agree(b) yes, only if X agrees(c) No (d) Yes(e) I am not attempting the question

Q58 Management Discussion and Analysis report should form part of the ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Audit Report to Board (b) Annual Report to Shareholders(c) Compliance report to Stock Exchanges (d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q59 State which of the following is true: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, reviewing with the management the annual financial statements before submission to the Board for approval includes [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Disclosures of material related & non-related party transactions(b) Disclosure of any party transactions(c) Disclosure of any related party transactions(d) Disclosure of the list of relatives(e) I am not attempting the question

Q60 As per the OECD Principles of Corporate Governance-2004, corporate governance framework should recognize the rights of stakeholders through _______________ agreements. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) An employee involved in marketing products (b) An employee or ex-employee providing information on violations of law, financial malpractice etc(c) An ex-employee intimating instances of violations of law, malpractice etc(d) An advertising agent(e) I am not attempting the question

Q64 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the Company is required to disclose in the Annual Report: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The number of non-convertible instruments held by non-executive directors(b) The number of shares and convertible instruments held by non-executive directors(c) The number of shares and convertible instruments held by non-executive directors in other companies(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q65 Interested directors can participate in discussions pertaining to the contract he is interested. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) FALSE(b) True, provided he does not vote(c) TRUE(d) True, provided the quorum is present (e) I am not attempting the question

Q66 A separate _______ cell has to be set up by stock exchanges to monitor the compliance of revised clause 49 by the companies. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Evaluating (b) Monitoring(c) Enforcing(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q67 Atleast _____ independent director on the board of Directors of the holding company shall be director on the board of directors of a material non listed Indian subsidiary company. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 3(b) 4(c) 1(d) 2(e) I am not attempting the question

Q68 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, a statement in summary form of transactions with related parties in the ordinary course of business shall be placed before the : [ 1 Mark ]

Q69 If in respect of any item in the format laid down in Clause 41 of the Listing Agreement varies by ______________ from the respective unaudited results as determined after review by the auditors, the company shall explain the reasons thereof. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 20%(b) 20% or more(c) 30% or more(d) 30%(e) I am not attempting the question

Q70 Commencement of Commercial Operations or Production has to be reported to Stock Exchange under clause ____. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) 50(b) 43(c) 36(d) 41(e) I am not attempting the question

Q71 For compliance of conditions of clause 49 of the listing agreement, the Board of Directors of a listed company is required to set up: [ 1 Mark ]

Q74 A listed company is required to _____________ a half-yearly declaration of financial performance to ____________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) mandatorily; each shareholder(b) mandatorily; each household of shareholders(c) non-mandatorily; each shareholder(d) non-mandatorily; each household of shareholders(e) I am not attempting the question

Q75 State which of the following is false: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the role of the Audit Committee shall include reviewing with the management: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) The qualifications in the final audit report(b) The functioning of the Whistle Blower Mechanism(c) The quarterly financial statements(d) The annual financial statements(e) I am not attempting the question

Q76 A is the Company Secretary of X Co. Ltd listed in the National Stock Exchange complying with Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement places the summary statement containing related party disclosures before the designated Committee at each of its meeting. D a director of X Co. Ltd. contended that the statement was required to be placed before the Committee every year and not at every meeting. Is the contention of D valid? [ 1 Mark ]

Q77 The Annual Report of a company is required to be sent to the stock exchange along with: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Certificate from practicing company secretary regarding compliance of conditions of Corporate Governance as per Clause 49(b) Certificate from the Chief Executive Officer of the company regarding compliance of conditions of Corporate Governance as per Clause 49(c) Certificate from the senior management regarding compliance of conditions of Corporate Governance as per Clause 49(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q78 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement the Board should comprise of _______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) More than fifty percent but less than sixty percent non-executive directors(b) Not less than fifty percent non-executive directors(c) Less than fifty percent non-executive directors(d) fifty percent non-executive directors(e) I am not attempting the question

Q79 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement the code of conduct should be displayed on the ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Annual report of the company(b) Notice board of the company (c) Website of the company(d) Press release(e) I am not attempting the question

Q80 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the Shareholder's Grievance Committee should comprise of: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Four Directors(b) Three Directors(c) Two Directors(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q81 The revised clause 49 is not applicable to ________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Indian Banks(b) Listed Development Financial Institutions(c) Mutual Fund(d) All of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q82 State which of the following is false: As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, the role of the Audit Committee shall include: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Assisting the statutory auditor(b) Recommending the appointment, re-appointment and replacement or removal of the statutory auditor(c) Approval of payment to statutory auditors(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

(a) Personnel of the company who are members of its core management team(b) Personnel of the company who are members of the Executive Committee(c) Personnel of the company who are members of the Audit Committee(d) Personnel of the company who are members of the Board of Directors(e) I am not attempting the question

Q85 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, non-executive directors are required to disclose their shareholding: [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Prior to their appointment (b) On 1st April every year(c) Immediately after appointment (d) On 31st March every year (e) I am not attempting the question

Q86 For the purpose of reckoning the limit of Chairmanship of Committees, _________. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Only membership of Audit Committee and Shareholders Grievance Committee shall be considered(b) Chairmanship of any Committee may be considered in absence of Audit Committee/ Shareholders GrievanceCommittee.(c) Only Chairmanship of Audit Committee and Shareholders Grievance Committee shall be considered.(d) Only Chairmanship of Remuneration Committee shall be considered in the absence of Audit Committee.(e) I am not attempting the question

Q87 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement one of the areas of training for directors could be [ 1 Mark ]

(a) History and organisation structure (b) Information systems being used by the company(c) Industry statistics(d) Business model of the company(e) I am not attempting the question

Q88 The compliance report thus submitted should be signed by ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Statutory Auditors(b) Chairman of the Company(c) Either Compliance officer or the CEO of the company(d) Managing Director of the Company(e) I am not attempting the question

Q89 A presentation made by the company to ____________ can either be hosted on company's website or stock exchange website. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Three members or one-third of the members of the Committee whichever is greater(b) Four members or one-third of the members of the Committee whichever is greater(c) Two members or one-third of the members of the committee whichever is greater(d) None of the above(e) I am not attempting the question

Q92 As per Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, information on recruitment of which level of officers are required to be placed before the Board? [ 1 Mark ]

Q97 As per Annexure I (d) of Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement, every listed company is __________ required to establish a whistle blower policy. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) Mandatorily(b) Non-mandatorily, but where all the present employees give their consent is(c) Mandatorily on directive of the CLB(d) Non-mandatorily(e) I am not attempting the question

Q98 Blue Ribbon Committee was sponsored by ______. [ 1 Mark ]

(a) NYSE and NYMEX(b) NYSE and NASDAQ(c) NYSE and NCDEX(d) NYSE and NASD(e) I am not attempting the question

Q99 The credibility and effectiveness of a non executive director in the board room will depend on [ 1 Mark ]

(a) His ability to acquire governance as well as company specific knowledge and skills(b) Motives(c) Adaptability to issues & concerns raised(d) Qualifications that he has acquired(e) I am not attempting the question

Q100 A holds 1.95% of the share capital of Company B. If he wishes to enter into a contract with Company B, is he required to comply with Section 299 of the Companies Act 1956? [ 1 Mark ]

(a) No. as holding is not 2 %(b) Yes as holding more than 1% of the Share capital(c) No. as holding is less than 2%(d) Yes(e) I am not attempting the question