John
uniquely had his episode about Jesus and his disciples in the Judean
countryside. John used a
transition phrase that meant that after these things (Μετὰ ταῦτα), that is the
episode with Nicodemus, Jesus (ὁ Ἰησοῦς), with his disciples (καὶ οἱ μαθηταὶ
αὐτοῦ), went (ἦλθεν) into the Judean countryside (εἰς τὴν Ἰουδαίαν γῆν),
outside of or not in Jerusalem. These
disciples may have been a relatively small group. Jesus remained there for some time with them (καὶ
ἐκεῖ διέτριβεν μετ’ αὐτῶν). Judea was
the southern part of Israel with Galilee the northern part of Israel at that
time. There they were baptizing (καὶ
ἐβάπτιζεν) people, like John the Baptist had done with a baptism of repentance. Thus, this connection with John the Baptist
popped up again. Apparently, this seemed
like Jesus was also baptizing, but John made a later clarification in
the following chapter 4:2, that Jesus himself did not baptize anyone. The synoptic gospels did not have Jesus do any
baptizing. Why do you think that Jesus
did not baptize anyone?