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Which Penicillins do not require dose adjustments in renal impairment?

Nafcillin, Oxacillin

Which penicillins are both IV drugs for Pseudomonas?

Ticarcillin, Piperacillin

What has no antimicrobial activity but helps a medication to live longer and "out-do" the organism?

B-Lactamase Inhibitors

Which cephalosporin does not require dose adjustments in renal impairment?

Ceftriaxone

Which cephalosporins have mostly gram positive coverage?

First generation

Which cephalosporins have pseudomonas coverage?

Ceftazidime, cefepime

Doripenem, Imipenem, Meropenem, Ertapenem all fall into which antibiotic class?

Carbapenems

Which Carbapenem is the only one that does not cover for Pseudomonas?

Ertapenem

What is the bleeding disorder that can be an adverse effect of B-lactams and may be prevented with vitamin K therapy?

Hypoprothrombinemia

What is the only drug of the monobactam class that has activity against gram negative bacteria including pseudomonas?

Aztreonam

Cephalosporins are not active against which 2 groups of microorganisms?

Enterococci and L. monocytogenes

This drug has gram positive coverage only, is good for VRE and has adverse effects of myopathy and increased CPK

Daptomycin

Which of the following is not an adverse effect of vancomycin? ototoxicity, red man's syndrome, ALT elevations, nephrotoxicity

ALT elevations

Which of the macrolides is the worst for causing the adverse effect of GI symptoms?

Erythromycin

Which antimicrobial is broad spectrum that can cause Gray baby syndrome?

Chloramphenicol

Which of the fluoroquinolones are respiratory, used for CAP?

Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin

Which NNRTI is Pregnancy Category D and can worsen psychiatric illness?

Efavirenz

Which of the following fluoroquinolones are not PO? Levoflaxacin, Norfloxacin, Ciprofloxacin, Moxifloxacin

Norfloxacin

Which TB agent can cause retrobulbar neuritis?

Ethambutol

Which of the following non-retroviral agents are not used for CMV? Docosonal, Acyclovir, Foscarnet, Ganciclovir

Docosanol

Which antifungal is known to cause anemia, nephrotoxicity, and infusion-related toxicity?

Amphotericin B

Which of the following drugs is not used for Hepatitis B? Adefovir, Telbivudine, Sofosbuvir, Entecavir

Sofosbuvir

Which of the following ART drugs is a CCR5 receptor antagonist and has a BBW of hepatotoxicity? Indinavir, Maraviroc, Abacavir, Stavudine

Maraviroc

Which penicillin would be prescribed to treat a Pseudomonas infection? Oxacillin, Amoxicillin, Ticarcillin, Penicillin G

Ticarcillin

What is the BBW for fluoroquinolones?

Tendon rupture

Which of the following is not a side effect of Isoniazid (INH)? Hepatotoxicity, ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, drug-induced SLE?

Ototoxicity

What can you give along with elemental iron to improve its absorption?

Vitamin C/acidic environment

What adverse effects would you warn your patient about when started on oral iron therapy?

Dark stools, constipation

How do you treat iron toxicity?

Deferoxamine, Deferasirox

Which iron therapy would you perform a test dose first with the patient in order to avoid a hypersensitivity reaction?

Iron dextran

Which of the following is not an etiology of iron deficiency anemia? Menstruating women, blood donations, strict vegetarians, corticosteroids

Strict vegetarians

Which of the following is a parenteral preparation for Vitamin B12 deficiency? Hydroxocobalamin, pyridoxine, nicotinic acid, iron dextran

Hydroxocobalamin

What deficiency is caused by inadequate dietary intake, pregnancy, or medications such as methotrexate?

Folic acid deficiency

What is the difference between folic acid deficiency and vitamin B12 deficiency?

No neurologic symptoms in folic acid deficiency

What is the recommended dose and formulation for someone with folic acid deficiency and what could the dose be if they have a malabsorption syndrome?

1 mg PO daily and up to 5 mg daily

What is the dose given to pregnant women at low risk for folic acid deficiency and women who have some sort of history of neural tube defect issues?

0.4 mg daily low risk and 4 mg daily high risk

A patient is on Epoetin alfa because he is an HIV infected patient being treated with what drug most likely?

Zidovudine

What are the black box warnings for patients on erythropoeitin stimulating agents?

Chronic kidney disease, cancer, perisurgery

Which of the following is not an adverse effect of erythropoeitin stimulating agents? Bone pain, bone marrow suppression, pure red cell aplasia, thrombotic events

Bone marrow suppression

Meg presents with ataxia, weakness, and other neurological symptoms. What would the best treatment option be for her? IV cyanocobalamin, oral folic acid, ferrous fumarate, epoetin alfa

IV cyanocobalamin

Which of the following is not an indirect thrombin inhibitor? Enoxaparin (Lovenox), Warfarin (Coumadin), Fondaparinux (Arixtra), Dalteparin (Fragmin)

Warfarin (Coumadin)

What is the sister drug to Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)?

Apixaban (Eliquis)

Which of the following is not an indication of Dabigatran (Pradaxa)? DVT/PE treatment, DVT prophylaxis in patients undergoing hip/knee athroplasty, prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in nonvalvular afib

DVT prophylaxis in patients undergoing knee/hip surgery

How are the emerging oral anticoagulants dosed and excreted (Pradaxa, Xarelto, Eliquis)?

Renally

What would you counsel your patient to do if they miss a dose of their warfarin?

Skip that dose entirely and then continue on their normal time schedule

Which of the following is an acceptable intervention for someone on too much warfarin? Protamine sulfate, phytonadione, factor IIa, pyridoxine

Phytonadione

What is aspirin available in combination with as Aggrenox?

dipyridamole

Which of the following drugs is a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA receptor antagonist? Enoxaparin (Lovenox), Abciximab (Reopro), Clopidogrel (Plavix), Ticagrelor (Brilinta)

Abiciximab (Reopro)

What is the recommended therapy for a CHA2DS2 VASc score of 2 or more?

Anticoagulant or Aspirin + clopidogrel

What is a non-immune mediated response to heparin and what is the management?

HIT Type I; no intervention required

What is an immune-mediated response to heparin and is intervention required?

HIT Type II; intervention required

Which of the following medications cannot be used as an alternate medication for a patient with HIT? Fondaparinux, Lepirudin, Protamine sulfate, Argatroban

Protamine sulfate

What is the blackbox warning for Dabigatran (Pradaxa) and Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)?

Spinal/epidural hematoma

What are the adverse effects of warfarin?

Bleeding, bruising, purple toe syndrome

What is the initial dose and administration of warfarin?

5-10 mg PO

What is the therapeutic INR range you would want for someone at risk for a VTE?

Which drug class causes GI symptoms but has a minimal risk of hypoglycemia?

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

What is the SQ injection drug that is contraindicated with gastroparesis?

Amylin analog: Pramlintide (Symlin)

Which drug class increases insulin secretion, decreases glucagon secretion, and increases satiety as well as slows gastric emptying? Give examples and its formulations.

GLP-1 analog; Exenatide, Liraglutide; SQ injection

Personal or family history of thyroid C-cell hyperplasia carcinoma, MEN2, and CrCl <30 are all contraindications of which drug class?

GLP-1 analog

What is the adverse effect of exenatide?

Acute pancreatitis

Which two DPP-4 inhibitors are renally dose adjusted?

Sitagliptin, Saxagliptin

Which of the following drugs have a CI of decreased GFR and a precaution of drug interactions with UGT inducers/inhibitors? Sitagliptin (Januvia), Dapagliflozin (Forxiga), Pramlintide (Symlin), Acarbose (Precose)