This is what I've read in Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde, a book I'm not finished with yet:

Your master, Poole, is plainly seized with one of those maladies that both torture and deform the sufferer; hence, for aught i know, the alteration of his voice; hence the mask and his avoidance of this friends; hence his eagerness to find this drug, by means of which the poor soul retains some hope of ultimate recovery - God grant that he be not deceived!

Everything I have read about the subjunctive says that negative statements have not before, not after the verb, as you would have in the indicative. This extract is clearly in the subjunctive but doesn't follow that "principle". Haven't they disclosed everything there is to know about the subjunctive, am I missing something here, or is that a good ol' mistake?

Brazilian dude

P.S. I must admit that not looks better after, not before the verb in this particular instance. I guess one could also say that he should/may not be deceived, but that's avoiding the problem.

Well, I don't know for sure, but this could be yet another dissimilarity between the verb "to be" and others. However, I didn't know that particular rule of the English subjunctive. It does sound correct to me to put the negation after the verb, as it doesn't putting it before.

Try to see if a sentence such as: "God grant that it not deceive him." sounds good to you and you may have the answer there.

"Dear lady, look not upon my ravaged countenance and recognize me, behind this hideous mask of tragedy. Oh, the countless sorrows this once brave face has seen! But, rather, gracious lady, listen to my heart where the scent of your presence brings both a soothing gentle laughter and a sweet searing pain."

Apo

'Experiments are the only means of knowledge at our disposal. The rest is poetry, imagination.' -Max Planck