Is the dominant Mercedes-Benz team's 2014 scoring 6 wins from the first six races unique?

Back in the dawn of F1 the Alfa Romeo team scored six wins in 1950, Fangio, Farina and Fagioli driving. The utterly dominant 1952 Ferrari team of Ascari Farina, Taruffi also scored the first six consecutive wins.

I had thought these were due to little competition from rival teams in those early days, and would never be repeated.

In 1988 the dominant McLaren-Honda pairing of Prost-Senna then scored the first six wins, showing that the phenomenon was possible in more modern times.

This was proved now in 2014 with the Hamilton-Rosberg Mercedes-Benz team scoring six.

Throughout Grand Prix history from 1894, it has often been a 'monopolistic' sport, where one team dominates and wins most of the races.

For the F1 era 1950-2014, the 4 seasons of season-opening first-6 race-winners represent 6.3% of the 64 seasons.14 seasons had 5 of first-6 race-winners for 21.9%, so achievement this is not that uncommon, at about once every five seasons.

The fact that such early season dominance has been spread from 1950 to 2014 shows that it is an ongoing possibility/occurrence in F1.

Interestingly the Vettel/Red Bull-Renault's dominance 2010-2013 did not manage to join the elite 5- or 6-time winners above here, while the Schumacher/Ferrari managed the feat twice, in 2002 and 2004.

Interestingly the Vettel/Red Bull-Renault's dominance 2010-2013 did not manage to join the elite 5- or 6-time winners above here, while the Schumacher/Ferrari managed the feat twice, in 2002 and 2004.

All this shows is that 2010-2013 were very close races unlike Merc apologists claim and Red Bull were winning on merit of developing car better than others. Aside for 2 brief periods, RB car was never good enough for 'certain' wins.

Am I missing the point of this thread? The OP asks a question and then immediately answers it in the negative. Also, why 6 races? Surely McLaren won the first 11 races of the 1988 season and that's the unique thing? Can someone explain to me please?

Am I missing the point of this thread? The OP asks a question and then immediately answers it in the negative. Also, why 6 races? Surely McLaren won the first 11 races of the 1988 season and that's the unique thing? Can someone explain to me please?

I'll try my best to explain to you. In all honesty I could not answer the question in the positive, however immediately and hard I tried. No great mystery why the season's first six consecutive wins were chosen: that is what had happened in 2014 until race number 6.

Am I missing the point of this thread? The OP asks a question and then immediately answers it in the negative. Also, why 6 races? Surely McLaren won the first 11 races of the 1988 season and that's the unique thing? Can someone explain to me please?

I'll try my best to explain to you. In all honesty I could not answer the question in the positive, however immediately and hard I tried. No great mystery why the season's first six consecutive wins were chosen: that is what had happened in 2014 until race number 6.

So, back to McLaren who won the first 11 races of 1988, isn't the answer, "no, six race wins is not unique"? Again, am I missing the point of the question?