Q. 2. All of the following statements are incorrect for 20 mol of hydrogen peroxide except

it has 20 mol of hydrogen atoms

it has 30 mol of oxygen atoms

it has 80 mol of atoms

30 mol of hydrogen atoms

(c)

Q. 3. If proton number of two atoms is same then it can be concluded that

they are isotopes

compounds of both with CI2 will be similar in reactivity towards other compounds

both have same colors

both have same melting points

(b)

Q. 4. A chemist poured lemon juice on soil, the idea that he may have in his mind is that

there may be a possibility of a chemical reaction

lemon juice is dangerous to health

lemon juice is dangerous to health

water should be preferred over lemon juice for drinking

(a)

Q. 5. Dr. Khan has discovered two isotopes of an element with atomic number 119. The relative abundance of isotopes 119Uue300 and 119Uue305 is 70% and 30% respectively. The average atomic weight of Uue is

301.5 a.m.u

302.5 a.m.u

303.5 a.m.u

304.5 a.m.u

(a)

Q. 6. Which of the following is not related to a.m.u

gram

kilogram

microgram

gram/lit

(d)

Q. 7. The number of significant figures in 0.00200 is

two

three

five

one

(b)

Q. 8. All of the following statements are incorrect except

precision and accuracy should go side by side in a scientific work

scientific work must be precise, accuracy is not essential

scientific work must be accurate, precision is not essential

+calculations must be made before any experiment

(a)

Q. 9. Empirical formula and formula unit of an ionic compound

are always similar

are always different

may be similar or different

ionic compounds don’t’ have any empirical formula

(c)

Q. 10. Copper (II) oxide is mixed with organic compound during combustion analysis. The purpose is

to carry out complete combustion

to reduce the economy of the process

to reduce the time for completion of the reaction

all of the above

(a)

Q. 11. Bismark brown is a dye. Its molar mass is 228.3 g/mol. When the dye was analyzed by a scientist, it was found that it contains 30.68% nitrogen. How many nitrogen atoms are there in each Bismark brown molecule?

6

5

4

3

(b)

Q.12. The mass of 2 mole of sodium hydroxide will be

2 g

20 g

40 g

80 g

(d)

Q. 13. “A” compound is always consists of the same elements combined in the same fixed ratio”. The statement is

a hypothesis

a fact

a law

an observation

(c)

Q. 14. Compound having highest boiling point among the following is

HF(I)

HCI(I)

HBR(I)

HI(I)

(d)

Q. 15. Islamian genius investigated that the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 11 gram of water form 30oC to 31oC is

one calorie

little bit greater than on calorie

little bit less than one calorie

never equal to one calorie

(c)

Q. 16. An atom is

smallest indivisible particle in an element

smallest particle of an element which can undergo a chemical reaction

building block of an element

always smaller than molecule

(b)

Q. 17. 10 moles of H2O contains

100 moles of bonds

100 moles of electrons

30 atoms

25 moles of hydrogen bonds

(b)

Q. 18. The volume of one kilogram of water at 4oC is equal to one litre. The temperature of water is kept at 4oC because water

has no dissolved gasses at this temperature

has maximum density at this temperature

polarity of water molecule is least at this temperature

dipole moment has maximum value at this temperature

(b)

Q. 19. A compound contains two elements X and Y percentage of X is 20% (At.wt = 40) and that of Y is 80% (At.wt =80). The empirical formula of the compound is

XY2

X2Y

X3Y

XY

(A)

Q. 20. A piece of paper is burnt in air, the gas produced is passed through distilled water. The PH of water solution will be

1

7

2.1

6.8

(d)

Q. 21. Which of the following is a substance?

sea water

brass

tape water

graphite

(d)

Q. 22. Freezing point of a substance is a temperature at which a liquid substance is converted to solid, it is

always lower than its melting point

usually a little lower than its melting point

always higher than its melting point

exactly the same as its melting point

(d)

Q. 23. Number of covalent bonds in 10 mol of carbon tetrachloride is

2.4 x 1025

40

4 x 1024

6.4 x 1021

(a)

Q. 24. A student subtracted 0.00055 from 10.2345678 and reported the result as 10.23401. But his friend told him that the result was wrong. What is the correct result?

10.234017

10.2340178

10.234

10.23

(d)

Q. 25. The following statement contained in a student’s laboratory report is a conclusion.

a gas is liberated

colour of the gas is greenish yellow

oxide of the gas is strongly acidic

the gas is chlorine

(d)

Q. 26. If 10g each of uranium and hydrogen are converted into energy according to equation E = mc2

energy obtained from uranium will be too much greater than that of hydrogen

energy obtained from hydrogen will be a little bit less than that of uranium

energy obtained from hydrogen and uranium will always be exactly equal

diamond

(c)

Q. 27. A student analyzed a sample of sea water and found that it contained 2.3g of NaCi, 0.005g of MgSo4, 0.234g of CaCI2 and 60.12g of H2O. Total mass of the sample is

62.659

62.65

62.70

65.7

(d)

Q. 28. A 50.00 mL sample of a cough mixture prepared by a pharmacist was found to have a mass of 46.0g. what is the density (in g/mL) of this mixture. Stated to the correct number of significant figures?

0.92

0.920

0.9200

1.087

(b)

Q. 29. Ozone (O3) filters the cosmic rays of sunlight. How many oxygen atoms are there in 0.2 mole of ozone (O3, molar mass 48.0 g/mol)?

6.02 x 1022

6.02 x 1023

3.61 x 1023

6 x 1023

(c)

Q. 30. On heating, the hydrated salt CaSO4, xH2O loses its water of crystallization. In an experiment it was found that when 0.2 mol of the hydrated salt was heated 0.10 mol of water was lost. What is the molecular formula of the hydrated compound?

CaSO4

CaSO3. ½ H2O

CaSO4.H2O

CaSO4.2H2O

(b)

Q. 31. Zirconium chloride reacts with magnesium to produce Zirconium. The process is called Knoll process.

ZrCI4 + 2Mg Zr + 2MgCI2

How many moles Zr would be produced if 0.2 mol of Mg metal is used in the reaction?

Q. 1. Professor Qawwi told his students that air is a mixture because: suddenly a student raised his hand and said

it is colourless

oxygen can be removed from it

its composition is different at different altitudes

it has different properties from its constituents

(c)

Q. 2. Imagine Dr. Khan is sitting in a room. The room is closed from all sides, no entry, no exit of any gas. If the room expands suddenly then

he will be frightened

his blood pressure will decrease

he will feel cool

he will feel warmth

(c)

Q. 3. which of the following elements will have strongest Van Der Waal force of attraction between its molecules

hydrogen

oxygen

chlorine

nitrogen

(c)

Q. 4. The beaker shown in the figure contains slurry of ice and water, the three thermometers Fahrenheit, Kelvin and Centigrade placed in it. The thermometers are represented by A, B and C respectively. The lowest reading will be on thermometer.

A

B

C

Both A and C

(c)

Q. 5. Which thermometer will have its reading 273 degrees greater than that of thermometer C?

A

B

C has greater reading than all other thermometer

B has 273 degrees greater reading than A

(b)

Q. 6. The temperature recorded by Kelvin scale is

0K

273K

373K

Absolute scale is unable to record this temperature

(b)

Q. 7. If three birds called O2, CI2 and H2 were flying in the garden of Islamia College Peshawar then,

Fastest birds are O2 and CI2

Slowest bird is CI2

Bird called O2 is in the middle.

I only

II and III only

I and III only

III only

(b)

Q. 8. One liter of an unknown gas weighs 1.25 grams at S.T.P, one possible formula for the gas is

CO2

CO

O2

SO2

(b)

Q. 9. If pressure on a gas is increased from 2 atm to 4 atm than its volume will decrease from

6L to 4L

8L to 2L

3L to 1L

4L to 2L

(d)

Q. 10. An unknown gas has a density of 2.45 g/L at 1.5 atmospheric pressure and 25 oC. The gas is

Kr

CI2

SO2

Ar

(d)

Q. 11. This is a known fact that the molar volumes of different gases at S.T.P are

little bit greater than the molar volumes of liquids

little bit less than the molar volumes of solids

about the same as the molar volumes of liquids

much larger than the molar volumes of liquids and solids

(d)

Q. 12. The behavior of a gas is non-ideal at

lo2w temperature and low pressure

high temperature and high pressure

high temperature and low pressure

low temperature and high pressure

(d)

Q. 13. Ammonium Perchlorate is used as solid fuel in rockets. During the process it decomposes according to the reaction given below

4NH4CIO4(g) 2CI2(g) +8H2O(g) +2N2O(g) +3O2(g)

The total volume of all the gases produced at S.T.P by the decomposition of 8 moles of Ammonium Perchlorate will be

30 L

672 L

179.0 L

60 L

(b)

Q. 14. Compressed natural gas (CNG) contains mainly methane CH4. Methane gas burns in air according to the following reaction.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

If 8 g of methane is burnt, what volume of CO2 measured at S.T.P. will be produced?

0.5 L

22 L

22.4 L

11.2 L

(d)

Q. 15. A kid has a helium filled balloon which deflates at the rate of 1.00 liter/day by He gas leaking through the relatively porous skin of the balloon. How fast would carbon dioxide (CO2) leak from a balloon made of the same material?

3.0 L/day

0.3 L/day

1.33 L/day

3.33 L/day

(b)

Q. 16. All of the following statements are false except

gas molecules do not attract each other at very low temperature

all of the gases cannot be liquefied

increase in pressure will not decrease the intermolecular distance in a gas

actual volume of a gas is not negligible at very high pressure

(d)

Q. 17. At the same temperature and pressure helium is more ideal than hydrogen due to

greater molar mass

less molar mass

greater molecular size

less molecular size

(d)

Q. 18. A container with a porous wall has a mixture of H2, He, N2 and O2. Which of these gases will take maximum time in getting out of the container?

H2

He

N2

O2

(d)

Q. 19. The value of for an unknown gas is equal to

0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K

0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K-1

0.82 L.atm.mol.K-1

0.82 L.atm.mol.K

(b)

Q. 20. If the temperature of the atmosphere is 30oC then which of the following will have highest average speed

O2

H2

Ne

N2

(b)

CHAPTER 3

LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS

Q.1. I heard Islamian genius saying that glass must be a super cooled liquid. The reason that he might have in his mind is that glass has

definite volume

definite shape

crystalline structure

no crystalline structure

(d)

Q. 2. Some substances are good conductor of electricity in both the solid and liquid states. These substances are generally

ionic substances

metallic substances

molecular solids

covalent network solids

(b)

Q. 3. Air can be distilled fractionally because the constituents of the air

can be liquefied

have different boiling points

are gases at room temperature

have different densities

(b)

Q. 4. There are three different substances, Argon, Hydrochloric acid and Hydroiodic acid. The correct sequence in which the boiling point increases is

Ar < HCI < HI

HI > HCI > Ar

HCI < HI < Ar

HI > Ar > HCI

(a)

Q. 5. A student put two eggs A and B in HCI solution. After 5 minutes he took them out for weighing but egg dropped in water accidentally. The student was able to take it out after 30 minutes. He weighed it. Its weight was 40.33 grams. Weight of egg “B” was also 40.33 grams. Islamian genius told him that if both eggs have been dropped in water, the weight of egg “B” would have been

greater than that of egg “A”

less than that of egg “A”

equal to that of egg “A”

unaffected instead

(a)

Q. 6. Keeping in mind different factors which affect the melting point of a substance, the compound having highest melting point among the following is

NaCI

RbCI

LiCI

CsCI

(a)

Q. 7. Islamian genius told his follows that in a crystal the atoms are located at the position of

zero potential energy

infinite potential energy

maximum potential energy

minimum potential energy

(A)

Q. 8. Keeping in mind the concept of charge density, compound having highest lattice energy is

KCI

MgO

LiBr

NaF

(b)

Q. 9. Meniscus is the shape of the surface of a liquid in a cylindrical container. It may be concave, convex or plane. For molten metals

meniscus is concave

meniscus is convex

meniscus is plane

meniscus may be concave or convex depending on the nature of the metal

(b)

Q. 10. All of the following substances are crystalline except

Ice

Carbon (diamond)

Sucrose

Plastic

(d)

Q. 11. All of the following have cleavage planes except

ionic crystals

covalent crystals

molecular crystals

metallic crystals

(d)

Q. 12. Coordination number of Na+ in NaCI is

1

4

2

6

(d)

Q. 13. For a crystal system a b c and the example for this crystal system is

CuSO4. 5H2O

Na2B4O7. 10H2O

ZnSO4. 7H2O

BaSO4. 4H2O

(a)

Q. 14. A student said I will preserve my father dead body in a time capsule for 1000 years. Islamian genius told him that the atmosphere of the capsule must contain

O2

SO2

CO2

Ar

(d)

Q. 15. All of the following have crystals except

diamond

NaCI

KBr

CdS

(d)

Q. 16. Kerosene is liquid at room temperature due to

hydrogen bonding

organic nature

dipole-dipole forces

molecular size

(d)

Q. 17. All of the following are network solids except

SiO2

Graphite

S8

Diamond

(c)

Q. 18. Honey contain glucose and fructose along with some other ingredients, it has greater viscosity due to

hydrogen bonding

irregular shape of the molecules

irregular shape of the molecules and strong intermolecular forces

greater molecular size (c)

Q. 19. Boiling point of phosphine (PH3) is -87.8 oC while that of silane (SiH4) is

-111 oC. Phosphine has greater boiling point because

dipole moment of PH3 is greater than that of SiH4

PH3 has greater molecular size

Molecular weight of SiH4 is less than that of PH3

Actually the boiling of SiH4 is greater than that of PH3

(a)

Q. 20. Rate of evaporation of petrol is greater than that of water at room temperature because

petrol molecules do not have any hydrogen bond

petrol is an organic compound

water molecules have small size

petrol molecules have greater size

(a)

Q. 21. Substance having highest boiling point among the following is

HF

HCI

Br2

HBr

(c)

Q. 22. Boiling points of different substances are given below

CH4 = – 161 oC

C2H6 = -89 oC

CI2 = -34.6 oC

F2 = -188 oC

The data shows that vapour pressure of

CI2 > C2H6 > CH4 > F2

CI2 > F2 > CH4 > C2H6

C2H6 > CH4 > F2 > CI2

F2 > CH4 > C2H6 > CI2

(d)

Q. 23. Which of the following statements is correct for the statement

“Vapour pressure of water at 0 oC is 5 mmHg”

boiling point of water will be 0 oC at 5 mmHg

boiling point of water will be 0 oC

if external pressure is 5 mmHg then water will boil at 0 oC

boiling point of water is 100 oC at 760 mmHg pressure

(c)

Q. 24. What is the typical range of the hydrogen bond

5 – 25 kJ per mole of bonds

5 – 25 kJ per molecule

500 kJ per mole of bonds

1 – 2 kJ per mole of bonds

(a)

Q. 25. Hydrogen bond is unimportant in

DNA structure

The liquid properties of water

Liquid HF

Liquid CH4

(d)

Q. 26. All of the following acids have hydrogen bond in liquid state except

sulfuric acid

nitric acid

hydrofluoric acid

hydrochloric acid

(d)

Q. 27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

dispersion force is the weakest type of intermolecular interactions

the strong intermolecular attractions in H2O result from hydrogen bonding

boiling point of H2S is less than H2O

boiling point of non-polar substances tends to decrease with increasing molecular weight

(d)

Q. 28. A white substance melts with some decomposition at 730 oC. As a solid, it is non conductor of electricity but it dissolves in water to from a conducting solution. The white substance is

a covalent network solid

an ionic solid

a molecular solid

a metallic solid

(b)

Q. 29. Keeping in mind different factors which affect the boiling point of a substance, element having highest boiling among the following is

He

F2

Ne

Br2

(d)

Q. 30. The increasing vapor pressure caused by heating a liquid is due to

increase intermolecular interactions

increasing potential energy of molecules

increasing kinetic energy of molecules

decreasing surface tension

(c)

Q. 31. Covalent network crystals have

higher melting point then molecular crystals

lower melting point then molecular crystals

discrete molecules linked by Van der waals forces

hydrogen bonding

(a)

Q. 32. Keeping in mind different factors which affect the boiling point of a liquid, element having lowest boiling point among the following is

F2

CI2

Br2

I2

(a)

Q. 33. A chemist was able to measure the value of lattice energy of KCI to be 690 kJ/mol. From this experiment he concluded that

lattice energy of KBr is 630 kJ/mol and that of KI is 665 kJ/mol

lattice energy of KBr is 665 kJ/mol and that of KI is 630 kJ/mol

lattice energy of KBr is 765 kJ/mol and that of KI is 730 kJ/mol

lattice energy of KBr is 730 kJ/mol and that of KI is 765 kJ/mol

(b)

CHAPTER 4

ATOMIC STRUCTURE

Q.1. Color of the glow produced in the discharge tube

depends on the pressure in the discharge tube

depends on the metal used as cathode

depends on the gas used in the discharge tube

does not depend on the nature of the gas used in the discharge tube

(c)

Q. 2. Dr. Khan told his students that if charge on electrons in a chamber is 3.50 x 10 11 coulomb than mass of electrons must be

9.1 x 10-31 kg

8 kg

4 kg

2 kg

(d)

Q. 3. e/m ratio of the canal rays is less than that of cathode rays. The reason is

greater mass of canal ray particles

greater charge of the canal ray particles

greater mass and charge of the canal ray particles

actually e/m ratio of canal rays is greater than that of the cathode rays

(a)

Q. 4. Nuclear radiation is emitted by those elements whose

molecules are stable

molecules are unstable

nuclei are stable

nuclei are unstable

(d)

Q. 5. -rays are good ionizers of gases because they

have greater mass

have positive charge

have greater mass and positive charge

are helium nuclei

(c)

Q. 6. Consider the following reaction

12

6

1

8

9

4

4

2

Be + He C + n

This reaction is

a chemical reaction

a nuclear reaction

an example of artificial radioactivity

an exothermic reaction

(c)

Q. 7. Roentgen discovered X-rays and Mosley found that the frequency of the X-rays emitted from anode increases with the

increase in the mass number of the metal used as anode

decrease in the mass number of the metal used as anode

decrease in the proton number of the metal used as anode

increase in the proton number of the metal used as anode

(d)

Q. 8. Radiation emitted by exited atoms is

in the form of continuous waves

in the form of quanta

nuclear radiations

ultraviolet radiation

(b)

Q. 9. If the electron of hydrogen atom jumps of “M” shell then the radius of this excited hydrogen atom will be

8.464 Ao

4.761 Ao

2.116 Ao

0.529 Ao

(b)

Q. 10. If a particle of mass 0.1gram moves with a velocity of 10,000 m/s then the wavelength of the wave associated with this particle is

6.626 x 10-34 m

2.145 x 10-39 m

3.313 x 10-21 m

1.325 x 10-18 m

(a)

Q. 11. Second ionization energy

is always less than first ionization energy

is always greater than first ionization energy

is equal to the first ionization energy

may be greater or less than the first ionization energy depending on the nature of the element

(b)

Q. 12. “Ionization energies of the elements of the 5th group are greater than those of 6th group”. It is because

5th group elements have less electronegativity

6th group of elements have greater shielding effect

5th group element have greater shielding effect

5th group elements have half filled atomic orbitals

(d)

Q. 13. A sodium lamp emits yellow light with a wavelength of 589 nm. What is the energy of a single photon in this light?

3.37 x 10-19 Joules

1.12 x 10-25 Joules

1.17 x 10-33 Joules

5.09 x 1015 Joules

(a)

Q. 14. The energy associated with the transition of an electron from the n=1 state to the n=3 state of H atoms is:

+1.74 x 10-17 Joules

+1.94 x 10-18 Joules

+1.94 x 10-18 Joules

-1.74 x 10-17 Joules

(b)

Q. 15. All of the following are electromagnetic radiations except

red light

sound waves

x-rays

photon

(b)

Q. 16. This shape of a 2s orbital resembles:

a hockey puck

an (American) football

an ellipse

a sphere

(d)

Q. 17. Which orbital of the following has a principal quantum number of 3 and an angular momentum quantum number of 27

3s

3d

4f

3f (b)

Q. 18. Which of the following has the highest energy?

gamma rays

X-rays

Ultra-violet radiation

\radio waves

(a)

Q. 19. All of the following elements are correct for atomic orbitals except

p-sub energy level has 3 orbitals

s-orbital has spherical shape

energy of 4s is less than that of 4d

All d orbitals have 4 lobes

(d)

Q. 20. Various values of the quantum numbers (n, /, m, ms) are listed below. Which is a possible set of values for one of the d electrons in an iron atom in its ground state?

(1, 1, 0, ½)

(4, 0, 1, ½)

(4, 1, 0, -1/2)

(3, 2, 1, -1/2)

(d)

Q. 21. How many orbitals are allowed for principal quantum number (n) of 3?

9

8

6

4

(a)

Q. 22. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate in a multielectron atom?

3d orbitals

3s, 3p, 3d orbitals

1s, 2s orbitals

2d orbitals

(a)

Q. 23. The quantum number that specifies the way the orbital is oriented in space is:

the electron spin quantum number

the magnetic quantum number

the angular momentum quantum number

the principal quantum number

(b)

Q. 24. Which of the following has the largest wavelength?

visible light

x-rays

infrared light

ultraviolet radiation

(c)

Q. 25. Select the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation which starts with the lowest energy and increases to greatest energy.

radio, visible, infrared, visible, ultraviolet

microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet

visible, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays

X-radiation, visible, infrared, microwave

(b)

Q. 26. A radio station broadcasts music at 99.1 MHz. The wavelength of these waves is

1.88 x 10-2 m

0.330 m

3.03 m

5.33 x 102 m

(c)

Q. 27. Green light has a wavelength of 5200A. Calculate the energy of one photon of green light.

3.4 x 10-40 J

3.4 x 10-30 J

3.8 x 10-26 J

3.8 x 10-19 J (d)

Q. 28. The size of an atomic orbital is associated with

principal quantum number (n)

angular momentum quantum number (I)

magnetic quantum number (mI)

spin quantum number (ms)

(a)

Q. 29. Which of the following is a correct set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 5f orbital?

n = 5, I = 3, mI = +1

n = 5, I = 2, mI = +3

n = 4, I = 3, mI = 0

n = 4, I = 2, mI = +1

(a)

Q. 30. In the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom, which one of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowd?

3, 1, -1

3, 2, 2

3, 2, -1

3, 3, 2

(d)

Q. 31. “Each electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum numbers” is a statement of

Aufbau principle

Pauli exclusion principle

Hund’s rule

Periodic law

(b)

Q. 32. The effective nuclear charge for an atom is less than the actual nuclear charge due to

Shielding

Penetration

Paramagnetism

Electron-pair repulsion

(a)

Q. 33. “Electrons added to atomic orbitals of the same energy will remain unpaired with parallel spins until the subshell is more than half-filled” is a statement of

Aufbau principle

Pauli exclusion principle

Hund’s rule

Periodic law

(c)

Q. 34. All of the following statements are correct for atomic structure and quantum numbers except

In a given atom, the maximum number of electrons having principal quantum number n = 3, is 18

Q. 40. In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, the charges on several different oil drops were as follows: -5.92; -4.44; -2.96; -8.88. The units are arbitrary. What is the likely value of the electronic charge in these arbitrary units?

-1.11

-1.48

-2.22

-2.96

(b)

CHAPTER 5

CHEMICAL BONDING

Q. 1. Which of the following compounds has maximum ionic character?

NaCI

CsF

KBr

MgCI2

(b)

Q. 2. Which of the following molecules or ions is nonplanar, i.e., has at least one atom that is not in the same plane as the others?

BH3

NF3

SO3

CO32-

(b)

Q.3. Which of the following best describes the shape and polarity of the carbon disulfide, CS2, molecule?

bent and polar

linear and non-polar

pyramidal and polar

bent and non-polar

(b)

Q. 4. Which of the following molecules has the smallest angle between adjacent bonds?

CO2

CH4

H2O

NH3

(c)

Q.5. The shape of hydronium ion H3O+ is:

planar

see-saw

trigonal planar

trigonal pyramidal

(d)

Q. 6. Which of the following pairs of atoms are least likely to form an ionic compound?

Ni, O

Na, F

Cu, CI

Li, Mg

(d)

Q. 7. Which of the following pairs of atoms are most likely to form a covalent compound?

Na, F

Cu, CI

C, O

Li, F

(c)

Q. 8. Which molecule has one pair of nonbonding electrons on the central atom?

PCI3

CO2

SO3

BF3

(a)

Q. 9. Which of the following will have the largest dipole moment?

HF

HCI

HBr

F2 (a)

Q. 10. CO2 is a nonpolar molecular (μ=0) whereas SO2 is polar (μ=1.62D). This difference is due to the fact that:

CO2 has an even number of double bonds whereas SO2 has an odd number of double bonds

C and O are in different groups whereas S and O are in the same group

The C-O bond is nonpolar while the S-O bond is polar

CO2 is linear whereas SO2 is not linear

(d)

Q. 11. What is the state of hybridization of the carbon atoms in ethylene, C2H2?

sp2

sp

sp3

sp3d2

(a)

Q. 12. The type(s) of bonding present in a sample of sodium nitrated, NaNO3, are:

covalent bonds only

ionic bonds only

covalent and ionic bonds

ionic and metallic bonds

(c)

Q. 13. The C=C double bond in ethane C2H4, is consist of:

two П bonds

covalent bonds

two sigma bonds

one П bond + one sigma bond

(d)

Q. 14. All of the following statements are false except

The number of MO’s in a molecule equals twice the number of constituent atomic orbitals

As bonding MO’s become equally less stable

In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons equals the number of antibonding electrons

Each bonding MO can accommodate only one electron

(b)

Q. 15. All of the following statements are false except

The MO’s in a molecule equals twice the number of constituent atomic orbitals.

As bonding MO’s become more stable, antibonding MO’s become equally less stable.

In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons equals the number of antibonding electrons.

Each bonding MO can accommodate only one electron.

(b)

Q. 16. What is the hybridization of phosphorus in PCI3?

sp2

sp3

sp

sp3d2

(b)

Q. 17. Analysis of an unknown substance showed that it has a high boiling point and is brittle. It is an insulator as a solid but conducts electricity when melted. Which of the following substances would have those characteristics?

HCI

AI

KBr

SiF4

(c)

Q. 18. Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing bond strength.

C-F, C-Br, C-I, C-CI

C-F < C-CI < C-Br < C-I

C-I < C-Br < C-CI < C-F

C-Br < C-I < C-CI < C-F

C-I < C-Br < C-F < C-CI

(b)

Q. 19. Based on electronegativity trends in the periodic table, predict which of the following compounds will have the greatest % ionic character in its bonds.

H2O

LiI

RbF

HCI

(c)

Q. 20. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX3 will have a _____ molecular shape.

linear

bent

trigonal planar

tetrahedral

(c)

Q. 21. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX3E will have a ____ molecular shape.

bent

trigonal planar

trigonal pyramidal

tetrahedral

(c)

Q. 22. Predict the ideal bond angles around carbon in C2I2 using the molecular shape given by the VSEPR theory.

Q. 28. Which one of the following statements about orbital hybridization is incorrect?

The carbon atom is CO2 is sp hybridized

The nitrogen atom in NH3 is sp3 hybridized.

sp2 hybrid orbitals are coplanar, and at 120o to each other.

d. sp hybrid orbitals lie at 180o to each other.

(b)

Q. 29. For which one of the following molecules is the indicated type of hybridization not appropriate for the central atom?

a. BeCI2 sp2

b. SiH4 sp3

c. BF3 sp2

d. C2H2 sp

(a)

Q. 30. According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, the twelve outermost electrons in the O2 molecule are distributed as follows:

12 in bonding MOS, O in antibonding MOs.

10 in bonding MOs, 2 in antibonding MOs.

9 in bonding MOs, 3 in antibonding MOs.

8 in bonding MOs, 4 in antibonding MOs.

(d)

Q. 31. According to molecular orbital theory, what is the bond order in the O2+ ion?

5.5

5

4

2.5

(d)

Q. 32. Which of the following statements relating to molecular orbital (MO) theory is incorrect?

A bonding MO is lower in energy than the two atomic orbitals from which it is formed.

Combination of two 2p orbitals may result in either Л MOs.

A species with a bond order of zero will be stable

In a stable molecule having an even number of electrons, all electrons must be paired.

(d)

Q. 33. One can safely assume that the 3s- and sp- orbitals will form molecular orbitals similar to those formed when 2s- and sp-orbitals interact. According to molecular orbital theory, what will be the bond order for the CI2+ ion?

0.5

1

1.5

2

(c)

CHAPTER 6

ELECTRICS OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS

Q.1. All of the following are state functions except

P

V

q

H

(c)

Q. 2. Suppose you have a balloon of given volume, V1, containing a gas at temperature, T1. When you place the balloon in a colder room at temperature, T2, the balloon’s temperature starts to drop. What are the signs of the system’s q, w, and E for this process?

+q, +w, + E

-q, -w, + E

+q, -w, – E

–q, +w, – E

(d)

Q. 3. The melting of ice at body temperature is an endothermic process:

H2O(s) H2O(I) ΔH= +6.0kJ / mol

Thus eating ice counteracts the exothermic processes of metabolizing food. How much ice (in grams) would you have to eat to counteract the energy gained by eating 28.3g of peanuts (13 kJ/g)?

78 g

110 g

370 g

1100 g

(d)

Q. 4. All of the following statements are false except

q = H at constant T; q = E at constant V

q = H at constant V; q = E at constant P

q = H at constant P; q = E at constant V

q = H = E at constant P or at constant V

(c)

Q. 5. Ho of which of the following reactions is equal to the standard enthalpy of formation of NH3?

a. 3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g)

b. 2NH3(g) 3H2(g) + N2(g)

c. H2(g) + N2(g) NH3(g)

d. NH3(g) H2(g) + N2(g)

(c)

Q. 6. Calculate the standards molar enthalpy of formation of CO2(g) in the reaction:

C(g) +O2(g) CO2(g)

Given the following standard enthalpy changes:

2C(s) +O2(g) 2CO(g), ΔHo = -221kJ

2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g), ΔHo = -566kJ

-393.5 kJ

+393.5 kJ

+787.0 kJ

-787.0 kJ

(a)

Q. 7. All of the following chemical reactions are endothermic except

a. H2O(s) H2O(I)

b. 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) +O2(g)

c. H2O(g) H2O(I)

d. AI2O3(I) + 2Fe(I) 2AI(s) + Fe2O3(s)

(c)

Q. 8. All of the followings are incorrect except

Hvaprizaiton < Hsublimation < Hfusion < Hcondensation

Hfusion < Hcondensation < sublimation < Hvaporization

Hcondensation < Hfusion < Hvaporization < Hsublimation

Hcondensation < Hsublimation < Hfusion < Hvaporization

(c)

Q. 9. An environmental chemist got an idea that two serious pollutants (CO and NO) of the automobile exhaust can be converted to less harmful gases CO2 and N2. The reaction is

CO(g) + NO(g) CO2(g) + N2(g), ΔHo = ?

The enthalpy of this reaction as calculated from the following date is

CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g), ΔHo = -283kJ / mol

CO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g), ΔHo = 180.6kJ / mol

-102.4 kJ

-322.1 kJ

-373.3 kJ

-400.0 kJ

(c)

Q. 10. A chemist heated a balloon by supplying 600 J of heat. The balloon expands doing 200 J of work against the atmospheric pressure. The change in internal energy of

-800 J

-400 J

O J

+400 J

(d)

Q. 11. Spontaneous reactions are those which

continue to occur once started

require activation energy

are endothermic

are exothermic

(a)

Q. 12. All of the following processes are spontaneous except

reaction of H2 with O2 to form H2O

combustion of natural gas

neutralization of HCI by NaOH

synthesis of glucose by plants

(d)

Q. 13. Every one knows about the importance of water. Though it is abundant in nature, yet it can be produced in laboratory by the following reaction

2H2 + O2 2H2O

If Hf is the heat of formation of H2O and Hris the heat of this reaction, then

Hf = Hr

Hr =

Hr =

Hf = 2Hr

(b)

Q. 14. The following table provide different types of system and their examples but in irregular manner.

System

Example

I. Open

a. water in cork fitted titration flask

II. Closed

b. pigeon

III. isolated

c. ice in thermos bottle

Which of the following is a best match of both columns?

(I, a), (II, b), (III, c)

(I, b), (II, a), (III, c)

(I, c), (II, a), (III, b)

(I, b), (II, c), (III, a)

(b)

Q. 15. Sublimation, vaporization, melting and photosynthesis all are examples of

chemical processes

physical processes

biochemical processes

endothermic processes

(d)

Q. 16. A mixture of ice and water contains 60g of ice and 60g of water. If 60J of heat energy is removed from this mixture then some of the

water will vaporize

ice will sublime

ice will melt

water will freeze

(d)

Q. 17. Pieces of four different metals are present on a table. These metals are Na, AI, W and Ti. Their melting points are 98, 660, 3410 and 1660 oC respectively. Metal having maximum enthalpy of fusion is

Ti

AI

W

Na

(c)

Q. 18. If volume of a system is kept constant and heat is supplied to the system then

internal energy of the system increases and no work is done on the surrounding

internal energy of the system increases and work is done on the surrounding

no change in internal energy occurs

no work is done on the surrounding

(a)

Q. 19. Melting of ice at room temperature is

spontaneous exothermic process

spontaneous endothermic process

non-spontaneous exothermic process

non-spontaneous endothermic process

(b)

CHAPTER 7

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

Q. 1. At 1000 C, the equilibrium constant for the reaction of carbon monoxide and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide is very large (Kc = 1.2 x 1022). When the reaction is at equilibrium the:

concentration of carbon dioxide will be much larger than one or both reactants

concentration of carbon dioxide will be much smaller than concentrations of both reactants

concentration of carbon monoxide will be much larger than the concentration of carbon dioxide

concentrations of both reactants must be much smaller than the concentration of carbon dioxide

(a)

Q. 2. A cylinder contains a unknown gas “X”. When the cylinder is heated a reddish brown color develops. It means that the gas present in the cylinder was

NO2

N2O

N2O5

N2O4

(d)

Q. 3. A beaker contains a saturated solution of potassium Perchlorate. When potassium chloride (KCI) is added to this solution, some of the potassium Perchlorate is precipitated. It means that

KCIO4 is strong electrolyte that KCI

Solubility of KCIO4 is greater than that of KCI

Both KCIO4 and KCI are soluble in water to some extent

KCI is a strong electrolyte as compared with KCIO4

(d)

Q. 4. In salt analysis 3rd group basic radicals (Al3+, Fe3+ etc) are detected by adding NH4CI to the salt solution and then NH4OH. 3rd group radicals are precipitated as hydroxide. In this process

NH4CI will ionize to a lesser extent in presence of NH4CI

NH4CI will precipitate

NH4CI will react with NH4CI

AL3+ will precipitate as AICI3 (a)

CHAPTER 8

SOLUTIONS AND ELECTROLYTES

Q. 1. Islamian genius prepared a salt by the neutralization reaction of a weak acid and weak base. If Pka value for acid is greater than the Pkb value for the base then salt prepared will be

Q. 31. A solution contains two compounds AI(OH)3 and Zn (OH)2. Solubility products for these compounds are 8.5×10-23 and 1.8 x 10-4 respectively. If NH4OH is added to this solution then

both will precipitate at the same time

Zn(OH)2 will precipitate first

AI (OH)3 will precipitate first

Zn (OH)2 or AI (OH)3 will precipitate first depending on the temperature of the solution

(c)

CHAPTER 9

INTRODUCTION TO CHEMICAL KINETICS

Q. 1. The number of atoms or molecules whose concentration determines the rate of a chemical reaction is called the

molecularity of the reaction

order of the reaction

specific activity of the reaction

rate constant of the reaction

(b)

Q. 2. A scientist prepared a compound in laboratory. He found that it has two forms, one amorphous form and another crystalline form C. Both A and C reacts with sulfuric acid. One possible predication is that

increases with increase in concentration of the reactants

decreases with increase in concentration of the reactants

increases with increase in concentration of the products

decreases with increase in concentration of the products

(a)

Q. 3. The rate of an irreversible reaction

increase with increase in concentration of the reactants

decreases with increase in concentration of the reactants

increases with increase in concentration of the products

decreases with increase in concentration of the products

(a)

Q. 4. Consider the following equation

K = A e-

In this equation

A is a molecule of the reactant

A is a molecule of the product

A is proportionality constant

A is Arrhenius constant

(d)

Q. 5. Consider the following reactions

I. N2O5 2NO2 + O2

II. SO2CI2 SO2 + CI2

III. H2 + I2 2HI

The correct statement about these reactions is

I is a second order reaction

II and III are first order reactions

III is a first order reaction

I and II are first order reactions

(d)

Q. 6. A substance which increases the efficiency of a catalyst is termed as

Promoter

Activator

Retarder

Super catalyst

(a)

Q. 7. “Rancidity produced in butter can be decreased by adding quinoline to the butter”. This statements shows that

nothing is impossible

quinoline is an inhibitor

quinoline is a catalyst

quinoline is an activator

(b)

Q. 8. Ammonia can be produce according to the following reaction

N2 + 3H2 Fe2O3 2NH3

A12O3, K2O

In this reaction

Fe2O3 and AI2O3 are catalysts while K2O is a promoter

Fe2O3 is catalyst while AL2O3 and K2O are promoters

AI2O3 and K2O are catalysts while AI2O3 is a promoter

Fe2O3 and K2O are catalysts while AI2O3 is a promoter

(b)

Q. 9. In specified conditions the rate of consumption of N2O5 in the reaction