If the mother gets full custody of the children, does the father still needs to send child support?
The mother is telling that she got full custody. The father never received any subpoena/info.
Thank you so much guys.

Best answer(s):

Answer by DocChances are, if she got full custody, the judge will “award” her a percentage of his income as “child support.”
Note to Crabby B,
I came home from the war and a year later, without ever letting on, SHE filed for divorce. She asked for a restraining order — as a “combat vet.” she felt her life would be in danger. It was granted. She asked for full custody of both our son and the family cat. I tried to contest but the “judge” informed me that because I’m both a man AND (now retired) in the military, that I’d make a lousy father. She was awarded just over 50% of my pay. Three months later, the cat had been put to sleep — he reminded her of me AND she abandoned our son. It took me three years of fighting to get him back. And the “judge” was generous enough to “Give” me $ 100 a month in child support. I got about 1 year’s worth.
I never spoke ill of her and when he turned 18 went to see her. Within 2 weeks, she was kicking him to the curb, saying that he’s exactly like me. He now hates women and has little to no respect for them. I pray that he meets the right one and that attitude someday changes. I think I’ve more than met MY responsibility. And while I admit that I DID indeed make mistakes, I still feel I was a pretty good father. So please, don’t lecture us about men and responsibility. There’s plenty of blame to go ’round.

Answer by John MSounds like Dad needed a better lawyer.

Answer by open thoughtsThe father can contest if he was not served, etc, and she cannot prove that she tried according to the guidelines set by law regarding an absent parent.

Now, in answer to full custody/child support. Yes the father is still required to pay child support. Unless the parental rights of the father are fully taken away by the courts…Full custody of the mother does not count. No parental rights means that it is legally as if he is not the father. The only other way he is not required is if someone else adopts the child/children.

Answer by Crabby_blindguyYes. Custody and child support are two different issues, and the father must pay the child support the court orders.

Some men try to link the two–or intimidate themother into agreeingto joint custiody in exchange for child support. These scumbags should look at themselves–that kind of attitude is WHY they couldn’t cut it as fathers or husbands.

The bottom line: caring for the child is a responsibiity that doesn’t end jsut because the man wnats to take the money and go parrty. If he didn’t wnt to accept the responsibility, he shoud have joined a monastary, not gotten married.

Answer by Allie FYes!!!! If the child is in the mothers care full custody he will still need to provide money to support the child because it is his child so yes he will need to.

Answer by gigglesdarbarwhat dad needs to do is seek worthy legal advice and get a lawyer because it sounds like mom is just saying that to mess with his mind. But better to be safe than sorry and hire someone to start legal procedures and do the research and yes unfortunately dad does have to pay child support wether mom has full custody or not. He has not signed over his parental rights which means he is still responsible for this child both morally and legally.

Answer by left_coast_punkAt the risk of stating the obvious, yes he does, she is the custodial parent. If he never recieved a soubpena then that is a separate legal issue he will need to pursue.

Until then the order for support is considered valid.

Answer by raichasaysIn the US, yes.

Answer by alaskasourdoughmanNo subpoena necessary, if he received notice via regular mail at his last known address. If he ignored the notice that is his problem, then the court rules without him.
Custody and child support are two different orders from the court. The mother MUST ask for child support, file a motion or petition for the court to act (order payment).
The father should document any child support payments and verify with the State Child Support agency. If he has no proof of child support payments, he is still liable and fines, liens against his property, garnished wages, by the State will result.

Answer by BEE AliveA court order will be on record at the court house so the father needs to go get a copy of it. It will cost 50cents a page possibly.

If he is under court order to pay then yes he will have to pay.

***I can not say this enough.***
ALWAYS DOCUMENT EVERYTHING and make every payment on time.

DOCUMENT ~ DOCUMENT ~ DOCUMENT everything!!!!!

Pay consistantly, on time each month. DO NOT GIVE CASH.
Always pay by money order or check and keep copies of the receipts, money order stub, and cleared checks of EVERYTHING YOU HAVE PAID.

***If you pay directly to ex then get a file and keep organized records of every child support payment.***

***Keep receipts of everything you buy your children because EVERYTHING you buy can be applied to your child support arrears***if there is any. Never say it was a gift ~especially if there are arrears.

If there are arrears then the x can file to get income tax refund so don’t file jointly with your new spouse unless the tax company you use documents it so the irs does not take your new spouses part of the refund.

In some cases it it better to go through the child support enforcement office because it holds both sides accountable BUT if you ever get behind on a payment they will become the child support payee’s enemy and no matter what your x is doing it will not matter because THEY WANT THE MONEY.

KEEP GOOD RECORDS on visits, children behaviors, phone calls, money, time spent and not spent together & etc.

The states look at child support and visitation as seperate so keep good records on both. You will thank me for this in years to come.

need single mother grant?
im a single mother of a 3 year old n i have some health problems that hold me back from working i need money asap anyone know a grant or loan for single mothers thanks

Best answer(s):

Answer by A HunchWe have no idea about your situations (is the children’s father(s) a deadbeat, did he die without insurance, we don’t know). We also don’t know what your situation is – do you truly have an illness that you can’t work or do you make more than it is and you don’t work?

Whatever your situation is, why would you think you are eligible for special circumstances because you are a “single mother”? Many people are having tough times and you are eligible for the same services that they are, but there is no grant for “single mothers”.

the bible said to honor thy father and thy mother, but why did Jesus address his mother only as “woman”?
instead of “mother” when he was talking to her, both at the wedding at Cana and at the cross?
pink, are you saying that your own mother is only just a woman, too, that don’t deserve your respect or anyone else’s?
don’t = doesn’t

Best answer(s):

Answer by ludamadRemember, the bible is heavily translated. You have no idea of the initial connotation.

Answer by pinkstealthTo connect the dots, she IS only a woman. Unfortunately the Catholics have made sooo much more of her.

He did take care of His mother (as seen at the cross) but He also made it known in a profound way that she WAS human. He was not. She is NOT the mother of God, in any way. She was blessed of all women to be be selected for the Savior’s birth. But God is still God. And SHE is NOT His mother !

perdersen5…AMEN

Answer by KenzieIt was a sign of respect. Mary wasn’t just his Mother, but was a great woman. But, it was a sign of respect.

Answer by pedersen5Mark Lowry said it best, if you’re going to call your mother “woman”, you BETTER be God!

Answer by MephistoDo as your told, not as you see.
That is the Christian way.

Answer by patrone07First off, Jesus never sinned and obeyed the 10 commandments the most perfect way.

Jesus (The New Adam) refers to his beloved mother as “woman”, becuase he is referring to her as the New Eve! The Blessed Virgin Mary is the “woman” prophecized in Genesis 3:15 that would crush the head of the serpent! God bless!

Answer by Joe BloeBefore the gospels were written, Churches tried to gain esteem by declaring a close association with members of Jesus’ family.

The gospel writers overcame the problem by suggesting that such family associations were nothing special – and that even Jesus was not overly impressed by them.

Answer by peter cGod said “women” at the Wedding of Cana, and He said “woman” while dying on the cross. The beginning and the end of his of His earthly ministry.

God said “woman” in Genesis 3:15, and He said “woman” in Rev. 12: >> The only two places in scripture where you have a woman and a serpent in the same verse. Genesis and Revelation, the beginning and the end of the Bible.

“Woman” is a two fold title. Culturally, it was an honorary term at that time, not a derogatory one as in 21st white Anglo-Saxon American culture.

There are other biblical references that uses “woman” as they refer to Mary.

Rev 12:15 The serpent poured water like a river out of his mouth after the **woman**, to sweep her away with the flood. 16 But the earth came to the help of the **woman**, and the earth opened its mouth and swallowed the river which the dragon had poured from his mouth.
17 Then the dragon was angry with the **woman**, and went off to make war ON THE REST OF HER OFFSPRING, on those who keep the commandments of God and bear testimony to Jesus. And he stood on the sand of the sea..

Who could these OFFSPRING be? Ever commentator worth his salt will tell you that these offspring are the Church. How did the Blessed Virgin Mom become the Mother of the Church?

John 19:26 When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, **Woman**, behold thy son! 27 Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

The experiences of the “Beloved Disciple” (BD) were the focus of John’s Gospel. He is an ‘everyman’ character. St. John’s Gospel is told in such a way that the reader can identify himself with the BD and is meant to see the story of Jesus from the BD’s perspective. Whatever is addressed to the BD is addressed to the reader.

So we have established that:
1) Mary is the Mother of Jesus
2) Whose children are the Church that keeps the commandments AND honors her Son
3) Who himself explicitly designated her as the Mother of his disciples.

Answer by Billthe expression “what have I to do with you?” This is apparently a common Jewish idiom that appears a number of times in the Bible. For example, at 2 Samuel 16:10, we find David stopping Abishai from killing Shimei by saying: “What do I have to do with you men, you sons of Zeruiah? Thus let him call down evil, because Jehovah himself has said to him, ‘Call down evil upon David!’” Likewise, we read at 1 Kings 17:18 that the widow of Zarephath, upon finding that her son had died, said to Elijah: “What do I have to do with you, O man of the true God? You have come to me to bring my error to mind and to put my son to death.”

From these Bible examples, we can see that the expression “what have I to do with you?” is often used, not to show disdain or arrogance, but to refuse involvement in some proposed or suggested action or to express a difference in viewpoint or opinion.

Jesus’ reply, “What have I to do with you, woman?” is an ancient form of question that indicates an objection to what is suggested or proposed. Why does Jesus object to Mary’s words? Well, he is now 30 years of age. Just a few weeks earlier, he was baptized, anointed with holy spirit, and introduced by John the Baptizer as “the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world.” Now his direction must necessarily come from the Supreme Authority who sent him. (1 Corinthians 11:3) No one, not even a close family member, could be allowed to interfere with the work Jesus came to earth to do. What determination to do his Father’s will is expressed in Jesus’ answer to Mary!

Regarding the term “woman,” Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Old and New Testament Words notes: “Used in addressing a woman, it is a term not of reproof or severity, but of endearment or respect.” Other sources agree with this. For example, The Anchor Bible says: “This is not a rebuke, nor an impolite term, nor an indication of a lack of affection. It was Jesus’ normal, polite way of addressing women.” The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology explains that the word “is used as an address with no irreverent secondary meaning.” And Gerhard Kittel’s Theological Dictionary of the New Testament says that such usage “is in no way disrespectful or derogatory.” Thus, we should not conclude that Jesus was being rude or unkind to his mother in addressing her by the term “woman.”