In a commentary I've recently been consulting by James M. Scott, the
commentator writes:

"The meaning of _we have_ has been the subject of considerable debate.
It has gone unnoticed, however, that in conditional sentences having
EAN (if) + the aorist subjunctive in the protasis and the present
indicative of ECHW (have) in the apodosis, the latter expresses a
possession that an individual already has had (or not had) all along
(cf. 1 John 2:1; Matt. 5:46; John 6:53), not just reception immediately
consequent upon the action of the protasis" (2 Corinthians: New
International Biblical Commentary. James Scott. 127).

I wonder what members of this list think about this observation. I have
generally taken EAN and ECOMEN in 2 Cor. 5:2 as "If . . . then we are
to have." Conversely, Scott says that we (believers) already have the
"house from God." Its a fascinating argument and one that I am
extremely curious about.