Welcome to wikivorce. The answer to your
question is not as simple as it might seem.

Divorce and settling
finances are two different things. The finances are ususally settled by an
instrument called a consent order which comes into effect on Decree absolute, or at some time when the parties have
negotiated a settlement. An inheritance is not an inheritance until it is
in the proverbial bank account. So if it is a question in relation to a
POTENTIAL inheritance, then it can't really be included in the final
financial settlement, unless it has actually happened.

Once the
finances are settled by a Consent Order, this effectively stops any claim
by either party on the other.

So if your friend DOES go down the
divorce route, she needs to get to a decree absolute, an agreed consent
order and hope that whoever she is inheriting from is still breathing at
this point. After the consent order becomes active, there is no going
back, unless it can be proved that there was fraud or non-disclosure of
financial info before the consent order was agreed.

The divorce and financial claims are separate, the divorce
itself is just a matter of completing forms and having them stamped by
court.

To end any future financial claims your friend will need
a court approved consent order, this is a document sating the agreement
they make on current assets and then dismisses any future claims that can
be made.

Sorry to hijack the thread, any info on how far back you can claim
inheritance in a constent order ie, if absorbed into a joint investment
property which has significantly decreased in value (more than the original
inheritance)? And can you subsequently paritall y"give" your inheritance
received 5 years ago to your children? Supercali xx