>1 Cor 14:18 reads EUCARISTW TWi QEWi PANTWN hUMWN MALLON GLOSSAIS LALW.
>Does
>PANTWN hUMWN have a distributive sense such that it would mean "I speak in
>tongues more than any one of you?" Or would that require the singular
>PANTOS
>hUMWN or PANTOS SOU? Or does it mean, "I speak in tongues more than the
>whole
>of you" i.e., all of you put together?

According to my count, there are 15 Gentile dialects itemized
in Acts Chapter 2. I believe this is the only "full" definition
of the gift of (Gentile) languages.

I think, then, that Paul, as an apostle, had the gift to
speak all 15. This would certainly make sense, but as an argument
from silence, can not be proved or disproved.

Nevertheless, I would think PANTWN hUMWN could be understood either way.

The sense I get from other passages is that the few believers who were given
this gift, each would have spoken only 1 of the 15 dialects that Luke
identifies.

Supposing there were about 5 to 10 individual house-churches (this is purely
a random number) in Corinth, I would not see a need (or use) for more than a
few Gentile dialects. But Paul, able to speak all 15, would then be able to
speak more than any one believer, or the sum total of all Corinthian
believers.

This is using more reason and logic than strictly B-Greek, but I think it
provides some a helpful background for working through this issue.