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Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?

Gerund means "the -ing form of the verb" and it is a noun from now on, not a verb anymore.

In this sentence, you should pay attention to the meaning. "his being" means "his existance". "him being" is totally something different..

Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?

This also means that "being" is 99% ruled out in GMAT but that 1% questions may be of this type.....

I doubt if being is a GERUND 'cos Gerund acts as a noun.

The rule I vaguely remember
[b]Objective forms of pronouns are usually used after verbs.
For eg: The teacher hated Sunil and me(used the objedtive form of "I")