All,
The purpose of this email is to seek some clarification on what people think
about the transitive nature of specializationOf.
James' semantics [1] defines this relation as transitive.
Do you think specializationOf is transitive?
If not, can you give a counter example?
Cheers,
Luc
PS: tracker, this is ISSUE-29
[1] http://www.w3.org/2011/prov/wiki/FormalSemanticsWD3
--
Professor Luc Moreau
Electronics and Computer Science tel: +44 23 8059 4487
University of Southampton fax: +44 23 8059 2865
Southampton SO17 1BJ email: l.moreau@ecs.soton.ac.uk
United Kingdom http://www.ecs.soton.ac.uk/~lavm