B-Greek: The Biblical Greek Forum

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In Deuteronomy 27:26 in the Septuagint, the translator(s) translate(s) the Hebrew אשר/whoever as πᾶς ἄνθρωπος/every man.

Is this a common translation of אֲשר/'asher in the Septuagint's version of Deuteronomy when it refers to "whoever", or is the Septuagint translator(s) here placing further emphasis on this command with regards it referring to "every man"? Or could the translation have been done from a manuscript that contained the Hebrew איש אשר as a variant here?

The few places I checked that had אשר/whoever, the Septuagint had it translated as either ὃς (Exod 9:21) or ὃς ἂν (Exod 30:33), but I was just wondering if anyone had seen/knew of any other places that the Septuagint has πᾶς ἄνθρωπος for אשר.

Is this a common translation of אֲשר/'asher in the Septuagint's version of Deuteronomy when it refers to "whoever", or is the Septuagint translator(s) here placing further emphasis on this command with regards it referring to "every man"? Or could the translation have been done from a manuscript that contained the Hebrew איש אשר as a variant here?

The few places I checked that had אשר/whoever, the Septuagint had it translated as either ὃς (Exod 9:21) or ὃς ἂν (Exod 30:33), but I was just wondering if anyone had seen/knew of any other places that the Septuagint has πᾶς ἄνθρωπος for אשר.

Are we therefore to understand Deut 27:26 as I mentioned in my first post, in that the translator is making the force of the command more explicit, especially as there's no other place that has πᾶς ἄνθρωπος, ὃς as a translation of just אשר alone?