UPSC Prelims Past Year Paper 2011: Paper 1 (GS)

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QUESTION: 1

Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:
1. Soil formation.
2. Prevention of soil erosion.
3. Recycling of waste.
4. Pollination of crops.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only.

B.

2, 3 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 4 only.

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4 only.

Solution:

Biodiversity is the basis of human existence, our life support system. Ecosystems regulate climatic processes, breakdown wastes and recycle nutrients, filter and purify water, buffer against flooding, maintain soil fertility, purify air, and provide natural resources such as wood, textiles, and of course food. All agriculture depends fundamentally on Biodiversity, as do marine and freshwater food resources. To allow continued biodiversity loss means loosing the essential services that biodiversity provides, and prevents handing down an invaluable gift to future generations. The below table, adapted from the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment outlines the concept of ecosystem services and illustrates the importance of maintaining rich biodiversity and a healthy environment.

QUESTION: 2

Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?

A.

Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes.

B.

When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation.

C.

Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories.​

D.

Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar; hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.

Solution:

Aspartame, an artificial sweetener, is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose, or table sugar. Due to this property, even though aspartame produces four kilocalories of energy per gram when metabolized, the quantity of aspartame needed to produce a sweet taste is so small that its caloric contribution is negligible.
No matter how much aspartame a person consumes, after it is eaten, aspartame absorbs into the body, where it breaks down into methanol, aspartic acid, and phenylalanine. Although all three of these metabolites naturally occur in the body, each can cause harm when consumed separately in high doses. Because it is these metabolites that can be harmful and not aspartame itself, studies into the safety of aspartame examine how consuming the sweetener affects the levels of methanol, aspartic acid, and phenylalanine in the body.

QUESTION: 3

​What was the purpose with which sir William wedderburn and W.S.Caine had set up the Indian parliamentary committee in 1893?

A.

To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons.

B.

To campaign for the entry of Indians into the imperial judiciary.

C.

To facilitate a discussion on India’s independence in the British parliament.

D.

To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British parliament.

Solution:

He entered Parliament in 1893 as a Liberal member and sought to voice India's grievances in the House. He formed the Indian Parliamentary Committee with which he was associated as Chairman from 1893 to 1900. In 1895, William Wedderburn represented India on the Welby Commission (i.e. Royal Commission) on Indian Expenditure. He also began participating in the activities of the Indian Famine Union, set up in June 1901, for investigation into famines and proposing preventive measures. He came to India in 1904 to attend the 20th session of the Indian National Congress in Bombay, which was presided over by Sir Henry Cotton. He was again invited in 1910 to preside over the 25th session. He remained the Chairman of the British Committee of the Congress from July 1889 until his death.

QUESTION: 4

What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
a) To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.
b) The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
c) A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2and 3.

Solution:

Until recently, most homes used incandescent light bulbs. Incandescent bulbs emit light by generating heat. Unfortunately 90% of the power required to provide the desired brightness is emitted in heat rather than visible light. For this reason, incandescent bulbs are gradually being phased out, and in the United States will be banned entirely by 2014. CFLs have been touted enthusiastically in the past decade, but LEDs are beginning to surpass them because they require as little as half the power and last 10 times longer than a CFL. The table below contrasts the three technologies.

QUESTION: 5

Recently, “oil zapper’’ was in the news. What is it?

A.

It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills.

B.

It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration.

C.

It is a genetically engineered high biofuelyielding maize variety.

D.

It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells.

Solution:

Oilzapper: eliminate crude oil spills, manage oily sludge Results
In the year 1997, TERI initiated the research on crude oil and oil sludge degrading bacterial consortium. After seven years of research work, TERI developed the Oilzapper (crude oil and oily sludge degrading bacterial consortium). Oilzapper was produced in bulk and immobilized on to a carrier material (organic powder material). Carrier based Oilzapper was used for clean up of crude oil spills and treatment of oily sludge.
More than 40,000 tonnes of oily sludge/oil contaminated soil and drill cuttings have been treated at various locations. More than 30,000 tonnes of oily sludge/oil contaminated soil is under treatment at different locations in India and the Middle East countries. With the application of Oilzapper, crude oil contaminated agricultural lands were cleaned up in the north-eastern and western parts of India.

QUESTION: 6

A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is?

A.

O positive.

B.

A positive.

C.

B positive.

D.

Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data.

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “unto this last’’ and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

A.

Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man.

B.

The good of individual is contained in the good of all.

C.

The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life.

D.

All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context.

Solution:

It was 150 years ago that the book Unto This Last was published, a groundbreaking work that turned economic thinking on its head and profoundly influenced the views of many including Mahatma Gandhi, the father of Indian independence.
Gandhi first read the subversive masterwork of political economy by John Ruskin in 1904, during a train trip in South Africa where he was living at the time. “The book was impossible to lay aside, once I had begun it,” wrote the progenitor of the nonviolence resistance movement years later in his autobiography. “It gripped me. Johannesburg to Durban was a twenty-four hours’ journey. The train reached there in the evening. I could not get any sleep that night. I determined to change my life in accordance with the ideals of the book,” Gandhi wrote.
“I believe that I discovered some of my deepest convictions in this great book,” he wrote, adding the work “captured me and made me transform my life.” Ruskin was a middle-aged writer and art critic who already had two well-received works — The Seven Lamps of Architecture and The Stones of Venice — when he wrote Unto This Last.
The book, a radical critique of capitalism that up-ended Victorian-era England when it was published in December 1860, appeared first as a series in four issues of Cornhill Magazine. It was bound as a single volume 18 months later.
It caused an uproar by rejecting the classical theories of economists like Adam Smith, David Ricardo and John Stuart Mill.
The book redefined humans as complex beings often driven by emotions and motivations that cannot be explained by the laws of supply and demand.
The title Unto This Last is taken from the Gospel of St Matthew, chapter 20.

QUESTION: 8

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for?

A.

Running the secret congress radio in the wake of quit India movement.

B.

Participating in the second round table conference.

C.

Leading a contingent of Indian national army.

D.

Assisting in the formation of Interim government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Solution:

Usha Mehta (March 25, 1920 – August 11, 2000) was a renowned Gandhian and freedom fighter of India. She is also remembered for organizing the Congress Radio, also called the Secret Congress Radio, an underground radio station, which functioned for few months during the Quit India Movement of 1942. In 1998, the Government of India conferred on her Padma Vibhushan, the second highest civilian award of Republic of India.

QUESTION: 9

A new optical disc format known as the bluray disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?
1. DVD supports standard definition video while BD supports high definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

Blu-ray Disc (official abbreviation BD) is an optical disc storage medium designed to supersede the DVD format. The disc diameter is 120 mm and disc thickness 1.2 mm plastic optical disc, the same size as DVDs and CDs. Blu-ray Discs contain 25 GB (23.31 GiB) per layer, with dual layer discs (50 GB) being the norm for feature-length video discs.
Blu-ray (not Blue-ray) also known as Blu-ray Disc (BD), is the name of a new optical disc format jointly developed by the Blu-ray Disc Association (BDA), a group of the world's leading consumer electronics, personal computer and media manufacturers (including Apple, Dell, Hitachi, HP, JVC, LG, Mitsubishi, Panasonic, Pioneer, Philips, Samsung, Sharp, Sony, TDK and Thomson). The format was developed to enable recording, rewriting and playback of highdefinition video (HD), as well as storing large amounts of data. The format offers more than five times the storage capacity of traditional DVDs and can hold up to 25GB on a single-layer disc and 50GB on a dual-layer disc. This extra capacity combined with the use of advanced video and audio codecs will offer consumers an unprecedented HD experience. While current optical disc technologies such as DVD, DVD±R, DVD±RW, and DVD-RAM rely on a red laser to read and write data, the new format uses a blue-violet laser instead, hence the name Blu-ray. Despite the different type of lasers used, Blu-ray products can easily be made backwards compatible with CDs and DVDs through the use of a BD/DVD/CD compatible optical pickup unit.

QUESTION: 10

With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?
1. Complete independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the constitution.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1,2 and 3

Solution:

The Nehru Report
The constitution outlined by the Nehru report was for Indian enjoying dominion status within the British Commonwealth. Some of the important elements of the report– Unlike the eventual Government of India Act 1935 it contained a Bill of Rights All power of government and all authority - legislative, executive and judicial - are derived from the people and the same shall be exercised through organizations established by, or under, and in accord with, this Constitution There shall be no state religion; men and women shall have equal rights as citizens.
There should be federal form of government with residuary powers vested in the center.(Some scholars, such as in in Moore 1988] considered the Nehru Report proposal as essentially unitary rather than federal.); It included a description of the machinery of government including a proposal for the creation of a Supreme Court and a suggestion that the provinces should be linguistically determined; It did not provide for separate electorates for any community or weightage for minorities. Both of these were liberally provided in the eventual Government of India Act 1935. However, it did allow for the reservation of minority seats in provinces having a minorities of at least ten percent, but this was to be in strict proportion to the size of the community.
The language of the Commonwealth shall be Indian, which may be written either in Devanagari in Hindi,Telugu, Kannada,Marathi,Gujarati,Bengali, Tamil or in Urdu character. The use of the English language shall be permitted.
The Nehru Report, along with that of the Simon Commission was available to participants in the three Indian Round Table Conferences 1931-1933. However, the Government of India Act 1935 owes much to the Simon Commission report and little, if anything to the Nehru Report.

QUESTION: 11

Among the following states, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?

A.

Andhra Pradesh.

B.

Arunachal Pradesh.

C.

Madhya Pradesh.

D.

Uttar Pradesh.

Solution:

Orchids from 9% of our flora and are the largest botanical family of higher plants in India. It is estimated that about 1,300 species (140 genera) of orchids are found in our country with Himalayas as their main home and others scattered in Eastern and western Ghats. The following is the distribution of orchids species in different regions of India.
North-Western Himalayas ca 200 species North-Eastern India ca 800 species Western Ghats ca 300 species North-Eastern India owing to its peculiar gradient and varied climatic conditions contains largest group of temperate, sub-tropical orchids.

QUESTION: 12

Which one of the following is not a site for insitu method of conservation of flora?

A.

Biosphere reserve.

B.

Botanical garden.

C.

National park.

D.

Wildlife sanctuary.

Solution:

"In-situ" means at the same place. Except Botanical Garden all the three are preserved at the places of their exixtence. Botanical Garden is developed by bringing and preserving different plant species from various places.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements: In India, a metropolitan planning committee:
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India.
2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area? Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

1, 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

What is the difference between “vote-onaccount” and interim budget?
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account’’ is used by a regular government, while an “interim budget’’ is a provision used by a caretaker government.
2. A “vote-on-account’’ only deals with the expenditure in government are budget, while an “interim budget’’ includes both expenditure and receipts.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

​Regarding the international monetary fund, which one of the following statements is correct?

A.

It can grant to any country.

B.

It can grant loans to only developed countries.

C.

It grants loans to only member countries.

D.

It can grant loans to the central bank of a country.

Solution:

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an intergovernmental organization that promotes international economic cooperation, focusing in particular on policies that have an impact on the exchange rate and the balance of payments. The organization's stated objectives are to promote international economic cooperation, international trade, employment, and exchange rate stability, including by making resources available to member countries to meet balance of payments needs. Its headquarters are in Washington, D.C. The IMF’s relatively high influence in world affairs and development has drawn heavy criticism from some sources.

QUESTION: 16

In the union budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?
1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.
Q. Which the correct answer using the codes given below?

A.

1, 2and 3 only.

B.

1, 3 and 4 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4.

Solution:

Bioasphalt is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources.
These sources includes sugar, molasses and rice, corn and potato starches, natural tree and gum resins, natural latex rubber and vegetable oils, lignin, cellulose, palm oil waste, coconut waste, peanut oil waste, canola oil waste, potato starch, dried sewerage effluent and so on. Bitumen can also be made from waste vacuum tower bottoms produced in the process of cleaning used motor oils, which are normally burned or dumped into land fills.
Non-petroleum based bitumen binders can be colored, which can reduce the temperatures of road surfaces and reduce the Urban heat islands.

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following:
1. Carbon dioxide.
2. Oxides of nitrogen.
3. Oxides of Sulphur.
​Q. Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1,2,and 3.

Solution:

Emissions from coal usage:
The main emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants are Carbon dioxide (CO2), Nitrogen oxides (NOx), Sulfur oxides (SOx), Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), carbonaceous material (soot), and air-borne inorganic particles such as fly ash, also known as suspended particulate matter (SPM) and other trace gas species. Carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and chlorofluorocarbons are greenhouse gases. Evidence accumulated by the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) suggests that emissions of these greenhouse gases might be responsible for climate change, a global concern. Possible consequences projected by IPCC include:
- a rise in sea levels
- a more vigorous hydrological cycle that may increase the severity of floods and droughts and may cause more extreme climatic events; and
- ecological change that could threaten agricultural productivity

QUESTION: 18

Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such as orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236.
Q. Which the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only.

B.

1, 3 and 4 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4.

Solution:

A geostationary orbit (or Geostationary Earth Orbit - GEO) is a geosynchronous orbit directly above the Earth's equator (0° latitude), with a period equal to the Earth's rotational period and an orbital eccentricity of approximately zero. An object in a geostationary orbit appears motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to ground observers. Communications satellites and weather satellites are often given geostationary orbits, so that the satellite antennas that communicate with them do not have to move to track them, but can be pointed permanently at the position in the sky where they stay. Due to the constant 0° latitude and circularity of geostationary orbits, satellites in GEO differ in location by longitude only.
A geostationary orbit can only be achieved at an altitude very close to 35,786 km (22,236 mi), and directly above the equator.

QUESTION: 19

India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
2. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
​Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1,2, and 3.

Solution:

Agriculture Sector – Decadal Performance The growth rates in the production of key foodgrains in India have declined with each passing decade. Average growth in foodgrain production was highest in 1950s and declined in subsequent decades. It briefly improved in the 1990s and reached its lowest in the subsequent decade, (Figure 1), when the growth rate in incomes was at its highest pace. Within foodgrains, rice and wheat both recorded average growth rates lower than 1%. Growth rate in pulses was higher in the 2000s decade but has not been enough to keep pace with the changing demand pattern of the Indian population. Another significant feature is the volatility in growth rates which has increased in 1990s and 2000s.
The trend is no different when we look at growth rates in key commercial crops (Figure 2) with sugarcane and coffee hardly registering any growth in the last decade. However the growth rate of oilseeds and cotton was higher in the 2000s which is a positive sign.
As average growth rates may not provide the right picture given the volatility, we also need to look at overall production levels (Figure 3). If we see the production numbers from 1990 onwards, we can see the sharp volatility as explained above. Barring a rise in last few years, overall production has stagnated and remains at production levels seen in 1990s. Consequently, with a growing economy and population, supply of foodgrains emerged as a constraint.

QUESTION: 20

At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
​Q. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Solution:

Gene Targeting: Gene targeting strategies have been expanded to all kinds of modifications, including point mutations, isoform deletions, mutant allele correction, large pieces of chromosomal DNA insertion and deletion, tissue specific disruption combined with spatial and temporal regulation and so on. It is predicted that the ability to generate mouse models with predictable phenotypes will have a major impact on studies of all phases of development, immunology, neurobiology, oncology, physiology, metabolism, and human diseases. Gene targeting is also in theory applicable to species from which totipotent embryonic stem cells can be established, and therefore may offer a potential to the improvement of domestic animals and plants.

QUESTION: 21

In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX common wealth games in India amounted to?

A.

Export.

B.

Import.

C.

Production.

D.

Consumption.

Solution:

The itmes purchased or consumed by the foreign nationals can be related to sale/export of such materials out of the country.

QUESTION: 22

Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
​Q. Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1,2 and 3.

Solution:

Microbial Fuel Cells (MFCs) - a novel source of energy for new millennium: Continued use of petroleum fuels is now widely recognized as unsustainable because of their depleting supplies and the contribution of these fuels to the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the environment. Renewable, carbon neutral, transport fuels are necessary for environmental and economic sustainability. A microbial fuel cell (MFC), a novel form of microbial respiration has recently been discovered, it is a bioreactor that converts chemical energy present in the organic compounds (in the form of chemical bonds) to electrical energy through catalytic reactions of microorganisms under anaerobic conditions. These organisms, termed electricigens, Microbial fuel cells (MFCs) provide new opportunities for the sustainable production of energy from biodegradable compounds. MFCs function on different carbohydrates and also on complex substrates present in wastewaters and renewable biomass. Biomass, especially organic waste, is being considered as a valuable candidate. The use of biomass, in the case of waste organics, is environment friendly and regarded as a renewable energy source.

QUESTION: 23

Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?

A.

It is a massive investment by the government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.

B.

It is an intense affirmative action of the government to boost economic activity in the country.

C.

It is government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation.

D.

It is an extreme affirmative action by the government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion.

The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

A.

Presence of prominent troposphere turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.

B.

Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.

C.

Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons.

D.

Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming.

Solution:

As mid-May brings on the onset of winter, the Antarctic stratosphere cools and descends closer to the surface. The Coriolis effect (caused by the earths rotation) sets up a strong westerly circulation around the south pole, forming an oblong vortex which varies in size from year to year.
As temperatures in the lower stratosphere cools below -80'C, Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSC's) start to form.
In the area over Antarctica, there are stratospheric cloud ice particles that are not present at warmer latitudes. Reactions occur on the surface of the ice particles that accelerate the ozone destruction caused by stratospheric chlorine.

QUESTION: 25

Consider the following actions which the government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
​3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Q. Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

A.

1 and 2.

B.

2 and 3.

C.

3 only.

D.

1 and 3.

Solution:

In economics, the current account is one of the two primary components of the balance of payments, the other being the capital account. The current account is the sum of the balance of trade (exports minus imports of goods and services), net factor income (such as interest and dividends) and net transfer payments (such as foreign aid).
The current account balance is one of two major measures of the nature of a country's foreign trade (the other being the net capital outflow). A current account surplus increases a country's net foreign assets by the corresponding amount, and a current account deficit does the reverse. Both government and private payments are included in the calculation. It is called the current account because goods and services are generally consumed in the current period.
The balance of trade is the difference between a nation's exports of goods and services and its imports of goods and services, if all financial transfers, investments and other components are ignored. A Nation is said to have a trade deficit if it is importing more than it exports.

QUESTION: 26

The constitution (seventy-third amendments) act, 1992, which aims at promoting the panchayati raj institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of district planning committees.
2. State election commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of state finance commission.
​Q. State the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

Two important rivers- one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odishamerge at a place only a short distance from thecoast of bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.
Which one of the following could be this?

A.

Bhitarkanika.

B.

Chandipur-on-sea.

C.

Gopalpur-on-sea.

D.

Simlipal.

Solution:

The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a mangrove wetland in India's Orissa state. The Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area of 650 km² in the river delta of the Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.
The Brahmani is formed by the confluence of the rivers South Koel and Sankh near the major industrial town of Raurkela at 22 15'N and 84 47' E. The Sankh has its origins near the Jharkhand-Chhatisgarh border, not far from the Netarhat Plateau. Together with the rivers Mahanadi and Baitarani, it forms a large delta before entering into the Bay of Bengal at Dhamra.
The Baitarani River or River Vaitarani is one of six major rivers of Orissa.

QUESTION: 28

A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?

A.

It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops.

B.

It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth.

C.

It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate.

D.

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Solution:

The base effect relates to inflation in the corresponding period of the previous year: if the inflation rate was two low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmatically give a high rate of inflation now; On the other hand if the price index had risen at a high rate in the corresponding period of the previous year and recorded high inflation rate, a similar absolute increase in the Price index now will show a lower inflation rate now.

QUESTION: 29

India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend’’. This is due to?

A.

Its high population in the age group below 15 years.

B.

Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years.

C.

Its high population in the age group above 65 years.

D.

Its high total population.

Solution:

The demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working age people in a population. This usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth dependency rate declines. During this demographic window of opportunity, output per capita rises. It has been argued that the demographic dividend played a role in the "economic miracles" of the East Asian Tigers Much has been said recently about India's demographic dividend: that its working-age (15-59 years) population, as of now, largely consists of youth (15-34 years), and as a result its economy has the potential to grow more quickly than that of many other countries, including China.

QUESTION: 30

Regarding “carbon credits’’, which one of the following statements is not correct?

A.

The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto protocol.

B.

Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota.

C.

The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission.

D.

Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations environment programs.

Solution:

Carbon credits are a tradable permit scheme. It is a simple, non-compulsory way to counteract the greenhouse gasses that contribute to climate change and global warming. Carbon credits create a market for reducing greenhouse emissions by giving a monetary value to the cost of polluting the air. The Carbon Credit is this new currency and each carbon credit represents one tonne of carbon dioxide either removed from the atmosphere or saved from being emitted. Carbon credits are also called emission permit. Carbon credit is in the Environment and Pollution Control subject. Carbon credits are certificates awarded to countries that are successful in reducing emissions of greenhouse gases. Carbon credits are generated as the result of an additional carbon project. Carbon credits can be created in many ways but there are two broad types:
1. Sequestration (capturing or retaining carbon dioxide from the atmosphere) such as afforestation and reforestation activities.
2. Carbon Dioxide Saving Projects such as use of renewable energies These credits need to be authentic, scientifically based and Verification is essential. Carbon credit trading is an innovative method of controlling emissions using the free market. Existence of carbon credits: The concept of carbon credits came into existence as a result of increasing awareness of the need for pollution control.
Carbon credits were one of the outcomes of the Kyoto Protocol, an international agreement between 169 countries. The Kyoto Protocol created legally binding emission targets for developing nations. To meet these targets, nations must limit C02 emissions. It was enforced from Feb’05.

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following:
1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
​Q. Which of the above is/are human right/human rights under “universal declaration of human rights’’?

A.

1 only.

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

3 only.

D.

1,2 and 3.

Solution:

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights has 30 Articles. The relevant articles are being reproduced below:
Article 26.
(1) Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit.
Article 21.
(1) Everyone has the right to take part in the government of his country, directly or through freely chosen representatives.
(2) Everyone has the right of equal access to public service in his country.
(3) The will of the people shall be the basis of the authority of government; this will shall be expressed in periodic and genuine elections which shall be by universal and equal suffrage and shall be held by secret vote or by equivalent free voting procedures.
Article 25.
(1) Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability,

QUESTION: 32

There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawater of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.’
3. Upwelling in the seas.
​Q. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

In Photosynthesis the carbon dioxide is absorbed by the plants and the oxygen is released. In all other activities carbon dioxide is released.
Animals inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide. Green plants are the only plants that produce oxygen and make food, which is called photosynthesis. Photosynthesis means ''putting together with light.'' This takes place in chloroplasts, which have chlorophyll in them. Chlorophyll absorbs the sunlight. From sunlight, green plants combine carbon dioxide and water to make sugar and oxygen. Green plants use sugar to make starch, fats, and proteins. There are tiny pores called stomota. Carbon dioxide and oxygen enter and leave through the stomata respectively.
Decomposition drastically reduces the volume of organic matter:
Respiration:
the sum total of the physical and chemical processes in an organism by which oxygen is conveyed to tissues and cells, and the oxidation products, carbon dioxide and water, are given off. The most abundant gas typically released into the atmosphere from volcanic systems is water vapor (H2O), followed by carbon dioxide (CO2) and sulfur dioxide (SO2). Volcanoes also release smaller amounts of others gases, including hydrogen sulfide (H2S), hydrogen (H2), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen chloride (HCL), hydrogen fluoride (HF), and helium (He). A composting process that operates at optimum performance will convert organic matter into stable compost that is odor and pathogen free, and a poor breeding substrate for flies and other insects. In addition, it will significantly reduce the volume and weight of organic waste as the composting process converts much of the biodegradable component to gaseous carbon dioxide.

QUESTION: 34

Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the “Australia group” and the “Wassenaar arrangement. What is the difference between them?
1. The Australia group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and north American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar arrangement are pre-dominantly from the European Union and American continents.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?

A.

Ice is a bad conductor of heat.

B.

Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost.

C.

The density of water is maximum at 4°c.

D.

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given is correct.

Solution:

The anomalous expansion of water as it cools from 4°C to 0°C means that the density of water is greatest at 4°C . So the ice that forms in cold weather forms at the top of the water (where the less dense coldest water gathers) and then acts as an insulating barrier, preventing the water underneath from getting much colder (because heat cannot escape).

QUESTION: 36

A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

A.

Indian wild buffalo.

B.

Indian wild ass.

C.

Indian wild boar.

D.

Indian gazelle.

Solution:

In the last century, the Indian wild ass lived all over the dry regions of northwestern India and western Pakistan including Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Sind and Baluchistan. Today, it survives only in the Little Rann, and a few stray towards the Great Rann of Kutch with some reaching bordering villages in the Jalore district of the Indian State of Rajasthan. First census of the wild ass was done in 1940, when there were an estimated 3,500 wild asses. But, by the year 1960, this figure fell to just 362, it was then classified as a highly endangered species. In the years 1973 & 1976, Rann of Kutch and adjoining districts were taken up as the area for conservation for this sub-species also known as Khur. From 1976, the forest department began conducting the Wild Ass census. Water holes were increased in the area, the forest department has also started a project for having fodder plots though the forest department is yet to get desired success. In 1998, Wild Ass population was estimated at 2,940, by the year 2004 it has increased to an estimated 3,863. A recent census conducted by forest department in 2009 has revealed that the population of wild ass in the state was now estimated to about 4,038, an increase of 4.53% as compared to 2004.

QUESTION: 37

La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from EI Nino?
1. La Nina is characterized by un-usually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian ocean whereas EI Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial pacific ocean.
2. EI Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

La Niña is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon that is the counterpart of El Niño as part of the broader El Niño-Southern Oscillation climate pattern. During a period of La Niña, the sea surface temperature across the equatorial Eastern Central Pacific Ocean will be lower than normal by 3–5 °C. In the United States, an episode of La Niña is defined as a period of at least 5 months of La Niña conditions. The name La Niña originates from Spanish, meaning "the girl," analogous to El Niño meaning "the boy."
La Niña, sometimes informally called "anti-El Niño", is the opposite of El Niño, where the latter corresponds instead to a higher sea surface temperature by a deviation of at least 0.5 °C, and its effects are often the reverse of those of El Niño. El Niño is famous due to its potentially catastrophic impact on the weather along both the Chilean, Peruvian and Australian coasts, among others. La Niña is often preceded by a strong El Niño. For India, an El Niño is often a cause for concern because of its adverse impact on the southwest monsoon; this happened in 2009. A La Niña, on the other hand, is often beneficial for the monsoon, especially in the latter half. The La Niña that appeared in the Pacific in 2010 probably helped 2010's south-west monsoon end on a favourable note.

QUESTION: 38

The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?

A.

Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-à-vis the ryot.

B.

Making east India company an overlord of Zamindars.

C.

Making judicial system more efficient.

D.

None of the (a), (b) and (c) above.

Solution:

QUESTION: 39

Which one of the following observation is not true about the quit India movement of 1942?

A.

It was a non-violent movement.

B.

It was led by Mahatma Gandhi.

C.

It was a spontaneous movement.

D.

It did not attract the labour class in general.

Solution:

QUESTION: 40

Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?

A.

Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products.

B.

Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas.

C.

Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas.

D.

The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal com-munities.

Solution:

The rebellion continued till the beginning of the 19th century and was marked by daring attacks on the East India Company's offices in different parts of Bihar and Bengal, killing of notorious Indian landlords and money-lenders as well as of oppressive British traders and army officers, and both guerilla and positional warfare against the British army. In 1820, the Ho tribal peasants of Chhotanagpur in Bihar, rose against the British rulers and the local money-lenders and zamindars. The establishment of British authority in the area, had led to dislocation in the socio-economic living pattern of the Ho people. A large number of Hindu, Muslim and Sikh traders and money-lenders had come and settled among them. Their lands were being occupied by these outsiders through contracts enforced by courts of law. Widespread discontent ensued among the Hos.

QUESTION: 41

India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/explanations?

A.

As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times.

B.

The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, Brahmin priests and Buddhist monks in this context.

Bluetooth is used for wireless local area networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for wireless wide area networks (WWAN) only.

C.

When information is transmitted between two devices using blue-tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other.

D.

The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context.

Solution:

Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are both wireless networking standards that provide connectivity via radio waves. The main difference: Bluetooth's primary use is to replace cables, while Wi-Fi is largely used to provide wireless, high-speed access to the Internet or a local area network.
Bluetooth, WiFi and WiMAX are wireless technologies which allow devices to inter-connect and communicate with each other. Radio waves are electomagnetic waves and have different frequencies. These technologies are radio frequencies. Similar to the analogue radio, or FM radio. Bluetooth works on 2.45GHz frequency. WiFi works in two frequency bands 2.4GHz and 5GHz. WiMAX works in two frequency bands, 2 - 11GHz and 10 - 66GHz

QUESTION: 43

With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
​3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges “formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges’’?
1. Funds used to support the India office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.
Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 only.

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a Satyagraha on behalf of the peasants off Kheda?
1. The administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The administration proposed to introduce permanent settlement in Gujarat.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

The Kheda district of Gujarat was on the verge of famine owing to failure of the crops. The yield had been so low that the cultivators, especially the poorer section, were unable to pay the revenue. But the government insisted that the yield had not been so bad and that the cultivators should pay the tax. Gandhi saw the justice of the cause of the cultivators and advised them to offer Satyagraha by not paying their taxes.
Many leaders, like Vallabhbhai Patel, Shankarlal Banker, Mahadev Desai and others, took an active part in this struggle. The campaign came to an unexpected end. There had been signs that it might fizzle out, but after four months’ struggle there came an honourable settlement. The Government said that if well-to-do cultivators paid up the poorer section would be granted suspension. This was agreed to and the campaign ended.

QUESTION: 46

The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

A.

The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out.​

B.

The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster.

C.

The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or Tsunami.

D.

The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots.

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by?

A.

Universal law.

B.

Universal truth.

C.

Universal faith.

D.

Universal soul.

Solution:

According to Jainism, this loka or Universe is an uncreated entity, existing since infinity, immutable in nature, beginning less and endless. Jain texts describe the shape of the Universe as similar to a man standing with legs apart and arm resting on his waist. The Universe according to Jainism is narrow at top and broad at middle and once again becomes broad at the bottom. Mahapura of Acarya Jinasena is famous for his quote: “ Some foolish men declare that the creator made the world. The doctrine that the world was created is ill advised and should be rejected. If god created the world, where was he before the creation? If you say he was transcendent then and needed no support, where is he now? How could god have made this world without any raw material? If you say that he made this first, and then the world, you are faced with an endless regression. ”

QUESTION: 48

Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evapo-rates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of Salinization on the irrigated land?

A.

It greatly increases the crop production

B.

It makes some soils impermeable

C.

It raises the water table

D.

It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

Solution:

Another concern besides excessive salinity build-up as regards the long-term feasibility of using saline water for irrigation is that of soil permeability and tilth. As discussed in Chapter 4, the likelihood of these problems increase as SAR increases and as electrical conductivity decreases. Therefore, adverse effects are most likely to occur during the periods of rainfall and irrigation using low-salinity water on soils previously irrigated with sodic, saline water. Such problems occurred at an experimental "reuse" site in California following pre-season rains and pre-irrigation with 0.3 dS/m canal water where sodic, saline water [9000 mg/l TDS; SAR = 30 (mmolc/l)½] had been used for irrigation for four consecutive years (Rolston et al. 1988). The consequence was impermeable, crusted soils and poor stand establishment. Whether such a problem will occur, or not, depends upon whether the EC of the high quality water is less than the threshold value, given the SAR of the saline water. Some combinations of the two waters are not permissible. The methods given in chapter 4 may be used to assess whether such a problem is likely to occur or not. This problem can often be controlled by the use of amendments and appropriate tillage practices as discussed

QUESTION: 49

The “Red Data Books’’ published by the international union for conservation of nature and natural resources (IUCN) contain lists of?
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

2 only.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 only.

Solution:

A Red Data Book contains lists of species whose continued existence is threatened. Species are classified into different categories of perceived risk. Each Red Data Book usually deals with a specific group of animals or plants (e. reptiles, insects, mosses). They are now being published in many different countries and provide useful information on the threat status of the species.

QUESTION: 50

Why is the offering of “teaser loans’’ by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

Itis a type of loan whichcarry attractiveinterest rate & discount offers during the initial phase of the loan.After specific time period, they relapse back to the then prevailingrates.
Why have teaser loans received a bad name?
Teaser home loans have received a bad name because of the sup-prime crisis in the US. In America, many lenders encouraged borrowers to take on home loans they could not afford by offering them teaser rates for the initial years. As long as home prices rose, many borrowers were able to take second loans on their property and meet their obligations. But when home prices stabilised, many borrowers were not in a position to repay and banks found it difficult to realise their loans.

QUESTION: 51

An artificial satellite orbiting around the earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of earth?

A.

Does not exist at such distance.

B.

Is neutralized by the attraction of the moon.

C.

Provides the necessary speed for its steady motion.

D.

Provides the necessary acceleration for its motion.

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements?
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

Growth rate is never steady. There was financial crisis in 2008 and growth rate had come down

If GDP growth rate is not steady, per capita income growth rate would also not be steady

QUESTION: 53

In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

A.

Commercial banks.

B.

Cooperative banks.

C.

Regional rural banks.

D.

Microfinance institutions.

Solution:

Agency wise analysis indicates that the share of Cooperative Banks in the ground level credit for agriculture and allied activities has been declining. Details given in Annexure-III. It declined from 45% in 1996-97, the terminal year of VIIIth Plan to an estimate of 41% during 2000-2001. The decline has been uniform under both production credit and investment credit. The compound growth rate of credit has been consistent and increased from 9.5% during 1997-98 to 15% in 1998-99 and to 18.6% in 1999-2000. The share of long term structure was around 22% of credit flow through the cooperative structure but the compound growth rate, though positive has been declining from 15.78% in 1997-98 over 1996-97 to 14.9% in 1998-99 to 11.2% in 1999-2000.
The Commercial Banks have improved their share from 49% in 1996-97 to 52% in 2000-01. Thus the CBs have become the major agency for dispensing credit in agriculture and allied sector. However, they still fall short of their achievement of the priority sector target of 18%. Direct agricultural advances by the CBs was only 11.8% of the total net bank credit in March 2000. The RRBs are stagnating at 7% only.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following can aid in furthering the government’s objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promoting self-help groups.
2. Promoting micro. Small and medium enterprises.
3. Implementing the right to education act.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 only.

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3 only.

Solution:

The 11th Plan provides an opportunity to restructure policies to achieve a new vision based on faster, more broad-based and inclusive growth. It is designed to reduce poverty and focus on bridging the various divides that continue to fragment our society. The 11th Plan must aim at putting the economy on a sustainable growth trajectory with a growth rate of approximately 10 per cent by the end of the Plan period. It will create productive employment at a faster pace than before, and target robust agriculture growth at 4% per year. It must seek to reduce disparities across regions and communities by ensuring access to basic physical infrastructure as well as health and education services to all. It must recognize gender as a cross-cutting theme across all sectors and commit to respect and promote the rights of the common person. The first steps in this direction were initiated in the middle of the 10th Plan based on the National Common Minimum Programme adopted by the government. These steps must be further strengthened and consolidated into a strategy for the 11th Plan.
The private sector, including farming, micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs), and the corporate sector, has a critical role to play in achieving the objective of faster and more inclusive growth. This sector accounts for 76% of the total investment in the economy and an even larger share in employment and output. MSMEs, in particular, have a vital role in expanding production in a regionally balanced manner and generating widely dispersed offfarm employment. Our policies must aim at creating an environment in which entrepreneurship can flourish at all levels, not just at the top.
Self-Employment Programmes Self-employment is promoted through many schemes by many different departments. Besides an array of programmes for village and small scale enterprises, there are special schemes for scheduled castes and tribes. As far as Rural Development is concerned, the present strategy for promotion of self-employment in rural areas relies mainly on formation of self-help groups to empower rural communities and enable them to take up economic activities. Many other departments in government also have schemes that provide assistance to selfhelp groups but guidelines vary in scope, content and implementation mechanisms thus creating overlap and inefficiency.

QUESTION: 55

Why is the government of India disinvesting its equity in the central public sector enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The government intends to use the revenue earned from the dis investment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
​Q. Which the correct statement given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

What is difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky plane-toids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and mercury.
​3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

3 only.

D.

1,2 and 3.

Solution:

The main difference between an asteroid and a comet is what they are made of. Asteroids are made up of metals and rocky material, while comets are made up of ice, dust and rocky material. Both of these space objects were formed during the earliest times of the solar system, around 4.5 billion years ago. Asteroids formed much closer to the Sun, where it was too warm for ices to remain solid. Comets formed farther from the sun where ices would not melt. Comets, which approach the Sun, lose material with each orbit because some of their ice melts and vaporizes to form a tail.
A few other important differences between an asteroid and a comet exist. Obviously, comets have tails and asteroids do not. The heat from the Sun causes ice and other materials on a comet’s surface to heat up until they vaporize. That vapor is what is seen as the comets tail. Another difference is in their orbital patterns. Comets tend to have very extended and elongated orbits, many times going more than 50,000 AU from the Sun (1 AU, or astronomical unit, equals the distance from the Earth to the Sun).
Asteroids tend to have shorter, more circular orbits and they seem to want to group together in belts.
Another difference between an asteroid and a comet is in the numbers of each. There are only 3,572 known comets, but there are many millions of asteroids. Some as small as dust particles.
Asteroids are generally larger chunks of rock that come from the asteroid belt located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Comets are asteroid-like objects covered with ice, methane, ammonia, and other compounds that develop a fuzzy, cloud-like shell called a coma and sometimes a visible tail whenever they orbit close to the Sun.
Regions Where Comets Are Found Comets are found in two main regions of the cosmos: the Kuiper belt and the Oort cloud. Short-period comets -- comets that frequently return to the solar system -- probably originate from an area called the Kuiper belt. This belt is located within the solar system's ecliptic plane, beyond the orbit of Neptune. Astronomers found the first object in the Kuiper belt in 1992. Since that discovery many objects have been discovered within that region. These objects are usually small compared with planets. Their size ranges from 10 to 100 kilometers in diameter. Earth's diameter, for example, is 14,000 kilometers.

QUESTION: 57

Economic growth is usually coupled with?

A.

Deflation.

B.

Inflation.

C.

Stagflation.

D.

Hyperinflation.

Solution:

My economics professor keeps saying economic growth causes price inflation. Something about this does not make sense to me. If the economy is more productive, then the supply of goods is greater, so would not prices (assuming the money supply is stable) actually drop?
He would argue that it is aggregate demand, because more production means people have more disposable income, which more consumer spending. As a result, prices rise in response, and in conclusion because agreggate demand grows faster than long-term aggregate supply, economic growth will be coupled with inflation.

QUESTION: 58

The lowering of bank rate by the reserve bank of India leads to?

A.

More liquidity in the market.

B.

Less liquidity in the market.

C.

No change in the liquidity in the market.

D.

Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks.

Solution:

Bank rate, also referred to as the discount rate, is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances that it extends to commercial banks and other financial intermediaries. Changes in the bank rate are often used by central banks to control the money supply.
The interest rate that is charged by a country’s central or federal bank on loans and advances to control money supply in the economy and the banking sector. This is typically done on a quarterly basis to control inflation and stabilize the country’s exchange rates. A fluctuation in bank rates triggers a ripple-effect as it impacts every sphere of a country’s economy. For instance, the prices in stock markets tend to react to interest rate changes. A change in bank rates affects customers as it influences prime interest rates for personal loans.

QUESTION: 59

Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

The Westerlies, anti-trades, or Prevailing Westerlies, are the prevailing winds in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude, blowing from the high pressure area in the horse latitudes towards the poles. These prevailing winds blow from the west to the east, and steer extratropical cyclones in this general manner.
The Westerlies are strongest in the winter hemisphere and times when the pressure is lower over the poles, while they are weakest in the summer hemisphere and when pressures are higher over the poles. The Westerlies are particularly strong, especially in the southern hemisphere, where there is less land in the middle latitudes to cause the flow pattern to amplify, or become more north-south oriented, which slows the Westerlies down. The strongest westerly winds in the middle latitudes can come in the Roaring Forties, between 40 and 50 degrees latitude.
the Earth were a non-rotating planet, solar heating would cause winds across the mid-latitudes to blow in a poleward direction, away from the subtropical ridge. However, the Coriolis effect caused by the rotation of Earth causes winds to steer to the right of what would otherwise be expected across the Northern Hemisphere, and left of what would be expected in the Southern Hemisphere. This is why winds across the Northern Hemisphere tend to blow from the southwest, but they tend to be from the northwest in the Southern Hemisphere.
The Westerlies can be particularly strong, especially in the Southern Hemisphere, where there is less land in the middle latitudes to cause the progression of west to east winds to slow down. In the Southern hemisphere, because of the stormy and cloudy conditions, it is usual to refer to the Westerlies as the Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties and Shrieking Sixties according to the varying degrees of latitude.

QUESTION: 60

Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the kraisthmus between the gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following is not a feature of “value added tax”?

A.

It is multi-point destination-based system of taxation.

B.

It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the productiondistribution chain.

C.

It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer.

D.

It is basically a subject of the central government and the state governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation.

Solution:

Value Added Tax (VAT) is a multistage sales tax with credit for taxes paid on business purchases. As the economy grew, business complexities led to the taxation structure towards its own peril. This warranted a revision of the existing taxation. For achieving this, the government introduced a single rate of excise (CENVAT) as a major step and bought in a fundamental rationalization in the tax structure and levy. Features of VAT are:
1. Uniform schedule rates of VAT for all states. This would make the tax system simple and uniform and prevent unhealthy tax competition among states.
2. The provisions of input tax credit would help in prevent cascading effect tax.
3. The provisions of self assessment by dealers would reduce harassment small traders with turn over upto Rs 5 lakh would be exempt from the provisions of VAT.
4. The zero – rating of exports would increase the competitiveness of Indian exports.Sales tax / VAT is basically a state subject, the central government is playing the role of facilitator for successful implementation of this significant reform measures.
Whether it be Sales Tax of Value Added Tax it increases the cost of the product bought by the consumers and as such it is ultimately be borne by the consumer .

QUESTION: 62

A “closed economy’’ is an economy in which?

A.

The money supply is fully controlled.

B.

Deficit financing takes place.

C.

Only exports take place.

D.

Neither exports nor imports take place.

Solution:

What Does Closed Economy Mean?
An economy in which no activity is conducted with outside economies. A closed economy is self-sufficient, meaning that no imports are brought in and no exports are sent out. The goal is to provide consumers with everything that they need from within the economy's borders.
A closed economy is the opposite of an open economy, in which a country will conduct trade with outside regions.

QUESTION: 63

When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because?

A.

Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.

B.

Roots are starved of energy.

C.

Tree is infected by soil microbes.

D.

Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.

Solution:

Girdling, also called ring barking or ring-barking, is the complete removal of a strip of bark (consisting of secondary phloem tissue, cork cambium, and cork) from around the entire outer circumference of either a branch or the trunk of a woody plant. Girdling results in the death of wood tissues beyond the damage. A branch completely girdled will fail and when the main trunk of a woody plant is girdled, the entire plant will likely die, if it cannot regenerate itself from below.
After removing bark the phloem also removed. and then the glucose cant reach to roots. water move through xylem which is confined to middle of stem remain unaffected.

QUESTION: 64

​The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?

A.

It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian federation.

B.

It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia summit.

C.

It is a treaty between the Russian federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation.

D.

It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade.

Solution:

New START (for Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States of America and the Russian Federation with the formal name of Measures for the Further Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms. It was signed on 8 April 2010 in Prague, and, after ratification, entered into force on 5 February 2011. It is expected to last at least until 2021.

QUESTION: 65

Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats, Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
1. Species richness.
2. Vegetation density.
3. Endemism.
4. Ethno-botanical importance.
5. Threat perception.
6. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions.
​Q. Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

A.

1, 2, and 6.

B.

2, 4 and 6.

C.

1, 3 and 5.

D.

3, 4 and 6.

Solution:

The concept of biodiversity hotspots was first put forward by Myers4 and the Western Ghats of India and Sri Lanka were included among the first 18 global biodiversity hotspots due to high levels of species endemism.
The wet evergreen forests of the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka have distinctive faunas and numerous species form endemic clades whereas the fauna and flora of lowland dry forests seem more similar. This is probably because contiguities between the wet zones over the ice ages might have been lower than between the dry zones.
The Indo-Burma Hotspot, with its unique assemblages of plant and animal communities and threatened and endemic species, and high levels of threat, is a global priority for conservation.

QUESTION: 66

Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of?
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
​3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2.

B.

2 only.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 only.

Solution:

The most important greenhouse gas, apart from water vapour, is carbon dioxide (CO2). Levels have changed over time both naturally and because of humans. Much of the carbon dioxide produced by humans does not stay in the atmosphere but is stored in the oceans or on land in plants and soils. By far the largest carbon store on Earth is in sediments, both on land and in the oceans, and it is held mainly as calcium carbonate (CaCO3). The second biggest store is the deep ocean where carbon occurs mostly as dissolved carbonate (CO32-) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3-). We think that about a third of the carbon dioxide from fossil fuel burning is stored in the oceans and it enters by both physical and biological processes.
As the carbon is heavier than air, not much of carbon dioxide escapes to stratosphere.

QUESTION: 67

In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the?
1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the surface.
​3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2.

B.

2 only.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 only.

Solution:

Upwelling is an oceanographic phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-depleted surface water. The increased availability in upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from five upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area.

QUESTION: 68

If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because?​

A.

The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients.

B.

Prop gules of the trees in a rain forest has poor viability.

C.

The rain forest species are slow-growing.

D.

Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest.

Solution:

EROSION AND ITS EFFECTS - "The loss of trees, which anchor the soil with their roots, causes widespread erosion throughout the tropics. Only a minority of areas have good soils, which after clearing are quickly washed away by the heavy rains. Thus crops yields decline and the people must spend income to import foreign fertilizers or clear additional forest."

QUESTION: 69

The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

A.

It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth.

B.

It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones.

C.

Exotic and invasive species have not been invasive species have not been introduced in this region.

D.

It has less human interference.

Solution:

The Himalayan region, which is rich in vegetative life, possesses varieties that can be found practically from the tropical to tundra regions. Only the altitude influences the distribution of vegetation. In the rest of the country, the type of vegetation is largely determined by the amount of rainfall. Outside the Himalayan region, the country can be divided into three major vegetation regions: the tropical wet evergreen and semi-evergreen forests, the tropical deciduous forests, and the thorn forests and shrubs. Vegetation of the Assam region in the east is luxuriant with evergreen forests, occasional thick clumps of bamboo and tall grasses. The Gangetic plain is largely under cultivation. The Deccan tableland supports vegetation from scrub to mixed deciduous forests. The Malabar region is rich in forest vegetation. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have evergreen, mangrove, beach and diluvial forests. Much of the country's flora originated three million years ago and are unique to the sub-continent.

QUESTION: 70

With reference to India, consider the following central acts:
1. Import and export (control) act, 1947.
2. Mining, and mineral development (regulation) act, 1957.
3. Customs act, 1962.
4. Indian forest act, 1927.
​Q. Which of the above acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?

A.

1 and 3 only.

B.

2, 3 and 4 only.

C.

1, 2, 3 and 4.

D.

None of the above acts.

Solution:

The options 2 and 4 directly affect the biodiversity. However, no option is for 2 and 4. As such the best option is all of the options as Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947 and the Customs Act, 1962 may also have indirect relevance to biodiversity conservation.

QUESTION: 71

Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?

A.

Empirical liberalism.

B.

Existentialism.

C.

Darwin’s theory of evolution.

D.

Dialectical materialism.

Solution:

The notion of class, as it is used by Marxists, differs radically from the notion of class as used in bourgeois social theory. According to modern capitalist thinking, class is an abstract universal defined by the common attributes of its members (i.e., all who make less than $20,000 a year constitute a "lower" class); categories and conceptions that have an existence prior to and independent of the people who make up the class.
For dialectical materialism however, the notion of class includes the development of collective consciousness in a class – arising from the material basis of having in common relations to the labour process and the means of production.
Dialectical Materialism
Dialectical Materialism is a way of understanding reality; whether thoughts, emotions, or the material world. Simply stated, this methodology is the combination of Dialectics and Materialism. The materialist dialectic is the theoretical foundation of Marxism (while being communist is the practice of Marxism).

QUESTION: 72

A layer in the earth’s atmosphere called ionosphere facilities radio communication. Why?
1. Why presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Both foreign direct investment (HDI) and foreign institutional investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?

FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific.

C.

FDI flows only into the secondary market, in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.

D.

FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.

Solution:

Does India need more foreign direct investment?
India doesn't need FDI. To get FDI, you have to install infrastructure first. China is getting 10 times more FDI than India because they have invested in roads and bridges and airports.
Why do you say India doesn't need FDI?
You need infrastructure to manage incoming FDI. You need clear policy.
FDI is not needed in India because we are getting more money from the FIIs. We are getting around $12 billion from them. They are buying in secondary markets and that money gets into the Indian economy. While India gets around FDI worth $5 billion, China gets around $50 billion. They don't have our types of stockmarkets. So FIIs are absent there. In India, when FIIs pump in $12 billion, it means a few Indians have sold their shares to them (the FIIs), so that free cash gets invested somewhere within India by Indians. That money goes into land, buying of new stocks and into banks.

QUESTION: 74

A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is?

A.

To make it pest-resistant.

B.

To improve its taste and nutritive qualities.

C.

To make it drought-resistant.

D.

To make its shelf-life longer.

Solution:

What is Bt Brinjal?
Bt Brinjal is a transgenic brinjal created by inserting a gene cry1Ac from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into Brinjal. This is said to give the Brinjal plant resistance against lepidopteran insects like the Brinjal Fruit and Shoot Borer Leucinodes orbonalis and Fruit Borer Helicoverpa armigera.

QUESTION: 75

With reference to “Aam Admi Bima YojAna’’ consider the following statements?
1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless house-hold.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?

A.

They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency.

B.

They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy.

C.

They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism.

D.

They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process.

Solution:

Benefits of antioxidants:
Destroy the free radicals that damage cells.
Promote the growth of healthy cells.
Protect cells against premature, abnormal aging.
Help fight age-related macular degeneration.
Provide excellent support for the body’s immune system, making it an effective disease preventative.

QUESTION: 77

Regarding the Indus valley civilization, consider the following statements?
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

The earliest production in the Indus Valley Civilization was characterised by well planned cities and houses where religion did not seem to play an active role. The presence of drainage systems and public baths showed advanced standards of hygiene and sanitation and ingenious planning.
Some Indus valley seals show swastikas, which are found in other religions (worldwide) , especially in Indian religions such as Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism. The earliest evidence for elements of Hinduism are alleged to have been present before and during the early Harappan period. Phallic symbols interpreted as the much later Hindu Shiva lingam have been found in the Harappan remains.
Swastika Seals from the Indus Valley Civilization preserved at the British Museum.Many Indus valley seals show animals. One motive shows a horned figure seated in a posture reminiscent of the Lotus position and surrounded by animals was named by early excavators Pashupati (lord of cattle), an epithet of the later Hindu gods Shiva and Rudra.
In view of the large number of figurines found in the Indus valley, some scholars believe that the Harappan people worshipped a Mother goddess symbolizing fertility, a common practice among rural hinduists even today. However, this view has been disputed by S. Clark who sees it as an inadequate explanation of the function and construction of many of the figurines.
There are no religious buildings or evidence of elaborate burials. If there were temples, they have not been identified.
The people of Indus prospered on the foundations of an agriculture based system of irrigation and fertility, maintained by silt-bearing floods . Wheat and six-row barley were grown, as were melon seeds, oil crops like sesame and mustard, and dates (petrified dates have been found in the excavation of the Valley). As for vegetables, the only apparent source was the field pea. The earliest traces of cotton known anywhere in the world have been found in the Valley. The people of Indus may have cultivated rice on the west coast, though this is not exactly certain (there is not enough evidence to prove this statement entirely true). They domesticated a number of animals from local wild species, including dogs and cats, zebu or the humped cattle, short-horns and buffaloes, and possibly pigs, camels, horses and asses (the later three used as transport). They may have domesticated the elephant too, but the evidence for this is also vague; the elephant was represented on several of the excavated Indus seals and its ivory was used for crafts .

QUESTION: 78

The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

A.

Paddy and cotton.

B.

Wheat and jute.

C.

Paddy and jute.

D.

Wheat and cotton.

Solution:

Rice-wheat cropping system (RWCS) is the major cropping system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain (IGP) of India. Major rice-wheat growing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal. However, majority of the 10.5 m ha rice-wheat cropping system are concentrated in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh The four major agroclimatic regions (ACR) of the IGP in India are : (i) Lower Gangetic Plain, (ii) Middle Gangetic Plain, (iii) Upper Gangetic Plain, and (iv) Trans-Gangetic Plain.
The Lower Gangetic plains moist deciduous forests is a tropical moist broadleaf forest ecoregion of Bangladesh and eastern India. The ecoregion covers an area of 254,100 square kilometers (98,100 sq mi), covering most of Bangladesh and the Indian states of West Bengal, Bihar, and Tripura, and extending into adjacent portions of Assam, Uttar Pradesh, and Orissa states.
The major crops of West Bengal and Bangladesh is Rice and Jute. Almost all the Jute production is in West Benagl and Bangladesh.

QUESTION: 79

What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

The Mediterranean climate (Köppen climate classification: Csa) is a particular variety of the subtropical climate found around the Mediterranean Sea, the largest area where this climate type is found, but it also prevails in much of California, in parts of Western and South Australia, in southwestern South Africa, in isolated regions of Central Asia, and in parts of central Chile. The climate is characterized by warm to hot, dry summers and mild to cool, wet winters. Mediterranean climate zones are associated with the five large subtropical high pressure cells of the oceans, the Azores High, South Atlantic High, North Pacific High, South Pacific High, and the Indian Ocean High which cause the dry summers.
Examples of Subtropical semi-desert/desert climate around the world include North Africa: Algiers, Algeria; Alexandria, Egypt; Casablanca, Morocco; Tripoli, Libya; Tunis, Tunisia; Mainland China: Nanjing, Shanghai, Hangzhou, Hefei, Nanchang, Fuzhou, Xiamen, Shenzhen, Guangzhou, Nanning, Changsha, Wuhan, Chongqing, Chengdu

QUESTION: 80

The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

Latitudinal gradient Rapoport's rule and Latitudinal gradients in species diversity Species richness increases from high latitudes to low latitudes.
The peak of the species richness is not at Equator. It is deduced that the peak is between 20-30°N. The tropics fall within this range which is about 24.3 degrees north and south and this attests to the fact that species richness and biodiversity is highest here. The gradient of species richness is asymmetrical about the equator. The level of species richness increase rapidly from the north region but decrease slowly from the equator to southern region.
Factors affecting species richness There is a strong inverse correlation in many groups between species richness and latitude: the farther from the equator, the fewer species can be found, even when compensating for the reduced surface area in higher latitudes due to the spherical geometry of the earth. Equally, as altitude increases, species richness decreases, indicating an effect of area, available energy, isolation and/or zonation (intermediate elevations can receive species from higher and lower).

QUESTION: 82

​The Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to?

A.

Uplift of folded Himalayan series.’

B.

Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas.

C.

Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains.

D.

Both (a) and (b) above.

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Q. ​Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

A.

Andhra Pradesh.

B.

Gujarat.

C.

Karnataka.

D.

Tamil Nadu.

Solution:

West India
The region consists of the predominantly arid to semi-arid region of Saurashtra and Kutch in the North. The region South of that of Cambay and Southern Gujarat makes the northern semi arid region and the southern humid region submerge, though this region itself being the humid to sub humid.
Gujarat is the main producer of tobacco, cotton, and groundnuts in India. Other major food crops produced are rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, Tur, and gram. Gujarat has an agricultural economy; the total crop area amounts to more than one-half of the total land area.

QUESTION: 84

What is “Virtual Private Network”?

A.

It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization.

B.

It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organizations network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted.

C.

It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider.

D.

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct description of virtual private network.

Solution:

A virtual private network (VPN) is a network that uses primarily public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or traveling users access to a central organizational network.
VPNs typically require remote users of the network to be authenticated, and often secure data with encryption technologies to prevent disclosure of private information to unauthorized parties.

QUESTION: 85

The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central Idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 only.

C.

Both 1 and 2.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Solution:

Dharma
The key to the individual and social ethics of Hinduism is the conception of Dharma, whose full implications cannot be conveyed by such English words as religion, duty, or righteousness. Derived from a root, which means to support, the word signifies the law of inner growth by which a person is supported in his present state of evolution and is shown the way to future development. A person’s Dharma is not imposed by society or decreed by an arbitrary god, but is something with which he is born as a result of his actions in previous lives. Dharma determines a man’s proper attitude toward the outer world and governs his mental and physical reactions in a given situation. It is his code of honour.
Rita, Sanskrit (“truth” or “order”), in Indian religion and philosophy, the cosmic order mentioned in the Vedas, the ancient sacred scriptures of India. As Hinduism developed from the ancient Vedic religion, the concept of rita led to the doctrines of dharma (duty) and karma (accumulated effects of good and bad actions). Rita is the physical order of the universe, the order of the sacrifice, and the moral law of the world. Because of rita, the sun and moon pursue their daily journeys across the sky, and the seasons proceed in regular movement. Vedic religion features the belief that rita was guarded by Varuna, the god-sovereign, who was assisted by Mitra, the god of honour, and that the proper performance of sacrifices to the gods was necessary to guarantee its continuance. Violation (anrita) of the established order by incorrect or improper behaviour, even if unintentional, constituted sin and required careful expiation.

QUESTION: 86

In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
​3. It does not contain sulphur.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

2 only.

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Solution:

Brent Crude is the biggest of the many major classifications of crude oil consisting of Brent Crude, Brent Sweet Light Crude, Oseberg, Ekofisk, and Forties (BFOE). Brent Crude is sourced from the North Sea. The Brent Crude oil marker is also known as Brent Blend, London Brent and Brent petroleum. It is used to price two thirds of the world's internationally traded crude oil supplies.
Brent blend is a light crude oil, though not as light as WTI. It contains approximately 0.37% of sulphur, classifying it as sweet crude, yet again not as sweet as WTI. Brent is suitable for production of petrol and middle distillates. It is typically refined in Northwest Europe.

QUESTION: 87

The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to​

A.

Slow down the speed of neutrons.

B.

Increase the speed of neutrons.

C.

Cool down the reactor.

D.

Stop the nuclear reaction.

Solution:

The heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor. It is used to slow the neutrons being directed at the fissionable material, by means of the molecules of the moderator physicaly impacting the incoming neutrons and absorbing some of the kenetic energy they posses, thus slowing them down, in the same way that two billiard balls impacting each other would slow down the incoming one (or both if they were both moving). The reason that the neutrons have to be slowed is that most fissionable materials are more likely to absorb thermal neutrons (2.2km/s) than fast neutrons (14,000km/s).

QUESTION: 88

In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The president of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the prime minister’s 15-point programme.
​Q. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

India is home to lakhs of person with disabilities, what are the benefits available to them under the law ?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government- run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
​3. Ramps in public buildings.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

Education for Persons with Disabilities 1.Education is the most effective vehicle of social and economic empowerment. In keeping with the spirit of the Article 21A of the Constitution guaranteeing education as a fundamental right and Section 26 of the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995, free and compulsory education has to be provided to all children with disabilities up to the minimum age of 18 years.
Persons with Disabilities are entitled to a Barrier-Free Environment. (i) In transport :
* By arranging easy access.
* By adapting toilets in transport in such a way as to permit the wheelchair users to use the them conveniently. (ii) on the road :
* By installation of auditory signals of red lights in the public roads.
* By causing curve cuts and slopes for the easy access of wheel-chair users.
* By engraving on the surface of the Zebra-crossing.
* By installing warning signals at appropriate places.
(iii) In built-up environment :
* By construction of ramps with hand-rails.
* By adaptation of toilets for wheel-chair users.
* By installation of Braille symbols/auditory signals in elevators or lifts.
43.Schemes for preferential allotment of land for certain purposes.- The appropriate Governments and local authorities shall by notification frame schemes in favour of persons with disabilities, for the preferential allotment of land at concessional rates for
(a) house;
(b) setting up business;
(c) setting up of special recreation centres;
(d) establishment of special schools;
(e) establishment of research centres;
(f) establishment of factories by entrepreneurs with disabilities.

QUESTION: 90

With what purpose is the government of India promoting the concept of “Mega food parks”?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 only.

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the consolidated fund of India must come from?​

A.

The president of India.

B.

The parliament of India.

C.

The prime minister of India.

D.

The union finance minister.

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

All revenues received by the union government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of government business are credited to the?

A.

Contingency fund of India.

B.

Public account.

C.

Consolidated fund of India.

D.

Deposits and advances fund.

Solution:

Article 283. (1)
Subject to the provisions of article 267 and to the provisions of this Chapter (i.e. Chapter I of Part XII of the Constitution) with respect to the assignment of the whole or part of the net proceeds of certain taxes and duties to States, all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by the Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled "the Consolidated Fund of India", and all revenues received by the Government of a State, all loans raised by that Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances and all moneys received by that Government in repayment of loans shall form one consolidated fund to be entitled "the Consolidated Fund of the State".

QUESTION: 93

Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the con-summers and the selfemployed. The service/services rendered under micro- finance is/are:
1. Credit facilities.
2. Savings faculties.
3. Insurance facilities.
4. Fund transfer faculties.
​Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given the lists:

A.

1 only.

B.

1 and 4 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1,2 ,3 and 4.

Solution:

Micro finance is the provision of a wide range of financial services, such as deposits, loans, and insurance. The basic principle of micro finance is a provision of a package of financial services to low-income households. Microcredit (which is a component of micro finance) is a provision of credit facilities to low income household. The basic principle of micro credit is to give poor people access to capital and exploit their capacities and potentialities for economic development. The fundamental difference between these two terms are understanding of poor people economy and livelihood conditions. Thus, microfinance covers the acute need of poor people's financial services and protect from being further vulnerable but micro credit seems to be more technical and standalone approach to provide only credit services.

QUESTION: 94

Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategic-ally significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?

A.

It was the hot theatre during the Second World War.

B.

Its location between the Asian powers of china and India.

C.

It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the cold war period.

D.

Its location between the pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.

Solution:

Today the term Southeast Asia refers to that mass of land and archipelagos that are covered by the states of Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam.
Apart from its obvious economic importance and the fabulous mineral wealth that its marine territories are supposed to hold, Southeast Asia is also of global strategic importance. It is the bridge between the Indian and Pacific Oceans and controls vital sea-lanes that give China, Japan and the US Pacific Coast access to the Middle East and the eastern coasts of Africa. The oil tankers and freighters that pass daily without fail through these sea-lanes, to a significant extent, buttress Japan's status as an industrial power.
ASEAN’s geostrategic importance stems from many factors, including: the strategic location of member countries, the large shares of global trade that pass through regional waters, and the alliances and partnerships which the United States shares with ASEAN member states.

QUESTION: 95

A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain transfats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?
1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2 and 3.

Solution:

What is Trans fats?
Trans fats are also known as hydrogenated fats. They are made by adding hydrogen to liquid vegetable oil under pressure. This results in a stiffer fat, a fat which is hard at room temperature. For example, vanaspati is a trans fat. They are artificial, they are man-made. All the trans fats are essentially artificial, only, very minute quantities of trans fats are found in animal meat and some dairy products. How do trans fats harm?
They harm by increasing the cholesterol levels in the blood. They also increase other harmful fats in the blood. They also bring down the "good cholesterol" the helpful cholesterol, or HDL cholesterol, in the blood. That means that trans fats work both ways, in spoiling your blood fat levels, by raising the harmful lipids and bringing down the good lipids. They block the arteries and prevent blood from flowing through them.
In women, trans fats actually doubles your risk of heart disease! Trans Fats also leads to decreased cognitive function of the brain, in people more than 65 years of age.
Trans fats are also very harmful to the children. It has been shown that children as young as 8, and 9 years have high cholesterol and early stages of clogged arteries.
Trans fats are found in biscuits, breads, confectionaries, fast-foods, fried food items, including namkeens, fried sweets, many cakes and pastries, ready to eat meals, fast foods, junk foods, microwave meals and snacks and much of the street, restaurant and hotel food, etc; Many halwais, street vendors also use vanaspati instead of ghee.

QUESTION: 96

Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “mahatma Gandhi national rural employment guarantee act” ?

A.

Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households.

B.

Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households.’

C.

Adult members of households of all backward communities.

D.

Adult members of any household.

Solution:

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is an Indian job guarantee scheme, enacted by legislation on August 25, 2005. The scheme provides a legal guarantee for one hundred days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wage of 120 (US$2.68) per day in 2009 prices. The Central government outlay for scheme is 40,000 crore (US$8.92 billion) in FY 2010-11.
This act was introduced with an aim of improving the purchasing power of the rural people, primarily semi or un-skilled work to people living in rural India, whether or not they are below the poverty line. Around one-third of the stipulated work force is women. The law was initially called the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) but was renamed on 2 October 2009.

QUESTION: 97

With reference to look east policy of India, consider the following statements ?
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of cold war.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in southeast and East Asia.
​Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

3 only.

D.

1,2 and 3.

Solution:

India's "Look East" policy was developed and enacted during the governments of Prime Ministers P.V. Narasimha Rao and Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Along with economic liberalisation and moving away from Cold War-era policies and activities, India's strategy has focused on forging close economic and commercial ties, increasing strategic and security cooperation and the emphasis of historic cultural and ideological links. India sought to create and expand regional markets for trade, investments and industrial development. It also began strategic and military cooperation with nations concerned by the expansion of China's economic and strategic influence.

QUESTION: 98

When the annual Union budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

A.

The budget is modified and presented again.

B.

The budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions.

C.

The union finance minister is asked to resign.

D.

The prime minister submits the resignation of council of ministers.

Solution:

The respective pm of country submit his or her resignation as he/she unable to prove his /her majority in the house.

QUESTION: 99

Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

A.

To vote in public elections.

B.

To develop the scientific temper.

C.

To safeguard public property.

D.

To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals.

Solution:

The following are the Fundamental Duties prescribed by the Constitution of the nation under PART [IV-A] to its every citizen :
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. (d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
(g) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.
(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
(i) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
(j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.

QUESTION: 100

With reference to the finance commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?​

A.

It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.

B.

It facilities the proper distributor of finances among the public section undertakings.

C.

It ensures transparency in financial administration.

D.

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in his context.

Solution:

The Commission shall make recommendations as to the following matters, namely :-
(i) the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
(ii) the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to be paid to the States which are in need of assistance by way of grants-in-aid of their revenues under article 275 of the Constitution for purposes other than those specified in the provisos to clause (1) of that article; and
(iii) the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the