That's because women were pretty much property in the Old Testament (not the case nowadays anymore of course) and were not mentioned very often. But, I have a heeling that you're just trying to be silly now. BUH THA'S OHKAY

there are plenty of verses in the new testiment mentioning homosexuality

1 Corinthians 6:9-11
New International Version (NIV)
9 Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men[a] 10 nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. 11 And that is what some of you were. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God.

I'm glad you brought that up! If you are curious as to a scholarly discussion on the translations of those words and the reviewable context of those words, I suggest you read : [url deleted]

If that link doesn't work, then I'll simply refernce some of its points. Firstly, which bible translation you have is important. Your quotation says "men sleeping with men" which is very direct. But another bible version says the following... and here I quote the website link.:

"Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, sodomites, thieves, the greedy, drunkards, revilers, robbers—none of these will inherit the kingdom of God."

[The website goes on to say]
For our purposes, of course, the two key terms here are “male prostitutes” and “sodomites.” It may well be the case, however, that these are not the most appropriate translations of the underlying Greek in the text.4
The Greek word translated as “male prostitutes” is the adjective malakoi (plural of malakos). This adjective means “soft,” as in a “soft” bed or a “soft” pillow. When applied to people, it can mean “lazy,” “self-indulgent,” “cowardly,” “lacking in self-control,” and the like. When applied to males, it generally refers to what are commonly regarded as feminine-like “weaknesses:” such men might be regarded as “soft,” “flabby,” “weak,” “cowardly,” “unmanly,” or “effeminate.” But to call a male “effeminate” might or might not carry implications of homosexuality. Sometimes it did, but certainly not always.... ETC

who knows what exactly the original text meant, so much was probably lost or changed when translated from hebrew and every year different translations are released and things are changed. i appreciate having a civil conversation with someone who's first response was to resort to name calling. i think its safe to say everyone is entitled to an opinion and from other peoples opinions you learn more, thanks for the depth on how things are translated from version to version! i give my regards to you and hope you have a great life!

That's because women were pretty much property in the Old Testament (not the case nowadays anymore of course) and were not mentioned very often. But, I have a heeling that you're just trying to be silly now. BUH THA'S OHKAY