The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂

Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.

It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.

Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.

The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.

You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).

Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.

Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!

Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!

Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year

Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.

It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.

The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.

So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.

How can you make the best use of it?

Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.

Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?

The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛

DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD

You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.

Feedback talks about daily test results.

Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.

Would like to end on this quote:

Either you run the day or the day runs you.

Are you ready? Let’s start!

Important Note

Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂

You can post your comments in the given format

(1) Your Score

(2) Matrix Meter

(3) New Learning from the Test

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Question 1 of 30

1. Question

Which of the following is observed during Counter cyclical Fiscal policy:

Reduced spending during boom period

Reduced taxes during boom period

Increase taxes during recession

Increase spending during recession

Select the code from following:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2 and 4 only

Correct

Explanation:

Procyclical fiscal policy implies – governments choosing to increase government spending and reduce taxes during an economic boom, but reduce spending and increase taxes during a recession.

Countercylical fiscal policy implies – reducing spending and raising taxes during a boom period, and increasing spending and cutting taxes during a recession. (opposite of procyclical)

Incorrect

Explanation:

Procyclical fiscal policy implies – governments choosing to increase government spending and reduce taxes during an economic boom, but reduce spending and increase taxes during a recession.

Countercylical fiscal policy implies – reducing spending and raising taxes during a boom period, and increasing spending and cutting taxes during a recession. (opposite of procyclical)

Question 2 of 30

2. Question

The receipts and expenditures to the Government of India are divided into Revenue and Capital. Which of the following receipts to the government of India come under the Revenue Receipts?

Loan Recovery by the Government

Profits and dividends from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)

Small savings Schemes

Interests received by the government out of the loans forwarded by it

Grants received by government

Borrowings by the government.

Select the code from following:

1, 5 and 6 only

2, 3 and 6 only

1, 4 and 6 only

2, 4 and 5 only

Correct

Budget of the Government is divided into Revenue and Capital: Receipts and Expenditure.

Revenue:

Every form of money generation in the nature of income, earnings are revenue for a firm or a government which do not increase financial liabilities of the government, i.e., the tax incomes, non-tax incomes along with foreign grants.

Revenue Receipts:

Revenue receipts of a government are of two kinds—Tax Revenue Receipts and Non-tax Revenue Receipts

Tax Revenue Receipts: This includes all money earned by the government via the different taxes the government collects, i.e., all direct and indirect tax collections.

Non-tax Revenue Receipts

This includes all money earned by the government from sources other than taxes. In India they are:(i) Profits and dividends which the government gets from its public sector undertakings (PSUs).(ii) Interests recieved by the government out of all loans forwarded by it, be it inside the country (i.e., internal lending) or outside the country (i.e., external lending). It means this income might be in both domestic and foreign currencies.(iii) Fiscal services also generate incomes for the government, i.e., currency printing, stamp printing, coinage and medals minting, etc.(iv) General Services also earn money for the government as the power distribution, irrigation, banking, insurance, community services, etc.(v) Fees, Penalties and Fines received by the government.(vi) Grants which the governments receives—it is always external in the case of the Central Government and internal in the case of state governments

Capital Receipts:

All non-revenue receipts of a government are known as capital receipts. Suchreceipts are for investment purposes and supposed to be spent on plan-development by a government.

Loan Recovery – lent to states, PSUs, etcs

Borrowings by the government both internal and external borrowings: From banks, RBI, World bank, IMF, etc.

Budget of the Government is divided into Revenue and Capital: Receipts and Expenditure.

Revenue:

Every form of money generation in the nature of income, earnings are revenue for a firm or a government which do not increase financial liabilities of the government, i.e., the tax incomes, non-tax incomes along with foreign grants.

Revenue Receipts:

Revenue receipts of a government are of two kinds—Tax Revenue Receipts and Non-tax Revenue Receipts

Tax Revenue Receipts: This includes all money earned by the government via the different taxes the government collects, i.e., all direct and indirect tax collections.

Non-tax Revenue Receipts

This includes all money earned by the government from sources other than taxes. In India they are:(i) Profits and dividends which the government gets from its public sector undertakings (PSUs).(ii) Interests recieved by the government out of all loans forwarded by it, be it inside the country (i.e., internal lending) or outside the country (i.e., external lending). It means this income might be in both domestic and foreign currencies.(iii) Fiscal services also generate incomes for the government, i.e., currency printing, stamp printing, coinage and medals minting, etc.(iv) General Services also earn money for the government as the power distribution, irrigation, banking, insurance, community services, etc.(v) Fees, Penalties and Fines received by the government.(vi) Grants which the governments receives—it is always external in the case of the Central Government and internal in the case of state governments

Capital Receipts:

All non-revenue receipts of a government are known as capital receipts. Suchreceipts are for investment purposes and supposed to be spent on plan-development by a government.

Loan Recovery – lent to states, PSUs, etcs

Borrowings by the government both internal and external borrowings: From banks, RBI, World bank, IMF, etc.

Option A: is Monetized deficit is the part of the Fiscal deficit which was provided by RBI.

Question 4 of 30

4. Question

Recently, NK Singh committee submitted its recommendations on revision of FRBM Act 2003. Which of these was not one of them?

Combined debt to GDP ratio of Centre and States to be 40% by 2023

Fiscal deficit to be reduced from current 3.5% to 2.5% by 2023

Reduce revenue deficit by 0.25% each year to reach 0.8% by 2023

All the above options are correct.

Correct

NK Singh committee recommended: Combined debt to GDP ratio of Centre and States to be 60% (40% for Centre and 20% for States) by 2023. Other two options are correct.

Incorrect

NK Singh committee recommended: Combined debt to GDP ratio of Centre and States to be 60% (40% for Centre and 20% for States) by 2023. Other two options are correct.

Question 5 of 30

5. Question

External Debt in India comprises of which of the following components?

NRI Deposits

Commercial borrowings

Long term external borrowings

Bilateral and Multilateral loans

Trade credit

Select the code from following:

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

All of the above

Correct

All the above come under External Debt. Both Government and Commercial borrowings along with NRI deposits come under External Debt.

Incorrect

All the above come under External Debt. Both Government and Commercial borrowings along with NRI deposits come under External Debt.

Question 6 of 30

6. Question

Which of the following is the correct definition of Pump priming?

It is the action taken to stimulate an economy, usually during a recessionary period, through government spending and interest rate and tax reductions

It is defined as a situation where governmental deficits' spur investment. In this, government spending actually increases a demand for goods.

It is situation where the net effect of taxation and public spending is neutral: neither stimulating nor dampening.

It is situation where inflation pushes income into higher tax brackets.

Correct

Option A: Pump priming – It is the action taken to stimulate an economy, usually during a recessionary period, through government spending and interest rate and tax reductions

Option B: Crowding in: It is defined as a situation where governmental deficits’ spur investment. In this, government spending actually increases a demand for goods.

Option C: Fiscal Neutrality: It is situation where the net effect of taxation and public spending is neutral: neither stimulating nor dampening.

Option D: Fiscal Drag: It is situation where inflation pushes income into higher tax brackets.

Incorrect

Option A: Pump priming – It is the action taken to stimulate an economy, usually during a recessionary period, through government spending and interest rate and tax reductions

Option B: Crowding in: It is defined as a situation where governmental deficits’ spur investment. In this, government spending actually increases a demand for goods.

Option C: Fiscal Neutrality: It is situation where the net effect of taxation and public spending is neutral: neither stimulating nor dampening.

Option D: Fiscal Drag: It is situation where inflation pushes income into higher tax brackets.

Question 7 of 30

7. Question

Fifteenth Finance Commission has been constituted by the President recently. Which of the following is not a term of reference of the Commission?

To examine whether revenue deficit grants be provided at all

Promoting ease of doing business

To propose measurable performance-based incentives to States

All the above are terms of reference

Correct

Terms of Reference of Fifteenth Finance Commission:

To examine whether revenue deficit grants be provided at all

To consider the impact of [the] fiscal situation of the Union government of substantially enhanced devolution by the Fourteenth Finance Commission, coupled with continuing imperative of the national development programme including New India 2022.

To look at the conditions that may be imposed by the Central government while providing consent to States when they borrow under Article 293(3).

To propose measurable performance-based incentives to States in respect of a number of areas such as the implementation of flagship schemes, progress towards replacement rate of population growth, a control or lack of it in incurring expenditure on populist measures

Promoting ease of doing business

Incorrect

Terms of Reference of Fifteenth Finance Commission:

To examine whether revenue deficit grants be provided at all

To consider the impact of [the] fiscal situation of the Union government of substantially enhanced devolution by the Fourteenth Finance Commission, coupled with continuing imperative of the national development programme including New India 2022.

To look at the conditions that may be imposed by the Central government while providing consent to States when they borrow under Article 293(3).

To propose measurable performance-based incentives to States in respect of a number of areas such as the implementation of flagship schemes, progress towards replacement rate of population growth, a control or lack of it in incurring expenditure on populist measures

Promoting ease of doing business

Question 8 of 30

8. Question

Twin deficit which is often talked about with reference to Indian Economic situation, combines which two deficits?

Fiscal deficit and Primary deficit

Fiscal deficit and Revenue deficit

Fiscal deficit and Current Account Deficit

Fiscal deficit and Monetary Deficit.

Correct

Twin deficit includes: Fiscal deficit and Current Account Deficit

Incorrect

Twin deficit includes: Fiscal deficit and Current Account Deficit

Question 9 of 30

9. Question

Small savings schemes receipts by the Government of India are credited into which of the following?

National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) of Consolidated of India

National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) of Public Account of India

National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) of Contingency Fund of India

They are credit into a separate Escrow account.

Correct

Money goes into National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) of Public Account of India and is invested in Central and State Government Securities. It is administered by Government of India, Ministry of Finance.

Incorrect

Money goes into National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) of Public Account of India and is invested in Central and State Government Securities. It is administered by Government of India, Ministry of Finance.

Question 10 of 30

10. Question

With reference to rural credit in India, consider the following statements:

The share of non-institutional credit is greater than the share of institutional credit for farmers in India.

Among the institutional credit agencies, NABARD is the biggest contributor of direct loan to farmers.

Ratio of agricultural credit to agricultural GDP has increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

Correct

Statement 1 is not correct. It was during the first decade after independence (1951-52) that moneylenders and others had more than 90 % share in rural credit. Currently their relative share has comedown to almost 40 %. To a large extent, they have been replaced by institutional agencies.

Statement 2 is not correct. NABARD does not extend any direct loan to farmers. It extends loans tocooperatives and commercial banks who offer loans to farmers and others in rural areas.

Incorrect

Statement 1 is not correct. It was during the first decade after independence (1951-52) that moneylenders and others had more than 90 % share in rural credit. Currently their relative share has comedown to almost 40 %. To a large extent, they have been replaced by institutional agencies.

Statement 2 is not correct. NABARD does not extend any direct loan to farmers. It extends loans tocooperatives and commercial banks who offer loans to farmers and others in rural areas.

Question 11 of 30

11. Question

Which of the following is not a correct eligibility criterion for Pradhan Mantri Shram – Yogi Maandhan Yojana (PM-SYM)?

The unorganised sector workers, with income of less than Rs 15,000 per month

Unorganised workers who belong to the entry age of 18-35 years

He or she should not be an income tax payer.

Workers should not be covered under New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).

Correct

Entry age should be between 18 to 40 years

Incorrect

Entry age should be between 18 to 40 years

Question 12 of 30

12. Question

Consider the following statements related to SEZ

It is a duty free enclave to be treated as foreign territory for the purpose of trade operations and duties and tariffs.

The corporation in SEZs will not have to pay any income tax on their profits for the first five years and only 50% of the tax for 2 more years thereafter.

Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct

The incentives and facilities offered to the units in SEZs for attracting investments into the SEZs, including foreign investment include:-

100% Income Tax exemption on export income for SEZ units under Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act for first 5 years, 50% for next 5 years thereafter and 50% of the ploughed back export profit for next 5 years.

Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT)

Exemption from Central Sales Tax, Exemption from Service Tax and Exemption from State sales tax. These have now subsumed into GST and supplies to SEZs are zero rated under IGST Act, 2017.

Other levies as imposed by the respective State Governments.

Single window clearance for Central and State level approvals.

Incorrect

The incentives and facilities offered to the units in SEZs for attracting investments into the SEZs, including foreign investment include:-

100% Income Tax exemption on export income for SEZ units under Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act for first 5 years, 50% for next 5 years thereafter and 50% of the ploughed back export profit for next 5 years.

Exemption from Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT)

Exemption from Central Sales Tax, Exemption from Service Tax and Exemption from State sales tax. These have now subsumed into GST and supplies to SEZs are zero rated under IGST Act, 2017.

Other levies as imposed by the respective State Governments.

Single window clearance for Central and State level approvals.

Question 13 of 30

13. Question

Project Sashakt is related to?

Education

Health

Budget management

Banking

Correct

A comprehensive plan – Project Sashakt was announced by the government for the resolution of stressed assets in banking sector.

Incorrect

A comprehensive plan – Project Sashakt was announced by the government for the resolution of stressed assets in banking sector.

These methods are combined with natural insect management methods when required.

ZBNF is better than Organic Farming:

Organic agriculture often involves addition of materials required in bulk and have to be purchased.

These are large amounts of manure, vermicompost and other materials.

These turn out to be expensive for most small farm holders.

Andhra Pradesh became the first state to implement the ZBNF policy. Hence Statement 3 is wrong.

Question 16 of 30

16. Question

With reference to Goods and Services Tax Network, consider the following statements:

It is a not-for-profit company governed under section 8 of the companies Act.

Currently the centre holds 24.5% equity and the States (including UTs Delhi and Pondicherry) hold 24.5% equity in GSTN.

Balance 51% equity is with non Government financial institutions.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

1,2 and 3

2 and 3 only

1 only

1 and 3 only

Correct

Statements 2 and 3 are wrong: It has been decided recently that the entire 51% equity held by the Non-Government Institutions in GSTN will be acquired equally by the Centre and the State Governments.

Hence the restructure GSTN will have 100% government ownership equally distributed between the Centre (50%) and the States (50%).

Incorrect

Statements 2 and 3 are wrong: It has been decided recently that the entire 51% equity held by the Non-Government Institutions in GSTN will be acquired equally by the Centre and the State Governments.

Hence the restructure GSTN will have 100% government ownership equally distributed between the Centre (50%) and the States (50%).

Question 17 of 30

17. Question

The name “Tax heavens” often seen in news, what does it indicate?

A country that offers for its citizens and businesses with little or no tax liability

A country that offers foreign individuals and businesses little or no tax liability

A country that offers high levels of secrecy and share limited or no financial information with foreign tax authorities

All of the above

Correct

Explanation: A tax haven is a country that offers foreign individuals and businesses little or no tax liability in a politically and economically static environment. Tax havens also share limited or no financial information with foreign tax authorities but not necessarily.

Incorrect

Explanation: A tax haven is a country that offers foreign individuals and businesses little or no tax liability in a politically and economically static environment. Tax havens also share limited or no financial information with foreign tax authorities but not necessarily.

Question 18 of 30

18. Question

Which among the following is/are the instruments of secondary capital market?

Bonds

Initial Public Offering

Commercial Papers

Select the correct option from below

1 and 3 only

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Correct

Initial Public offering is done in the primary market. The acquired shares in the Initial Public offering can be sold in the Secondary market.

Incorrect

Initial Public offering is done in the primary market. The acquired shares in the Initial Public offering can be sold in the Secondary market.

Question 19 of 30

19. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Ways and Means Advances (WMA):

It was introduced by the RBI in 1997.

The WMA scheme was designed to meet temporary mismatches in the receipts and payments of the Central government.

Interest rate for WMA is currently charged at the repo rate

The limits for WMA are mutually decided by the RBI and the Government of India.

Which of the given statements are correct?

1,2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1,2 and 4 only

1,2, 3 and 4

Correct

All the given statements are correct.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in consultation with the government of India has set the limits for Ways and Means Advances (WMA) for the first half of the financial year 2019-20 (April 2019 to September 2019) at Rs 75000 crore.

The Reserve Bank of India gives temporary loan facilities to the centre and state governments as a banker to government. This temporary loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA).

Incorrect

All the given statements are correct.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in consultation with the government of India has set the limits for Ways and Means Advances (WMA) for the first half of the financial year 2019-20 (April 2019 to September 2019) at Rs 75000 crore.

The Reserve Bank of India gives temporary loan facilities to the centre and state governments as a banker to government. This temporary loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA).

Question 20 of 30

20. Question

With reference to the norms for the priority sector lending, consider the following statements:

Loans to the agricultural sector will be categorised as direct and indirect having separate targets.

Foreign banks with less than 20 branches will be exempted from priority sector lending.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Statement 1 is wrong: The distinction between direct and indirect lending to agriculture has been removed enabling more funds to flow to farm infrastructure such as warehouses, irrigation projects, and even cold storage. Now even bank loans to food and agro processing units will form part of agriculture.

Statement 2 is wrong: The priority sector rulings also apply to foreign banks. However for the bankswith less than 20 branches, total priority sector is 34% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit while it is 40% for other banks.

Incorrect

Statement 1 is wrong: The distinction between direct and indirect lending to agriculture has been removed enabling more funds to flow to farm infrastructure such as warehouses, irrigation projects, and even cold storage. Now even bank loans to food and agro processing units will form part of agriculture.

Statement 2 is wrong: The priority sector rulings also apply to foreign banks. However for the bankswith less than 20 branches, total priority sector is 34% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit while it is 40% for other banks.

Question 21 of 30

21. Question

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Places in News Countries

Jebel Jais – Saudi Arabia

Tijuana – Venezuela

Hajin – Syria

Select the correct code:

1 and 3

1 and 2

2 Only

3 Only

Correct

Jebel Jais is a mountain of the North-Western Hajar range in Ras Al Khaimah, United Arab Emirates and also in the Musandam Governorate of Oman. The summit has an elevation of 1,934 m (6,345 ft). The highest point of this mountain is located on the Omani side, but a secondary hill (in the same mountain) west of this peak is considered the highest point of the United Arab Emirates, at 1,892 m (6,207 ft) above sea level. Since the summit is in the Omani side, Jabal Yibir at 1,527 m (0.949 mi) is the highest peak in the UAE.

Tijuana is the largest city of both Baja California State and the Baja Peninsula (Mexico).

Hajin is a small city in eastern Syria, administratively part of the Deir ez-Zor Governorate, located along the Euphrates River, south of Deir ez-Zor.

Incorrect

Jebel Jais is a mountain of the North-Western Hajar range in Ras Al Khaimah, United Arab Emirates and also in the Musandam Governorate of Oman. The summit has an elevation of 1,934 m (6,345 ft). The highest point of this mountain is located on the Omani side, but a secondary hill (in the same mountain) west of this peak is considered the highest point of the United Arab Emirates, at 1,892 m (6,207 ft) above sea level. Since the summit is in the Omani side, Jabal Yibir at 1,527 m (0.949 mi) is the highest peak in the UAE.

Tijuana is the largest city of both Baja California State and the Baja Peninsula (Mexico).

Hajin is a small city in eastern Syria, administratively part of the Deir ez-Zor Governorate, located along the Euphrates River, south of Deir ez-Zor.

Question 22 of 30

22. Question

Consider the following statements with the term ‘Timberline’

Timberline can climb up as well as climb down.

An alpine timberline is the highest elevation that sustains trees.

Select the correct statements

1 Only

2 Only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

The tree line is the edge of the habitat at which trees are capable of growing. It is found at high elevations and high latitudes. Beyond the tree line, trees cannot tolerate the environmental conditions (usually cold temperatures or associated lack of available moisture). The tree line is sometimes distinguished from a lower timberline or forest line, which is the line below which trees form a forest with a closed canopy.

Timberline can climb up as well as climb down. Due to the effects of global warming, the timberline in Canadas Arctic is much higher than it was in the past.

Sometimes, the timberline can be lowered by natural causes such as fire. Other times, the timberline can be lowered by human activity.

Pollution can also lower the timberline. Trees need air, water, and soil to survive. If one of those elements is contaminated, entire groves of trees can die. The copper and nickel smelter on the Kola Peninsula in Russia is one of the largest producers of heavy metals in Europe.

The alpine timberline marks the point where the elevation is too high, and usually too cold, for tree growth.

Incorrect

The tree line is the edge of the habitat at which trees are capable of growing. It is found at high elevations and high latitudes. Beyond the tree line, trees cannot tolerate the environmental conditions (usually cold temperatures or associated lack of available moisture). The tree line is sometimes distinguished from a lower timberline or forest line, which is the line below which trees form a forest with a closed canopy.

Timberline can climb up as well as climb down. Due to the effects of global warming, the timberline in Canadas Arctic is much higher than it was in the past.

Sometimes, the timberline can be lowered by natural causes such as fire. Other times, the timberline can be lowered by human activity.

Pollution can also lower the timberline. Trees need air, water, and soil to survive. If one of those elements is contaminated, entire groves of trees can die. The copper and nickel smelter on the Kola Peninsula in Russia is one of the largest producers of heavy metals in Europe.

The alpine timberline marks the point where the elevation is too high, and usually too cold, for tree growth.

Question 23 of 30

23. Question

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘World Food Programme’

It is the UN agency focused on hunger alleviation and food security.

It is governed by a 36-member Executive Board.

It implements school feeding programmes worldwide.

Select the correct statements

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

All of the above

Correct

World Food Programme is the UN agency focused on hunger alleviation and food security. Globally, it responds to emergencies making sure food reaches where it is needed, especially in times of civil strife and natural disasters. In India, WFP has moved from providing direct food aid to providing technical assistance and capacity building services to the Government of India. WFP is focusing on enabling the country’s food-based social safety nets to function more efficiently and effectively in providing food to their target population.

WFP is the largest humanitarian organisation implementing school feeding programmes worldwide and has been doing so for over 50 years. Each year, WFP provides school meals to 18.3 million children across 65 countries, often in the hardest-to-reach areas.

WFP is governed by a 36-member Executive Board. It works closely with its two Rome-based sister organizations, the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations and the International Fund for Agricultural Development. WFP partners with more than 1,000 national and international NGOs to provide food assistance and tackle the underlying causes of hunger.

Incorrect

World Food Programme is the UN agency focused on hunger alleviation and food security. Globally, it responds to emergencies making sure food reaches where it is needed, especially in times of civil strife and natural disasters. In India, WFP has moved from providing direct food aid to providing technical assistance and capacity building services to the Government of India. WFP is focusing on enabling the country’s food-based social safety nets to function more efficiently and effectively in providing food to their target population.

WFP is the largest humanitarian organisation implementing school feeding programmes worldwide and has been doing so for over 50 years. Each year, WFP provides school meals to 18.3 million children across 65 countries, often in the hardest-to-reach areas.

WFP is governed by a 36-member Executive Board. It works closely with its two Rome-based sister organizations, the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations and the International Fund for Agricultural Development. WFP partners with more than 1,000 national and international NGOs to provide food assistance and tackle the underlying causes of hunger.

Question 24 of 30

24. Question

Recently India signed an agreement to join ‘Trans Regional Maritime Network (T-RMN). Consider the following statements.

It will give India the access to information on ships which pass through the Indian Ocean region

It works under the ambit of TIR Carnets

Select the correct statements

1 Only

2 Only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

India Monday signed an ascension pact to the 30-member Trans Regional Maritime Network that will give it an access to the information on ships passing through the Indian Ocean Region.

The pact will give India the access to information on ships which pass through the Indian Ocean region that will greatly help the security forces in keeping a tab on any suspicious activity,

The Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention) is a multilateral treaty to simplify and harmonise the administrative formalities of international road transport.

Incorrect

India Monday signed an ascension pact to the 30-member Trans Regional Maritime Network that will give it an access to the information on ships passing through the Indian Ocean Region.

The pact will give India the access to information on ships which pass through the Indian Ocean region that will greatly help the security forces in keeping a tab on any suspicious activity,

The Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention) is a multilateral treaty to simplify and harmonise the administrative formalities of international road transport.

Question 25 of 30

25. Question

‘ENSURE Portal’ is concerned with

Educational Loans

Financial Inclusion

Digital Literacy

Direct Benefit Transfer

Correct

ENSURE Portal for subsidy payment for activities related to poultry, small ruminants, pigs etc. through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). It comes under the Entrepreneurship Development and Employment Generation (EDEG) component of National Livestock Mission and was developed by NABARD.

Incorrect

ENSURE Portal for subsidy payment for activities related to poultry, small ruminants, pigs etc. through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). It comes under the Entrepreneurship Development and Employment Generation (EDEG) component of National Livestock Mission and was developed by NABARD.

Question 26 of 30

26. Question

Where will you find the maximum production of Rubber in India?

Chotanagpur Plateau Region

Marathwada Region

Dharwad Region

Malabar Region

Correct

Kerala accounts for close to 80% of the overall rubber production in the country followed by Tamil Nadu and North-eastern states.

“Putul Parampara” is a series focusing on developing the classics of puppetry into the northeastern region.

Puppet dance, popularly known as ‘Putula Nach’, was once the most popular form of entertainment, especially for children, but the folk-culture has struggled against the onslaught of modern popular culture.

“Putul Parampara” is a series focusing on developing the classics of puppetry into the northeastern region.

Puppet dance, popularly known as ‘Putula Nach’, was once the most popular form of entertainment, especially for children, but the folk-culture has struggled against the onslaught of modern popular culture.

29. Question

The term ‘Great Dying’, recently in news form boundary between which geological period?

Permian–Triassic

Jurassic-Triassic

Permian-Jurassic

Permian-Devonian

Correct

The mass extinction, known as the “great dying”, occurred around 252m years ago and marked the end of the Permian geologic period. The study of sediments and fossilized creatures show the event was the single greatest calamity ever to befall life on Earth, eclipsing even the extinction of the dinosaurs 65m years ago.

The Permian–Triassic (P–Tr or P–T) extinction event, colloquially known as the Great Dying, the End-Permian Extinction or the Great Permian Extinction, occurred about 252 Ma (million years) ago, forming the boundary between the Permian and Triassic geologic periods, as well as between the Paleozoic and Mesozoic eras.

The mass extinction, known as the “great dying”, occurred around 252m years ago and marked the end of the Permian geologic period. The study of sediments and fossilized creatures show the event was the single greatest calamity ever to befall life on Earth, eclipsing even the extinction of the dinosaurs 65m years ago.

The Permian–Triassic (P–Tr or P–T) extinction event, colloquially known as the Great Dying, the End-Permian Extinction or the Great Permian Extinction, occurred about 252 Ma (million years) ago, forming the boundary between the Permian and Triassic geologic periods, as well as between the Paleozoic and Mesozoic eras.