At 12:49 AM +0000 11/12/00, Michael Haggett wrote:
>More generally: is this a unique example, or do more otherwise identical
>verbs have different accentuation according to mood? (I know the present
>and future tense of liquid verbs is differentiated). It would, for example,
>be very useful if second person plural imperatives were differentiated from
>their indicative equivalent ... but they aren't. If this verb can be
>differentiated, why not others?

I've already responded concerning the two accentuations of FOBHQHTE; I
don't think, however, that one can so simply generalize; the subjunctive
quite often has a circumflex precisely because it is a contraction of a
stem vowel and an W or H; but note the difference between subjunctive
present of LUW where the stem is simply LU- and the subjunctive present of
POIEW, where the stem is POIE- Here I'm using beta-code convention to
indicate circumflex over a vowel by = following the vowel or diphthong in
question, acute over a vowel by / following the vowel or diphthong in
question: