I noticed the modern greek translates(?) this as: EGW QELW EXEI
THN PEPOIQHSIN MOU EP
AUTONOLB_Greek, and
I'm wondering if the perfect form after a future might function as a
noun, like an infinitive does occasionally. "I shall have confidence in
him" or something of that nature.
Steve
>At 8:21 PM -0400 8/19/98, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>>How should I understand this:
>>
>>Hebr 2:13 EGW ESOMAI PEPOIQWS EP AUTWi
>>
>>The use of tenses is confusing me...
>
>Well, one could argue that this is another of those periphrastic
future
>perfects, active in this instance--or one could argue that PEPOIQWS is
here
>functioning as a predicate adjective rather than as part of a
periphrastic
>future perfect.
>
>In either case the meaning will be pretty much the same because the
the
>(First) perfect PEPOIQA is a stative (like OIDA and many another
First
>Perfect--i.e. perfects of the older sort without a Kappa stem) with
an
>intransitive sense best translated as a present tense: "I am fully
>confident." Accordingly ESOMAI PEPOIQWS is more or less equivalent to
an
>intransitive PISTEUSW.
>
>Carl W. Conrad
>Department of Classics/Washington University
>One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
>Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
>cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us
>WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
>
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Steve Long
steve@allegrographics.com
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