I am currently enrolled in Andersonville Theological Seminary, and while I disagree on some minor points it has been generaly very solid.
https://www.oneplace.com/ministries/thru-the-bible-international/listen/persian/

So you think Tyndale was so stupid that he didnt know that Christ was not an Easter (in our modern sense) lamb?
Perhaps William Tyndale understand the word Easter differently then 21st Century English Speakers....

Tyndale used Passover and Easter interchangably in his text. In fact Tyndales NT said Christ is our Easter lamb.
The anglo saxon NT used the word Easter every place where the Greek word “Pascha” was used.
Easter is the same as Passover in Acts 12.
And no the days of unleavened bread starting does not mean it could not have been Passover.
Ezekiel 45:21 KJV
[21] In the first month , in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.
I dont think William Tyndale was so stupid that he thought Christ wasn’t the passover lamb. Its clear from his translation, and the anglo saxon bible that Easter at one point in the English language was a synonym for passover.
This rediculous idea about a Pagan holiday being called by the same Greek name in NT time as the Jewish Passover is nonsense and it makes it hard for people to take us seriously when we defend the KJV.
Easter in Acts 12 is not a pagan holiday and neither is it a “goof”, It was simply a synonym for Passover in the English language at that time.
According to Webster 1828
E'ASTER, n.
A festival of the christian church observed in commemoration of our Savior's resurrection. It answers to the pascha or passover of the Hebrews, and most nations still give it this name, pascha, pask, paque.
According to Smiths Bible dictionary
Easter. Act 12:4. In the earlier English versions, Easter has been frequently used as the translation of pascha, (Passover). In the Authorized Version, Passover was substituted in all passages but this; and in the new Revision, Passover is used here. See Passover.
Easton:
In the early English versions this word was frequently used as the translation of the Greek pascha (the Passover). When the Authorized Version (1611) was formed, the word “passover” was used in all passages in which this word pascha occurred, except in Acts 12

I have dealt with Roby on another board several times. I have already refuted him on Easter (Though I personally disagree that Easter in Acts 12 is a Pagan holiday, my position is the word Easter was a synonym for Passover when the KJV was translated)
Roby will continue to spout his same old talking points over and over and over again even after being refuted and so I refuse to engage him on this topic.
My suggestion is that he should be banned because he is not willing to have an honest discussion on the KJV but has his own agenda that he wants to push.

I live in the Southwest Suburbs and go to a great Bible believing and teaching church in Tinley Park. I invite you to come:
https://www.calvarybaptisttinley.com
For me, my Church was instrumental in God changing me, and that is the way God intended for the Church to be.
Please listen to this very short message about Church that I put out years ago for new and growing Christians:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/0B4Cyo2ykALwGd28zR3lYWldDaWM/view?usp=sharing
If you have a problem playing the file, just download it and it will play.
https://www.wayoflife.org/reports/church_membership.html

I am of the opinion that it is a combination of both positions that is the truth.
I think there is a lot of shallowness and hardness in IFB that is driving people away, but I also acknowledge that there is a lot of worldly temptations that is also drawing them away.
I do not think we have an either or situation here, but rather a "these are both problems" scenario.