Does this passage teach "salvation by works"? -- part of a broad article that also touches on the general faith-works relationship question. Links at the end explain how various other Bible-oriented/Christian groups misunderstand the doctrine.

For we know that the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now. How is this reconciled with Ps. 145:15-16 The eyes of all wait upon thee; and thou givest them their meat in due season. Thou openest thine hand, and satisfiest the desire of every living thing? How can God be satisfying desires when the whole creation is groaning in pain? This objection overlooks the poetic and therefore proverbial, non-absolute nature of the Psalms. That passage is said in the context of a hymn of praise.

But to Israel he saith, All day long I have stretched forth my hands unto a disobedient and gainsaying people. How does one reconcile this with Num. 23:21, He hath not beheld iniquity in Jacob, neither hath he seen perverseness in Israel: the LORD his God is with him, and the shout of a king is among them? They refer to two different periods of time - Numbers to shortly after Israel left Egypt, the second (which is an allusion to Isaiah) after an extensive period of sin many years later.

Romans 12:14

Bless them which persecute you: bless, and curse not. Did Paul violate this in places like 2 Tim. 4:14, Alexander the coppersmith did me much evil: the Lord reward him according to his works and 1 Cor 16:22, where he declared people anethema? Did Paul preach forgiveness but seek the opposite for his detractors? One would observe that Paul hardly "cursed" Alexander here, unless asking for someone to receive their just reward is a "curse". Jesus uses the same Greek word to refer to those going to eternal damnation -- Matt. 25:41. That isn't what Paul is asking for here, or in 1 Cor. 16;22, which is a religious ban or excommunication, not a curse to damnation.