isnt it true that if he buys "like property" within a certain periodof time, he only pays tax on the dif between what he paid and what he sold...

or is it that he gets a one-time sale of his home, and if he buys a new home with the $$, there is no tax involved....

and isnt there some kind of benefit for a one-time sale of your homeonce you have reached a certain age???

or, did i mix all this up? or did i make it up?

i seem to rememember a client who sold a picasso at a huge profit afterowning it for 10 years,....i think we were able to buy another paintingwithin 90 days...using the profit funds...and thus were not charged tax on the gain....

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