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I laughted hard about option c.) and d.).
Option b.) is the right choice here to make. Villain just played limp call from MP1 position what most likely is a hand like a medium Pocket Pair or suited cards or suited connectors like KTs, KJs, QJs, QTs, T9s, 98s etc.
Its more likely that he pushes here with a Flushdraw or a medium Pocket Pair, then a Jack, since he more likely will put us on Overcards here. So I would call.

According to the strategy we have an easy fold, because we don't have a made hand anymore.

But is it better to fold here?

We have to determine the range, which Villain can hold.
As an example this is not an untypical range:

99-22,AhQh,AJs,KJs,QJs,AJo,KJo,QJo

I think such a range is possible, but has to be adjusted of course depending on the opponent.

Which equity do we have against this hand if we call here? We use the Equilator:

At first we have to look at the pot:

What kind of odds do we get?

In the pot are (before our all-in decision):

2,35 $ + 1,65 $ + 1,65 $ + 2,35 $ (Reststack we would have to call after the push) ==> 8 $ are in the pot

How much do we have to call?

2,35 $

==> We have odds of 2,35:8 oder 1:3,4

That means we have to be ahead in 22% of the cases to call profitably. Against the range of Villain we have an equity of 40%: We have to call here, because a fold would be a massive loss of expected value.