<< Jim, if I understand the Greek of verse 54, it appears to me that Jesus
is clearly identifying YHWH (the God of those to which he was speaking, the
Jews)
with his Father. Surely the idea that the person of Jesus is the same as
the
person of his Father would be a foreign concept at that time. >>

I have responded directly to Alan via E-mail without posting it to this list.
If any are interested in seeing that reply send me an E-mail to request it
and I will send you the response. Essentially it encapsulates the paradox of
Jesus' unity with the Father. I have already responded in detail about John
8:58.