Which of the following patterns of reproduction are found only among
invertebrate animals? A) sexual and asexual reproduction
B) external and internal fertilization C) hermaphroditism
and parthenogenesis D) pheromonal and hormonal coordination
E) fission and budding

E

2

Sexual reproduction A) allows animals to conserve resources and
reproduce only during optimal conditions. B) can produce diverse
phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing
environment. C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than
is possible with asexual reproduction. D) enables males and
females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing
habitats. E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for
each offspring.

B

3

What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from
their parents?

A) genetic recombination during mitosis

B) crossing over during mitosis

C) genetic recombination during meiosis

D) sexual reproduction does not produce genetically different offspring

C

4

In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more
offspring than does internal fertilization. However, internal
fertilization offers the advantage that A) it is the only way to
ensure the survival of the species. B) it requires less time and
energy to be devoted to reproduction. C) the smaller number of
offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental
investment. D) it permits the most rapid population increase.
E) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability.

C

5

Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that A) they both
have the same number of chromosomes. B) they are approximately
the same size. C) they each have a flagellum that provides
motility. D) they are produced from puberty until death.
E) they are formed before birth.

A

6

Which of the following correctly describes a difference between
spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

A) spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells while
oogenesis results in one mature egg cell. in spermatogenesis, mitosis
occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once
and meiosis twice.

B) in spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while
in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice

C) spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while
oogenesis results in one mature egg cell

D) spermatogenesis results in one mature sperm cell, while oogenesis
results in four mature effe cells.

A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from a structure in
the brain is A) testosterone. B) estradiol. C)
progesterone. D) follicle-stimulating hormone. E)
gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

E

11

A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence
of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion
of A) inhibin. B) testosterone. C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin. E) progesterone.

B

12

Which of the following best describes a model organism?

A) It is often pictured in textbooks and easy for students to imagine

B) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time

C) It is well studied, it is easy to grow and results are widely applicable

D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists

C

13

During fertilization, the acrosomal contents A) block
polyspermy. B) help propel more sperm toward the egg. C)
digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg. D)
nourish the mitochondria of the sperm. E) trigger the completion
of meiosis by the sperm.

C

14

In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer lasting
"slow block" to polyspermy, respectively, are A) the
acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white. B) the
cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein. C) the
jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane. D) membrane
depolarization and the cortical reaction. E) inactivation of the
sperm acrosome.

As cleavage continues during frog development, the size of the
blastomeres A) increases as the number of the blastomeres
decreases. B) increases as the number of the blastomeres
increases. C) decreases as the number of the blastomeres
increases. D) decreases as the number of the blastomeres
decreases. E) increases as the number of the blastomeres stays
the same.

C

17

In all vertebrate animals, development requires A) a large
supply of yolk. B) an aqueous environment. C)
extraembryonic membranes. D) an amnion. E) a primitive streak.

The least amount of yolk would be found in the egg of a A)
bird. B) fish. C) frog. D) eutherian (placental)
mammal. E) reptile.

D

23

During metamorphosis a tadpole's tail is reduced in size by the
process of

A) regeneration

B) oxidative phosphorylation

C) apoptisis

D) re-differentiation

C

24

The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans A) is composed of a single
cell, in which the developmental origin of each protein has been
mapped. B) is composed of about 1,000 cells, in which the
developmental origin of each cell has been mapped. C) has only a
single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced. D) has about
1,000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced. E)
uniquely, among animals, utilizes programmed cell death during normal development.

In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by
A) the dendritic membrane. B) the presynaptic membrane.
C) axon hillocks. D) cell bodies. E) ducts on the
smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

B

28

A cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron
than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is

A) Ca2+

B) Na+

C) Cl-

D) K+

D

29

The membrane potential in which there is no net movement of the ion
across the membrane is called the

A) equilibrium potential

B) action potential

C) graded potential

D) threshold potential

A

30

The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a
nerve cell due to

A) sodium-potassium pumps

B) symports and antiports

C) sodium and potassium channels

D) osmosis

A

31

Why are action potentials usually conducted in one
direction? A) The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one
direction. B) The brief refractory period prevents reopening of
voltage-gated Na+ channels. C) The axon hillock has a higher
membrane potential than the terminals of the axon. D) Ions can
flow along the axon in only one direction. E) Voltage-gated
channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.

B

32

The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated
sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label

A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E.

A

33

The cell is not hyperpolarized; however, repolarization is in
progress, as the sodium channels are closing or closed, and many
potassium channels have opened at label A) A. B) B.
C) C. D) D. E) E.

A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in
axons would be expected to A) prevent the hyperpolarization
phase of the action potential. B) prevent the depolarization
phase of the action potential. C) prevent graded potentials.
D) increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules. E)
have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron.

B

39

Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function. A)
astrocytesmetabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic
effectiveness B) oligodendrocytesproduce the myelin sheaths of
myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system C)
microgliaproduce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the
central nervous system D) radial gliathe source of
immunoprotection against pathogens. E) Schwann cellsprovide
nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons

A

40

Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in the A) gray
matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord. B)
white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C) gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal
cord. D) white matter in the brain and the white matter in the
spinal cord. E) all areas of the brain and spinal cord.

D

41

Exercise and emergency reactions include A) increased activity
in all parts of the peripheral nervous system. B) increased
activity in the sympathetic, and decreased activity in the
parasympathetic branches. C) decreased activity in the
sympathetic, and increased activity in the parasympathetic branches.
D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system. E)
reduced heart rate and blood pressure.

B

42

Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the
anterior part of the animal, is apparent in A) Hydra. B)
cnidarians. C) Planaria. D) sea stars. E)
invertebrate animals with radial symmetry.

Bottlenose dolphins breathe air but can sleep in the ocean because
A) they cease breathing while sleeping and remain underwater.
B) they sleep for only 30 minutes at a time, which is the
maximum interval they can cease breathing.C) they fill their
swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface of the
water while they sleep. D) they move to shallow water to sleep,
so they do not need to swim to keep their blowholes above the surface
of the water. E) they alternate which half of their brains is
asleep and which half is awake.

E

45

If a doctor attempts to trigger the patellar tendon reflex and a lack
of response occurs, what are potential regions where pathology might
exist? A) the brainB) the knee C) the spinal
cordD) the knee and spinal cordE) the knee and the brain

When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, or
when someone had a frontal lobotomy, they would A) lose the
ability to reason. B) lose all short-term memory. C) have
greatly altered emotional responses. D) lose all long-term
memory. E) lose their sense of balance.

After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front
of him but pays attention only to objects in his right field of
vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has difficulty
judging their size and distance. What part of the brain was likely
damaged by the stroke? A) the left frontal lobe B) the
right frontal lobe C) the left parietal lobe D) the right
parietal lobe E) the corpus callosum

What structures would neurobiologists look for if they are interested
in determining if an animal can see in color?

A) electroreceptors

B) lens

C) opsins

D) pupil

C

58

Which sensory direction is NOT encoded by a difference in neuron identity?

A) salty and sweet

B) spicy and cool

C) loud and faint

D) red and green

C

59

The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to
A) one actin binding site and its myosin partner. B) one
sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments. C) one
myofibril and all of its sarcomeres. D) one motor neuron and all
of the muscle fibers on which it has synapses. E) an entire muscle.

D

60

The muscles of a recently deceased human can remain in a contracted
state, termed rigor mortis, for several hours, due to the lack of
A) phosphorylated myosin. B) ATP needed to break
actin-myosin bonds. C) calcium ions needed to bind to troponin.
D) oxygen supplies needed for myoglobin. E) sodium ions
needed to fire action potentials.

B

61

Which of the following is the correct sequence that describes the
excitation and contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber?

1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding
sites. 2. Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex.
3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments
by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP. 5.
An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release
acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane.

An endoskeleton is the primary body support for the A)
annelids, including earthworms. B) insects, including beetles.
C) cartilaginous fishes, including sharks. D) bivalves,
including clams. E) crustaceans, including lobsters.

C

63

Chitin is a major component of A) the skeleton of mammals.
B) the hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms. C) the
exoskeleton of insects. D) the body hairs of mammals. E)
the skeleton in birds.

C

64

A ball-and-socket joint connects A) the radius to the ulna.
B) the radius to the humerus. C) the ulna to the humerus.
D) the humerus to the scapula. E) the radius to the scapula.

D

65

Displays of nocturnal mammals are usually A) visual and
auditory. B) tactile and visual. C) olfactory and
auditory. D) visual and olfactory. E) tactile and auditory.

C

66

Upon returning to its hive, a European honeybee communicates to other
worker bees the location of a nearby food source it has discovered by
A) vibrating its wings at varying frequencies. B)
performing a round dance. C) performing a waggle dance. D)
visual cues. E) All options are correct.

B

67

A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has
red coloring. What animal behavior idea is manifested by this
observation? A) sign stimulus B) cognition C)
imprinting D) classical conditioning E) operant conditioning

A

68

The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the
environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by A) hormones.
B) evolution. C) sexuality. D) pheromones. E)
the nervous system.

B

69

Which of the following is required for a behavioral trait to evolve
by natural selection?

A) The behavior is determined entirely by genes

B) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the
behavior is performed

C) The behavior is the same in all individuals in the population

D) The behavior is not genetically inherited

B

70

Listed below are several examples of types of animal behavior. Match
the letter of the correct term (A-E) to each example in the following
question.

Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his
new tropical fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to
the top of the tank when he entered the room. This is an example of
A) cognition. B) imprinting. C) classical
conditioning. D) operant conditioning. E) maturation.

C

74

Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter one
another. Fred is courting a female. Fred grunts as Joe comes near. As
Joe continues to advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest)
and bares his teeth. Joe then rolls on the ground on his back, gets
up, and quickly leaves. This behavioral pattern is repeated several
times during the mating season. Choose the most specific behavior
described by this example. A) agonistic behavior B)
territorial behavior C) learned behavior D) social
behavior E) fixed action pattern

A

75

Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating,
leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may
be repeated several times with different males until no available
males remain, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of
the following terms best describes this behavior? A) monogamy
B) polygyny C) polyandry D) promiscuity E)
certainty of paternity

C

76

Which of the following best describes "game theory" as it
applies to animal behavior? A) The fitness of a particular
behavior is influenced by other behavioral phenotypes in a population.
B) The total of all of the behavioral displays, both male and
female, is related to courtship. C) An individual in a
population changes a behavioral phenotype to gain a competitive
advantage. D) The play behavior performed by juveniles allows
them to perfect adult behaviors that are needed for survival, such as
hunting, courtship, and so on. E) The evolutionary
"game" is played between predator and prey, wherein the prey
develops a behavior through natural selection that enables it to be
less vulnerable to predation, and the predator counters with a new
reciprocal predatory behavior.

A

77

Animals that help other animals of the same species A) have
excess energy reserves. B) are bigger and stronger than the
other animals. C) are usually related to the other animals.
D) are always male. E) have defective genes controlling
their behavior.