&nbsp If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

T1A14 &nbsp &nbsp [97.303(d)]

&nbsp What must you do if you are operating on the 23 cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the United States?

A. Stop operating or take steps to eliminate the harmful interference
B. Nothing, because this band is allocated exclusively to the amateur service
C. Establish contact with the radiolocation station and ask them to change frequency
D. Change to CW mode, because this would not likely cause interference

E1B09 &nbsp &nbsp [97.407]

&nbsp Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)

G1B11 &nbsp &nbsp [97.101(a)]

&nbsp How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU
B. In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
C. In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
D. All of these choices are correct

T1B12 &nbsp &nbsp [97.301]

&nbsp Why are frequency assignments for U.S. stations operating maritime mobile not the same everywhere in the world?

A.†Amateur maritime mobile stations in international waters must conform to the frequency assignments of the country nearest to their vessel
B. Amateur frequency assignments can vary among the three ITU regions
C. Frequency assignments are determined by the captain of the vessel
D. Amateur frequency assignments are different in each of the 90 ITU zones

G1C04 &nbsp &nbsp [97.313(a)]

&nbsp Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

T1C06 &nbsp &nbsp [97.5(a)(2)]

&nbsp From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the FCC regulates communications?

A. From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunications Union
B. From within any country that is a member of the United Nations
C. From anywhere within in ITU Regions 2 and 3
D. From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States

E1C12 &nbsp &nbsp [97.117]

&nbsp What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
D. All of these choices are correct

T1D01 &nbsp &nbsp [97.111(a)(1)]

&nbsp With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

A. Any country whose administration has notified the ITU that it objects to such communications
B. Any country whose administration has notified the ARRL that it objects to such communications
C. Any country engaged in hostilities with another country
D. Any country in violation of the War Powers Act of 1934

E1D02 &nbsp &nbsp [97.3]

&nbsp What is the amateur satellite service?

A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

G1D06 &nbsp &nbsp [97.119(f)(2)]

&nbsp When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?

A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

T1E01 &nbsp &nbsp [97.7(a)]

&nbsp When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?

A. When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
B. When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station
C. When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
D. Never

E1E03 &nbsp &nbsp [97.521]

&nbsp What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

G1E06 &nbsp &nbsp [97.205(c)]

&nbsp Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

A. The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

T1F05 &nbsp &nbsp [97.119(b)(2)]

&nbsp What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

A. Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
B. Send the call sign using CW or phone emission
C. Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
D. Send the call sign using only phone emission

E1F09 &nbsp &nbsp [97.311]

&nbsp Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
D. All of these choices are correct

G2A01 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

T2A11 &nbsp &nbsp [97.313(a)]

&nbsp Which of the following is an FCC rule regarding power levels used in the amateur bands, under normal, non-distress circumstances?

A. There is no limit to power as long as there is no interference with other services
B. No more than 200 watts PEP may be used
C. Up to 1500 watts PEP may be used on any amateur frequency without restriction
D. While not exceeding the maximum power permitted on a given band, use the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication

T2B02 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?

A. Carrier squelch
B. Tone burst
C. DTMF
D. CTCSS

G2B12 &nbsp &nbsp [97.405(b)]

&nbsp When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

A. Only when transmitting in RACES
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C. At any time during an actual emergency
D. Only on authorized HF frequencies

&nbsp What is meant by the term "check" in reference to a formal traffic message?

A. The check is a count of the number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
B. The check is the value of a money order attached to the message
C. The check is a list of stations that have relayed the message
D. The check is a box on the message form that tells you the message was received

E2C13 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?

A. / followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
C. The ARRL section of the remote station
D. No additional indicator is required

E2D05 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

&nbsp What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

A. Frequent retries or timeouts
B. Long pauses in message transmission
C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
D. All of these choices are correct

E2E09 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

A. RTTY
B. PACTOR
C. MT63
D. PSK31

G3A02 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

E3A10 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?

A. At midday, the Sun super heats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
B. At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption is low while E-layer and F-layer propagation remains high
C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
D. At mid-afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

G3C08 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy

E3C10 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

A. The ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
B. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
C. The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
D. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels

T3C12 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

A. Six or ten meters
B. 23 centimeters
C. 70 centimeters or 1.25 meters
D. All of these choices are correct

G4A01 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

T4A02 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?

A. For logging contacts and contact information
B. For sending and/or receiving CW
C. For generating and decoding digital signals
D. All of these choices are correct

E4A07 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

&nbsp Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
C. A Class C final amplifier
D. A Class D final amplifier

G4D10 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp How close to the lower¬†edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide¬†LSB?

A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

G4E04 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle‚Äôs auxiliary power socket?

A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

E4E11 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A06 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency, multiplied by inductance

T5A09 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?

A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Circular current
D. Vertical current

G5A13 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A. A transformer
B. A Pi-network
C. A length of transmission line
D. All of these choices are correct

E5B06 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is susceptance?

A. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
B. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
C. The inverse of reactance
D. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer

G5B07 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The peak value
C. The RMS value
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value

T5B13 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?

A. 0.002425 GHZ
B. 24.25 GHz
C. 2.425 GHz
D. 2425 GHz

T5C09 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes?

A. 138 watts
B. 0.7 watts
C. 23.8 watts
D. 3.8 watts

G5C10 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

A. 0.30 henrys
B. 3.3 henrys
C. 3.3 millihenrys
D. 30 millihenrys

E5C13 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?

&nbsp Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

A. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
B. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts
D. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts

T6A07 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?

A. Switch
B. Capacitor
C. Diode
D. Inductor

E6B06 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector

A. A special connector for microwave interfacing
B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications

T6C03 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is component 2 in figure T1?

A. Resistor
B. Transistor
C. Indicator lamp
D. Connector

E6C13 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

A. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
B. It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
C. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
D. All of these choices are correct

T6D02 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What best describes a relay?

A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet
B. A current controlled amplifier
C. An optical sensor
D. A pass transistor

E6D08 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?

A. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
B. It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
C. It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs are logic "1"
D. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

G7B03 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

T7B10 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible?

A. Your transmitter may be slightly off frequency
B. Your batteries may be running low
C. You could be in a bad location
D. All of these choices are correct

E7B14 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

A. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
B. The power transistor is at saturation or cut off most of the time, resulting in low power dissipation
C. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
D. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits

E7C04 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
D. Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

G7C04 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

&nbsp What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?

A. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
B. Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
C. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
D. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input

E7G06 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
C. For smoothing power supply output
D. As an audio filter in a receiver

E7H06 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

&nbsp In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

A. The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D. The entire file has been received correctly

E8C06 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

A. 0.1 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz

T8D02 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What does the term "APRS" mean?

A. Automatic Packet Reporting System
B. Associated Public Radio Station
C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up
D. Advanced Polar Radio System

E8D11 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

A. It includes built in error correction features
B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

T9A05 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?

A. Lengthen it
B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires
C. Shorten it
D. Add capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires

G9A12 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?

A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used

E9B15 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

A. 15 dB
B. 28 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 24 dB

E9C15 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

A. SWR bandwidth increases
B. SWR bandwidth decreases
C. Gain is reduced
D. More common-mode current is present on the feed line

E9E02 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

&nbsp What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

A. Very high impedance
B. Very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D. The same as the output impedance of the generator

E9G08 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E9H02 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

A. Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important
B. They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
C. Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
D. All of these choices are correct

E0A04 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

A. Only the most powerful transmitter
B. Only commercial transmitters
C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit at accessible locations
D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 percent

G0A08 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
D. All of these choices are correct

T0A11 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?

A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system
B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage
C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
D. You might receive an electric shock from the charged stored in large capacitors

T0B11 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

&nbsp What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B. Insure that the generator is not grounded
C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D. All of these choices are correct

T0C09 &nbsp &nbsp

&nbsp How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed
C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR
D. All of these choices are correct

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