Re: binomial standard deviation in french roulette

Re: binomial standard deviation in french roulette

The standard deviation is not what is important, what is important is how far your result is from the average. In your case 44 is more than 3 sd from the average (27) that means it only has 1 chance in 380 of being a random event. But that is not 0.

In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.

I agree with you regarding the satisfaction and importance of actually computing some numbers. I can't tell you how often I see time and money wasted because someone didn't bother to run the numbers.

Re: binomial standard deviation in french roulette

Re: binomial standard deviation in french roulette

Not really. Based on the single sample you gave me of 44 out of 1000 hits with a probability of 1 / 37 I have answered the question. There is a only a 1 in 380 chance that that occurred by chance. Whether you feel that is enough is up to you. As I said it is not impossible that wheel is okay, just unlikely.

In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.

I agree with you regarding the satisfaction and importance of actually computing some numbers. I can't tell you how often I see time and money wasted because someone didn't bother to run the numbers.

Re: binomial standard deviation in french roulette

So, as a [deleted], playing the basic strategy you would be able to be +1,5% over the HE. And, as a [deleted] you could have a range of advantage over other regular players. How do you know when you have the edge and how much?At a moment in the year/month/decade you can say that you have (for example) 5% edge over any other player or the house. How would you gauge it?