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Saturday, November 6, 2010

The first parasha ends in Grar, why?

Israac is treated well by G-d and Man in Grar, he is not attacked but needs to be stubborn and build wells over and over again without complaining. He builds up an immense fortune for the time in a relatively short time. Why is it that Rivka knows that this is Jacob's inheritence and not Esav's? (find this statment- no explanation- in likutey Halachot). And the answer is.(1)..

The first parahsa doesn't end with Esav giving up his birthright, it ends with Israac being blessed in Grar. Obviously, had Esav remained the Bachour and inheritor, Israac would have had a completely different experience, the inheritence is already being prepared in the merit of Jacob. Esav is taking his brother's "goods" by force of "intended murder" and Esav's wife who is attached to his "stolen" goods (women are attached to their fortune (1)) goes to the rightful owner of the goods. She is a cryer like her husband, unlike Rachel and Jacob that are long suffering and generous, reflecting the behavior of Israac in Grar.

Jacob may have been pulled into the world by Esav- but Jacob manages to haul Esav into Gan Eden at the end. You know that "Grar" means "craine" in Hebrew? If the car (no matter how good looking) doesn't even (r&)roll, you can call a "grar" to haul it into the garage.