I'll just preface this by saying I'm just a physics undergrad, so this might be a bit beyond my understanding, and I may well be missing something obvious or making a stupid mistake, but while playing around I noticed that it seems to be true that

Is this actually true? And if so is there a proof of it I'll be able to wrap my mind around?

(04/03/2010, 12:18 AM)Stereotomy Wrote:
Is true as well. In fact, thinking about it, the numbers I tried out with this all had b>a. Perhaps that's an additional condition that either b > a or m, n > 1?

There is an article which proves that (which is in Knuth's arrow notation) finally will be constant for mod any , see this thread.