Tài liệu Ceh review questions

This is another review book of CEH to review your knowledge about basic hacking.

Covers all Exam Objectives for CEHv6
Includes Real-World Scenarios, Hands-On Exercises, and
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CEH
™
Certified
Ethical Hacker
STUDY GUIDE
Exam 312-50
Exam EC0-350
SERIOUS SKILLS.
Kimberly Graves
Assessment Test
1.
In which type of attack are passwords never cracked?
A. Cryptography attacks
B.
2.
Brute-force attacks
C.
Replay attacks
D.
John the Ripper attacks
If the password is 7 characters or less, then the second half of the LM hash is always:
A. 0xAAD3B435B51404EE
3.
B.
0xAAD3B435B51404AA
C.
0xAAD3B435B51404BB
D.
0xAAD3B435B51404CC
What defensive measures will you take to protect your network from password brute-force
attacks? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Never leave a default password.
4.
B.
Never use a password that can be found in a dictionary.
C.
Never use a password related to the hostname, domain name, or anything else that can
be found with Whois.
D.
Never use a password related to your hobbies, pets, relatives, or date of birth.
E.
Use a word that has more than 21 characters from a dictionary as the password.
Which of the following is the act intended to prevent spam emails?
A. 1990 Computer Misuse Act
B.
Spam Prevention Act
C.
US-Spam 1030 Act
D.
CANSPAM Act
is a Cisco IOS mechanism that examines packets on Layers 4 to 7.
5.
A. Network-Based Application Recognition (NBAR)
6.
B.
Denial-of-Service Filter (DOSF)
C.
Rule Filter Application Protocol (RFAP)
D.
Signature-Based Access List (SBAL)
What filter in Ethereal will you use to view Hotmail messages?
A. (http contains “e‑mail”) && (http contains “hotmail”)
B.
(http contains “hotmail”) && (http contains “Reply‑To”)
C.
(http = “login.passport.com”) && (http contains “SMTP”)
D.
(http = “login.passport.com”) && (http contains “POP3”)
Assessment Test
7.
xxxi
Who are the primary victims of SMURF attacks on the Internet?
A. IRC servers
8.
B.
IDS devices
C.
Mail servers
D.
SPAM filters
What type of attacks target DNS servers directly?
A. DNS forward lookup attacks
9.
B.
DNS cache poisoning attacks
C.
DNS reverse connection attacks
D.
DNS reflector and amplification attack
TCP/IP session hijacking is carried out in which OSI layer?
A. Transport layer
B.
Datalink layer
C.
Network layer
D.
Physical layer
10. What is the term used in serving different types of web pages based on the user’s IP
address?
A. Mirroring website
B.
Website filtering
C.
IP access blockade
D.
Website cloaking
11. True or False: Data is sent over the network as cleartext (unencrypted) when Basic Authentication is configured on web servers.
A. True
B.
False
12. What is the countermeasure against XSS scripting?
A. Create an IP access list and restrict connections based on port number.
B.
Replace < and > characters with < and > using server scripts.
C.
Disable JavaScript in Internet Explorer and Firefox browsers.
D.
Connect to the server using HTTPS protocol instead of HTTP.
13. How would you prevent a user from connecting to the corporate network via their home
computer and attempting to use a VPN to gain access to the corporate LAN?
A. Enforce Machine Authentication and disable VPN access to all your employee accounts
from any machine other than corporate-issued PCs.
B.
Allow VPN access but replace the standard authentication with biometric authentication.
C.
Replace the VPN access with dial-up modem access to the company’s network.
D.
Enable 25-character complex password policy for employees to access the VPN network.
Assessment Test
xxxii
14. How would you compromise a system that relies on cookie-based security?
A. Inject the cookie ID into the web URL and connect back to the server.
B.
Brute-force the encryption used by the cookie and replay it back to the server.
C.
Intercept the communication between the client and the server and change the cookie
to make the server believe that there is a user with higher privileges.
D.
Delete the cookie, reestablish connection to the server, and access higher-level privileges.
15. Windows is dangerously insecure when unpacked from the box; which of the following
must you do before you use it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Make sure a new installation of Windows is patched by installing the latest service
packs.
B.
Install the latest security patches for applications such as Adobe Acrobat, Macromedia
Flash, Java, and WinZip.
C.
Install a personal firewall and lock down unused ports from connecting to your
computer.
D.
Install the latest signatures for antivirus software.
E.
Create a non-admin user with a complex password and log onto this account.
F.
You can start using your computer since the vendor, such as Dell, Hewlett-Packard,
and IBM, already has installed the latest service packs.
16. Which of these is a patch management and security utility?
A. MBSA
B.
BSSA
C.
ASNB
D.
PMUS
17. How do you secure a GET method in web page posts?
A. Encrypt the data before you send using the GET method.
B.
Never include sensitive information in a script.
C.
Use HTTPS SSLv3 to send the data instead of plain HTTPS.
D.
Replace GET with the POST method when sending data.
18. What are two types of buffer overflow?
A. Stack-based buffer overflow
B.
Active buffer overflow
C.
Dynamic buffer overflow
D.
Heap-based buffer overflow
Assessment Test
xxxiii
19. How does a polymorphic shellcode work?
A. It reverses the working instructions into opposite order by masking the IDS signatures.
B.
It converts the shellcode into Unicode, uses a loader to convert back to machine code,
and then executes the shellcode.
C.
It encrypts the shellcode by XORing values over the shellcode, using loader code to
decrypt the shellcode, and then executing the decrypted shellcode.
D.
It compresses the shellcode into normal instructions, uncompresses the shellcode using
loader code, and then executes the shellcode.
20. Where are passwords kept in Linux?
A. /etc/shadow
B.
/etc/passwd
C.
/bin/password
D.
/bin/shadow
21. What of the following is an IDS defeating technique?
A. IP routing or packet dropping
B.
IP fragmentation or session splicing
C.
IDS spoofing or session assembly
D.
IP splicing or packet reassembly
22. True or False: A digital signature is simply a message that is encrypted with the public key
instead of the private key.
A. True
B.
False
23. Every company needs which of the following documents?
A. Information Security Policy (ISP)
B.
Information Audit Policy (IAP)
C.
Penetration Testing Policy (PTP)
D.
User Compliance Policy (UCP)
24. What does the hacking tool Netcat do?
A. Netcat is a flexible packet sniffer/logger that detects attacks. Netcat is a library packet
capture (libpcap)-based packet sniffer/logger that can be used as a lightweight network
intrusion detection system.
B.
Netcat is a powerful tool for network monitoring and data acquisition. This program
allows you to dump the traffic on a network. It can be used to print out the headers of
packets on a network interface that matches a given expression.
C.
Netcat is called the TCP/IP Swiss army knife. It is a simple Unix utility that reads and
writes data across network connections using the TCP or UDP protocol.
D.
Netcat is a security assessment tool based on SATAN (Security Administrator’s Integrated Network Tool).
xxxiv
Assessment Test
25. Which tool is a file and directory integrity checker that aids system administrators and
users in monitoring a designated set of files for any changes?
A. Hping2
B.
DSniff
C.
Cybercop Scanner
D.
Tripwire
26. Which of the following Nmap commands launches a stealth SYN scan against each
machine in a class C address space where target.example.com resides and tries to determine what operating system is running on each host that is up and running?
A. nmap ‑v target.example.com
B.
nmap ‑sS ‑O target.example.com/24
C.
nmap ‑sX ‑p 22,53,110,143,4564 198.116.*.1‑127
D.
nmap ‑XS ‑O target.example.com
27. Snort is a Linux-based intrusion detection system. Which command enables Snort to use
network intrusion detection (NIDS) mode assuming snort.conf is the name of your rules
file and the IP address is 192.168.1.0 with Subnet Mask:255.255.255.0?
A. ./snort ‑c snort.conf 192.168.1.0/24
B.
./snort 192.168.1.0/24 ‑x snort.conf
C.
./snort ‑dev ‑l ./log ‑a 192.168.1.0/8 ‑c snort.conf
D.
./snort ‑dev ‑l ./log ‑h 192.168.1.0/24 ‑c snort.conf
28. Buffer overflow vulnerabilities are due to applications that do not perform bound checks in
the code. Which of the following C/C++ functions do not perform bound checks?
A. gets()
B.
memcpy()
C.
strcpr()
D.
scanf()
E.
strcat()
29. How do you prevent SMB hijacking in Windows operating systems?
A. Install WINS Server and configure secure authentication.
B.
Disable NetBIOS over TCP/IP in Windows NT and 2000.
C.
The only effective way to block SMB hijacking is to use SMB signing.
D.
Configure 128-bit SMB credentials key-pair in TCP/IP properties.
30. Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
A. Disgruntled employees
B.
Black-hat hackers
C.
Gray-hat hackers
D.
Script kiddies
Assessment Test
xxxv
31. Which of the following command-line switches would you use for OS detection in Nmap?
A. ‑X
B.
‑D
C.
‑O
D.
‑P
32. LM authentication is not as strong as Windows NT authentication so you may want to disable its use, because an attacker eavesdropping on network traffic will attack the weaker
protocol. A successful attack can compromise the user’s password. How do you disable LM
authentication in Windows XP?
A. Download and install the LMSHUT.EXE tool from Microsoft’s website’
B.
Disable LM authentication in the Registry.
C.
Stop the LM service in Windows XP.
D.
Disable the LSASS service in Windows XP.
33. You have captured some packets in Ethereal. You want to view only packets sent from
10.0.0.22. What filter will you apply?
A. ip.equals 10.0.0.22
B.
ip = 10.0.0.22
C.
ip.address = 10.0.0.22
D.
ip.src == 10.0.0.22
34. What does FIN in a TCP flag define?
A. Used to abort a TCP connection abruptly
B.
Used to close a TCP connection
C.
Used to acknowledge receipt of a previous packet or transmission
D.
Used to indicate the beginning of a TCP connection
35. What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Time Exceeded
B.
Source Quench
C.
Destination Unreachable
D.
Unknown Type
xxxvi
Answers to Assessment Test
Answers to Assessment Test
1.
C. Replay attacks involve capturing passwords, most likely encrypted, and playing them
back to fake authentication. For more information, see Chapter 4.
2.
A. An LM hash splits a password into two sections. If the password is 7 characters or less,
then the blank portion of the password will always be a hex value of AAD3B435B51404EE.
0x preceding the value indicates it is in Hex. For more information, see Chapter 4.
3.
A,B,C,D. A dictionary word can always be broken using brute force. For more information,
see Chapter 4.
4.
D. The CANSPAM Act is an acronym for Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act; the act attempts to prevent unsolicited spam. For more
information, see Chapter 1.
5.
A. Network-Based Application Recognition is a Cisco IOS mechanism for controlling traffic
through network ingress points. For more information, see Chapter 6.
6.
B. A way of locating Hotmail messages in Ethereal is to use a filter of email and Reply-to to
find actual email messages. For more information, see Chapter 6.
7.
A. In a Smurf attack a large amount of ICMP echo request (ping) traffic is send to an IP
broadcast address, with a spoofed source IP address of the intended victim. IRC servers are
commonly used to perpetuate this attack so they are considered primary victims. For more
information, see Chapter 7.
8.
D. The DNS reflector and amplification type attacks DNS servers directly. By adding
amplification to the attack, many hosts send the attack and results in a denial-of-service to
the DNS servers. For more information, see Chapter 8.
9.
A. TCP operates at the Transport layer, or Layer 4 of the OSI model, and consequently a
TCP/IP session hijack occurs at the Transport layer. For more information, see Chapter 7.
10. D. Website cloaking is serving different web pages based on the source IP address of the
user. For more information, see Chapter 8.
11. A. Basic Authentication uses cleartext passwords. For more information, see Chapter 8.
12. B. A protection against cross-site scripting is to secure the server scripts. For more information, see Chapter 8.
13. A. Machine Authentication would require the host system to have a domain account that
would only be valid for corporate PCs. For more information, see Chapter 13.
14. C. Privilege escalation can be done through capturing and modifying cookies. For more
information, see Chapter 8.
15. A,B,C,D. Installing service packs, personal firewall software, and antivirus signatures
should all be done prior to using a new computer on the network. For more information,
see Chapter 5.
Answers to Assessment Test
xxxvii
16. A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer is a patch management utility built into Windows
for analyzing security. For more information, see Chapter 15.
17. D. POST should be used instead of GET for web page posts. For more information, see
Chapter 8.
18. A,D. Stack- and heap-based are the two types of buffer overflow attacks. For more information, see Chapter 9.
19. C. Polymorphic shellcode changes by using the XOR process to encrypt and decrypt the
shellcode. For more information, see Chapter 5.
20. A. Passwords are stored in the /shadow file in Linux. For more information, see Chapter 3.
21. B. IP fragmentation or session splicing is a way of defeating an IDS. For more information,
see Chapter 13.
22. A. A message is encrypted with a user’s private key so that only the user’s public key can
decrypt the signature and the user’s identity can be verified. For more information, see
Chapter 14.
23. A. Every company should have an Information Security Policy. For more information, see
Chapter 15.
24. C. Netcat is a multiuse Unix utility for reading and writing across network connections.
For more information, see Chapter 4.
25. D. Tripwire is a file and directory integrity checker. For more information, see Chapter 4.
26. B. nmap ‑sS creates a stealth scan and the ‑O switch performs operating system detection.
For more information, see Chapter 3.
27. A. snort ‑c snort.conf indicates snort.conf is the config file containing snort rules.
For more information, see Chapter 13.
28. E. strcat() does not perform bounds checking and creates a buffer overflow vulnerability.
For more information, see Chapter 9.
29. C. SMB signing prevents SMB hijacking. For more information, see Chapter 4.
30. A. Disgruntled employees are the biggest threat to a network. For more information, see
Chapter 1.
31. C. ‑O performs OS detection in Nmap. For more information, see Chapter 3.
32. B. LM authentication can be disabled in the Windows Registry. For more information, see
Chapter 4.
33. D. ip.src== is the syntax to filter on a source IP address. For more information, see
Chapter 6.
34. B. The FIN flag is used to close a TCP/IP connection. For more information, see Chapter 6.
35. A. ICMP Time Exceeded is type 11, code 0. For more information, see Chapter 3.
Chapter
1
Introduction to
Ethical Hacking,
Ethics, and Legality
CEH Exam ObjECtIvEs COvErEd In
tHIs CHaptEr:
ÛÛ
Understand ethical hacking terminology
ÛÛ
Define the job role of an ethical hacker
ÛÛ
Understand the different phases involved in ethical
hacking
ÛÛ
Identify different types of hacking technologies
ÛÛ
List the five stages of ethical hacking
ÛÛ
What is hacktivism?
ÛÛ
List different types of hacker classes
ÛÛ
Define the skills required to become an ethical hacker
ÛÛ
What is vulnerability research?
ÛÛ
Describe the ways of conducting ethical hacking
ÛÛ
Understand the legal implications of hacking
ÛÛ
Understand 18 USC §1030 US federal law
Review Questions
Review Questions
1.
Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat hacker?
A. Security professional
B.
2.
Former black hat
C.
Former gray hat
D.
Malicious hacker
A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization by the network
administration is also known as
.
A. Gray-box testing
3.
B.
Black-box testing
C.
White-box testing
D.
Active testing
E.
Passive testing
What is the first phase of hacking?
A. Attack
B.
4.
Maintaining access
C.
Gaining access
D.
Reconnaissance
E.
Scanning
What type of ethical hack tests access to the physical infrastructure?
A. Internal network
B.
5.
Remote network
C.
External network
D.
Physical access
The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which concept?
A. As security increases, functionality and ease of use increase.
6.
B.
As security decreases, functionality and ease of use increase.
C.
As security decreases, functionality and ease of use decrease.
D.
Security does not affect functionality and ease of use.
Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
A. Disgruntled employees
B.
Black-hat hackers
C.
Gray-hat hackers
D.
Script kiddies
25
Chapter 1
26
7.
n
Introduction to Ethical Hacking, Ethics, and Legality
What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose three answers.)
A. Security evaluation
B.
Preparation
C.
Conclusion
D.
Final
E.
Reconnaissance
F.
Design security
G. Vulnerability assessment
8.
Hacking for a cause is called
.
A. Active hacking
9.
B.
Hacktivism
C.
Activism
D.
Black-hat hacking
Which federal law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers?
A. Title 12
B.
Title 18
C.
Title 20
D.
Title 2
10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet, it is known as what type of
attack?
A. Remote attack
B.
Physical access
C.
Local access
D.
Internal attack
11. Which law allows for gathering of information on targets?
A. Freedom of Information Act
B.
Government Paperwork Elimination Act
C.
USA PATRIOT Act of 2001
D.
Privacy Act of 1974
12. The Securely Protect Yourself Against Cyber Trespass Act prohibits which of the following?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Sending spam
B.
Installing and using keystroke loggers
C.
Using video surveillance
D.
Implementing pop-up windows
Review Questions
27
13. Which step in the framework of a security audit is critical to protect the ethical hacker from
legal liability?
A. Talk to the client prior to the testing.
B.
Sign an ethical hacking agreement and NDA with the client prior to the testing.
C.
Organize an ethical hacking team and prepare a schedule prior to testing.
D.
Analyze the testing results and prepare a report.
14. Which of the following is a system, program, or network that is the subject of a security
analysis?
A. Owned system
B.
Vulnerability
C.
Exploited system
D.
Target of evaluation
15. Which term best describes a hacker who uses their hacking skills for destructive purposes?
A. Cracker
B.
Ethical hacker
C.
Script kiddie
D.
White-hat hacker
16. MAC address spoofing is which type of attack?
A. Encryption
B.
Brute-force
C.
Authentication
D.
Social engineering
17. Which law gives authority to intercept voice communications in computer hacking
attempts?
A. Patriot Act
B.
Telecommunications Act
C.
Privacy Act
D.
Freedom of Information Act
18. Which items should be included in an ethical hacking report? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Testing type
B.
Vulnerabilities discovered
C.
Suggested countermeasures
D.
Router configuration information
Chapter 1
28
n
Introduction to Ethical Hacking, Ethics, and Legality
19. Which type of person poses the most threat to an organization’s security?
A. Black-hat hacker
B.
Disgruntled employee
C.
Script kiddie
D.
Gray-hat hacker
20. Which of the following should be included in an ethical hacking report? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Findings of the test
B.
Risk analysis
C.
Documentation of laws
D.
Ethics disclosure
Answers to Review Questions
29
Answers to Review Questions
1.
A. White-hat hackers are “good” guys who use their skills for defensive purposes.
2.
C. White-box testing is a security audit performed with internal knowledge of the systems.
3.
D. Reconnaissance is gathering information necessary to perform the attack.
4.
D. Physical access tests access to the physical infrastructure.
5.
B. As security increases, it makes it more difficult to use and less functional.
6.
A. Disgruntled employees have information that can allow them to launch a powerful attack.
7.
A, B, C. The three phases of a security evaluation plan are preparation, security evaluation,
and conclusion.
8.
B. Hacktivism is performed by individuals who claim to be hacking for a political or social
cause.
9.
B. Title 18 of the US Code is most commonly used to prosecute hackers.
10. A. An attack from the Internet is known as a remote attack.
11. A. The Freedom of Information Act ensures public release of many documents and records
and can be a rich source of information on potential targets.
12. A, B, D. Sending spam, installing and using keystroke loggers, and implementing pop-up
windows are all prohibited by the SPY ACT.
13. B. Signing an NDA agreement is critical to ensuring the testing is authorized and the ethical hacker has the right to access the client’s systems.
14. D. A target of evaluation is a system, program, or network that is the subject of a security
analysis. It is the target of the ethical hacker’s attacks.
15. A. A cracker is a hacker who uses their hacking skills for destructive purposes.
16. C. MAC address spoofing is an authentication attack used to defeat MAC address filters.
17. A. The Patriot Act gives authority to intercept voice communications in many cases, including computer hacking.
18. A, B, C. All information about the testing process, vulnerabilities discovered in the network
or system, and suggested countermeasures should be included in the ethical hacking report.
19. B. Disgruntled employees pose the biggest threat to an organization’s security because of
the information and access that they possess.
20. A, B. Findings of the test and risk analysis should both be included in an ethical hacking
report.
Chapter
2
Gathering Target
Information:
Reconnaissance,
Footprinting, and
Social Engineering
CEH Exam ObjECTIvES COvEREd In
THIS CHapTER:
ÛÛ
Define the term footprinting
ÛÛ
Describe information-gathering methodology
ÛÛ
Describe competitive intelligence
ÛÛ
Understand DNS enumeration
ÛÛ
Understand Whois, ARIN lookup
ÛÛ
Identify different types of DNS records
ÛÛ
Understand how traceroute is used in footprinting
ÛÛ
Understand how email tracking works
ÛÛ
Understand how web spiders work
ÛÛ
What is social engineering?
ÛÛ
What are the common types of attacks?
ÛÛ
Understand dumpster diving
ÛÛ
Understand reverse social engineering
Chapter 2
56
n
Gathering Target Information
Review Questions
1.
Which are the four regional Internet registries?
A. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
2.
B.
APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
C.
APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
D.
APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
Which of the following is a tool for performing footprinting undetected?
A. Whois search
3.
B.
Traceroute
C.
Ping sweep
D.
Host scanning
Which of the following tools are used for footprinting? (Choose 3.)
A. Whois
4.
B.
Sam Spade
C.
NMAP
D.
SuperScan
E.
NSlookup
What is the next immediate step to be performed after footprinting?
A. Scanning
5.
B.
Enumeration
C.
System hacking
D.
Bypassing an IDS
Which are good sources of information about a company or its employees? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Newsgroups
B.
Job postings
C.
Company website
D.
Press releases
Review Questions
6.
57
How does traceroute work?
A. It uses an ICMP destination-unreachable message to elicit the name of a router.
B.
7.
It sends a specially crafted IP packet to a router to locate the number of hops from the
sender to the destination network.
C.
It uses a protocol that will be rejected by the gateway to determine the location.
D.
It uses the TTL value in an ICMP message to determine the number of hops from the
sender to the router.
What is footprinting?
A. Measuring the shoe size of an ethical hacker
8.
B.
Accumulation of data by gathering information on a target
C.
Scanning a target network to detect operating system types
D.
Mapping the physical layout of a target’s network
NSlookup can be used to gather information regarding which of the following?
A. Hostnames and IP addresses
9.
B.
Whois information
C.
DNS server locations
D.
Name server types and operating systems
Which of the following is a type of social engineering?
A. Shoulder surfing
B.
User identification
C.
System monitoring
D.
Face-to-face communication
10. Which is an example of social engineering?
A. A user who holds open the front door of an office for a potential hacker
B.
Calling a help desk and convincing them to reset a password for a user account
C.
Installing a hardware keylogger on a victim’s system to capture passwords
D.
Accessing a database with a cracked password
11. What is the best way to prevent a social-engineering attack?
A. Installing a firewall to prevent port scans
B.
Configuring an IDS to detect intrusion attempts
C.
Increasing the number of help desk personnel
D.
Employee training and education
Chapter 2
58
n
Gathering Target Information
12. Which of the following is the best example of reverse social engineering?
A. A hacker pretends to be a person of authority in order to get a user to give them information.
B.
A help desk employee pretends to be a person of authority.
C.
A hacker tries to get a user to change their password.
D.
A user changes their password.
13. Using pop-up windows to get a user to give out information is which type of social-engineering
attack?
A. Human-based
B.
Computer-based
C.
Nontechnical
D.
Coercive
14. What is it called when a hacker pretends to be a valid user on the system?
A. Impersonation
B.
Third-person authorization
C.
Help desk
D.
Valid user
15. What is the best reason to implement a security policy?
A. It increases security.
B.
It makes security harder to enforce.
C.
It removes the employee’s responsibility to make judgments.
D.
It decreases security.
16. Faking a website for the purpose of getting a user’s password and username is which type
of social-engineering attack?
A. Human-based
B.
Computer-based
C.
Web-based
D.
User-based
17. Dumpster diving can be considered which type of social-engineering attack?
A. Human-based
B.
Computer-based
C.
Physical access
D.
Paper-based
Review Questions
59
18. What information-gathering tool will give you information regarding the operating system
of a web server?
A. NSlookup
B.
DNSlookup
C.
tracert
D.
Netcraft
19. What tool is a good source of information for employee’s names and addresses?
A. NSlookup
B.
Netcraft
C.
Whois
D.
tracert
20. Which tool will only work on publicly traded companies?
A. EDGAR
B.
NSlookup
C.
Netcraft
D.
Whois
60
Chapter 2
n
Gathering Target Information
Answers to Review Questions
1.
D. The four Internet registries are ARIN (American Registry of Internet Numbers), RIPE
NCC (Europe, the Middle East, and parts of Central Asia), LACNIC (Latin American and
Caribbean Internet Addresses Registry), and APNIC (Asia Pacific Network Information
Centre).
2.
A. Whois is the only tool listed that won’t trigger an IDS alert or otherwise be detected by
an organization.
3.
A, B, E. Whois, Sam Spade, and NSlookup are all used to passively gather information
about a target. NMAP and SuperScan are host and network scanning tools.
4.
A. According to CEH methodology, scanning occurs after footprinting. Enumeration and
system hacking are performed after footprinting. Bypassing an IDS would occur later in the
hacking cycle.
5.
A, B, C, D. Newsgroups, job postings, company websites, and press releases are all good
sources for information gathering.
6.
D. Traceroute uses the TTL values to determine how many hops the router is from the
sender. Each router decrements the TTL by one under normal conditions.
7.
B. Footprinting is gathering information about a target organization. Footprinting is not
scanning a target network or mapping the physical layout of a target network.
8.
A. NSlookup queries a DNS server for DNS records such as hostnames and IP addresses.
9.
A. Of the choices listed here, shoulder surfing is considered a type of social engineering.
10. B. Calling a help desk and convincing them to reset a password for a user account is an
example of social engineering. Holding open a door and installing a keylogger are examples of
physical access intrusions. Accessing a database with a cracked password is system hacking.
11. D. Employee training and education is the best way to prevent a social-engineering attack.
12. A. When a hacker pretends to be a person of authority in order to get a user to ask them
for information, it’s an example of reverse social engineering.
13. B. Pop-up windows are a method of getting information from a user utilizing a computer.
The other options do not require access to a computer.
14. A. Impersonation involves a hacker pretending to be a valid user on the system.
15. C. Security policies remove the employee’s responsibility to make judgments regarding a
potential social-engineering attack.
Answers to Review Questions
61
16. B. Website faking is a form of computer-based social-engineering attack because it requires
a computer to perpetuate the attack.
17. A. Dumpster diving is a human-based social-engineering attack because it is performed by
a human being.
18. D. The Netcraft website will attempt to determine the operating system and web server
type of a target.
19. C. Whois will list a contact name address and phone number for a given website.
20. A. EDGAR is the SEC database of filings and will only work on publicly traded firms.
Chapter
3
Gathering Network
and Host Information:
Scanning and
Enumeration
CEH Exam ObjECtIvES COvErEd IN
tHIS CHaptEr:
ÛÛ
Define the terms port scanning, network scanning, and
vulnerability scanning
ÛÛ
Understand the CEH scanning methodology
ÛÛ
Understand ping sweep techniques
ÛÛ
Understand nmap command switches
ÛÛ
Understand SYN, stealth, XMAS, NULL, IDLE, and FIN
scans
ÛÛ
List TCP communication flag types
ÛÛ
Understand war-dialing techniques
ÛÛ
Understand banner grabbing and OS fingerprinting
techniques
ÛÛ
Understand how proxy servers are used in launching an
attack
ÛÛ
How do anonymizers work?
ÛÛ
Understand HTTP tunneling techniques
ÛÛ
Understand IP spoofing techniques
ÛÛ
What is enumeration?
ÛÛ
What is meant by null sessions?
ÛÛ
What is SNMP enumeration?
ÛÛ
What are the steps involved in performing enumeration?
Review Questions
Review Questions
1.
What port number does FTP use?
A. 21
B.
2.
25
C.
23
D.
80
What port number does HTTPS use?
A. 443
3.
B.
80
C.
53
D.
21
What is war dialing used for?
A. Testing firewall security
4.
B.
Testing remote access system security
C.
Configuring a proxy filtering gateway
D.
Configuring a firewall
Banner grabbing is an example of what?
A. Passive operating system fingerprinting
5.
B.
Active operating system fingerprinting
C.
Footprinting
D.
Application analysis
What are the three types of scanning?
A. Port, network, and vulnerability
6.
B.
Port, network, and services
C.
Grey, black, and white hat
D.
Server, client, and network
What is the main problem with using only ICMP queries for scanning?
A. The port is not always available.
B.
The protocol is unreliable.
C.
Systems may not respond because of a firewall.
D.
Systems may not have the service running.
89
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90
7.
N
Gathering Network and Host Information: Scanning and Enumeration
What does the TCP RST command do?
A. Starts a TCP connection
8.
B.
Restores the connection to a previous state
C.
Finishes a TCP connection
D.
Resets the TCP connection
What is the proper sequence of a TCP connection?
A. SYN-SYN-ACK-ACK
9.
B.
SYN-ACK-FIN
C.
SYN-SYNACK-ACK
D.
SYN-PSH-ACK
A packet with all flags set is which type of scan?
A. Full Open
B.
Syn scan
C.
XMAS
D.
TCP connect
10. What is the proper command to perform an nmap SYN scan every 5 minutes?
A. nmap -ss - paranoid
B.
nmap -sS -paranoid
C.
nmap -sS -fast
D.
namp -sS -sneaky
11. To prevent a hacker from using SMB session hijacking, which TCP and UDP ports would
you block at the firewall?
A. 167 and 137
B.
80 and 23
C.
139 and 445
D.
1277 and 1270
12. Why would an attacker want to perform a scan on port 137?
A. To locate the FTP service on the target host
B.
To check for file and print sharing on Windows systems
C.
To discover proxy servers on a network
D.
To discover a target system with the NetBIOS null session vulnerability
Review Questions
91
13. SNMP is a protocol used to manage network infrastructure devices. What is the SNMP
read/write community name used for?
A. Viewing the configuration information
B.
Changing the configuration information
C.
Monitoring the device for errors
D.
Controlling the SNMP management station
14. Why would the network security team be concerned about ports 135–139 being open on a
system?
A. SMB is enabled, and the system is susceptible to null sessions.
B.
SMB is not enabled, and the system is susceptible to null sessions.
C.
Windows RPC is enabled, and the system is susceptible to Windows DCOM remote
sessions.
D.
Windows RPC is not enabled, and the system is susceptible to Windows DCOM
remote sessions.
15. Which step comes after enumerating users in the CEH hacking cycle?
A. Crack password
B.
Escalate privileges
C.
Scan
D.
Cover tracks
16. What is enumeration?
A. Identifying active systems on the network
B.
Cracking passwords
C.
Identifying users and machine names
D.
Identifying routers and firewalls
17. What is a command-line tool used to look up a username from a SID?
A. UsertoSID
B.
Userenum
C.
SID2User
D.
GetAcct
18. Which tool can be used to perform a DNS zone transfer on Windows?
A. NSlookup
B.
DNSlookup
C.
Whois
D.
IPconfig
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Gathering Network and Host Information: Scanning and Enumeration
19. What is a null session?
A. Connecting to a system with the administrator username and password
B.
Connecting to a system with the admin username and password
C.
Connecting to a system with a random username and password
D.
Connecting to a system with no username and password
20. What is a countermeasure for SNMP enumeration?
A. Remove the SNMP agent from the device.
B.
Shut down ports 135 and 139 at the firewall.
C.
Shut down ports 80 and 443 at the firewall.
D.
Enable SNMP read-only security on the agent device.
Answers to Review Questions
93
Answers to Review Questions
1.
A. FTP uses TCP port 21. This is a well-known port number and can be found in the Windows Services file.
2.
A. HTTPS uses TCP port 443. This is a well-known port number and can be found in the
Windows Services file.
3.
B. War dialing involves placing calls to a series of numbers in hopes that a modem will
answer the call. It can be used to test the security of a remote-access system.
4.
A. Banner grabbing is not detectible; therefore it is considered passive OS fingerprinting.
5.
A. Port, network, and vulnerability are the three types of scanning.
6.
C. Systems may not respond to ICMP because they have firewall software installed that
blocks the responses.
7.
D. The TCP RST command resets the TCP connection.
8.
A. A SYN packet is followed by a SYN-ACK packet. Then, an ACK finishes a successful
TCP connection.
9.
C. An XMAS scan has all flags set.
10. B. The command nmap -sS -paranoid performs a SYN scan every 300 seconds, or 5 minutes.
11. C. Block the ports used by NetBIOS null sessions. These are 139 and 445.
12. D. Port 137 is used for NetBIOS null sessions.
13. B. The SNMP read/write community name is the password used to make changes to the
device configuration.
14. A. Ports in the 135 to 139 range indicate the system has SMB services running and is susceptible to null sessions.
15. A. Password cracking is the next step in the CEH hacking cycle after
enumerating users.
16. C. Enumeration is the process of finding usernames, machine names, network shares, and
services on the network.
17. C. SID2User is a command-line tool that is used to find a username from a SID.
18. A. NSlookup is a Windows tool that can be used to initiate a DNS zone transfer that sends
all the DNS records to a hacker’s system.
19. D. A null session involves connecting to a system with no username and password.
20. A. The best countermeasure to SNMP enumeration is to remove the SNMP agent from the
device. Doing so prevents it from responding to SNMP requests.
Chapter
4
System Hacking:
Password Cracking,
Escalating Privileges,
and Hiding Files
CEH Exam ObjECtivES COvErEd in
tHiS CHaPtEr:
ÛÛ
Understand password-cracking techniques
ÛÛ
Understand different types of passwords
ÛÛ
Identify various password-cracking tools
ÛÛ
Understand escalating privileges
ÛÛ
Understand keyloggers and other spyware technologies
ÛÛ
Understand how to hide files
ÛÛ
Understand rootkits
ÛÛ
Understand steganography technologies
ÛÛ
Understand how to cover your tracks and erase evidence
Review Questions
119
Review Questions
1.
What is the process of hiding text within an image called?
A. Steganography
B.
2.
Encryption
C.
Spyware
D.
Keystroke logging
What is a rootkit?
A. A simple tool to gain access to the root of the Windows system
3.
B.
A Trojan that sends information to an SMB relay
C.
An invasive program that affects the system files, including the kernel and libraries
D.
A tool to perform a buffer overflow
Why would hackers want to cover their tracks?
A. To prevent another person from using the programs they have installed on a target system
4.
B.
To prevent detection or discovery
C.
To prevent hacking attempts
D.
To keep other hackers from using their tools
What is privilege escalation?
A. Creating a user account with higher privileges
5.
B.
Creating a user account with administrator privileges
C.
Creating two user accounts: one with high privileges and one with lower privileges
D.
Increasing privileges on a user account
What are two methods used to hide files? (Choose all that apply.)
A. NTFS file streaming
6.
B.
attrib command
C.
Steganography
D.
Encrypted File System
What is the recommended password-change interval?
A. 30 days
B.
20 days
C.
1 day
D.
7 days
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N
System Hacking
What type of password attack would be most successful against the password T63k#s23A?
A. Dictionary
8.
B.
Hybrid
C.
Password guessing
D.
Brute force
Which of the following is a passive online attack?
A. Password guessing
9.
B.
Network sniffing
C.
Brute-force attack
D.
Dictionary attack
Why is it necessary to clear the event log after using the auditpol command to turn off
logging?
A. The auditpol command places an entry in the event log.
B.
The auditpol command doesn’t stop logging until the event log has been cleared.
C.
auditpol relies on the event log to determine whether logging is taking place.
D.
The event log doesn’t need to be cleared after running the auditpol command.
10. What is necessary in order to install a hardware keylogger on a target system?
A. The IP address of the system
B.
The administrator username and password
C.
Physical access to the system
D.
Telnet access to the system
11. What is the easiest method to get a password?
A. Brute-force cracking
B.
Guessing
C.
Dictionary attack
D.
Hybrid attack
12. Which command is used to cover tracks on a target system?
A. elsave
B.
coverit
C.
legion
D.
nmap
Review Questions
121
13. What type of hacking application is Snow?
A. Password cracker
B.
Privilege escalation
C.
Spyware
D.
Steganography
14. What is the first thing a hacker should do after gaining administrative access to a system?
A. Create a new user account
B.
Change the administrator password
C.
Copy important data files
D.
Disable auditing
15. Which of the following programs is a steganography detection tool?
A. Stegdetect
B.
Stegoalert
C.
Stegstopper
D.
Stegorama
16. Which countermeasure tool will detect NTFS streams?
A. Windows Security Manager
B.
LNS
C.
Auditpol
D.
RPS
17. Which program is used to create NTFS streams?
A. StreamIT
B.
makestrm.exe
C.
NLS
D.
Windows Explorer
18. Why is it important to clear the event log after disabling auditing?
A. An entry is created that the administrator has logged on.
B.
An entry is created that a hacking attempt is underway.
C.
An entry is created that indicates auditing has been disabled.
D.
The system will shut down otherwise.
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System Hacking
19. What is the most dangerous type of rootkit?
A. Kernel level
B.
Library level
C.
System level
D.
Application level
20. What is the command to hide a file using the attrib command?
A. att +h [file/directory]
B.
attrib +h [file/directory]
C.
attrib hide [file/directory]
D.
hide [file/directory]
Answers to Review Questions
123
Answers to Review Questions
1.
A. Steganography is the process of hiding text within an image.
2.
C. A rootkit is a program that modifies the core of the operating system: the kernel and
libraries.
3.
B. Hackers cover their tracks to keep from having their identity or location discovered.
4.
D. Privilege escalation is a hacking method to increase privileges on a user account.
5.
A, B. NTFS file streaming and the attrib command are two hacking techniques used to
hide files.
6.
A. Passwords should be changed every 30 days for the best balance of security and usability.
7.
D. A brute-force attack tries every combination of letters, numbers, and symbols.
8.
B. Network sniffing is a passive online attack because it can’t be detected.
9.
A. The event log must be cleared because the auditpol command places an entry in the
event log indicating that logging has been disabled.
10. C. A hardware keylogger is an adapter that connects the keyboard to the PC. A hacker
needs physical access to the PC in order to plug in the hardware keylogger.
11. B. The easiest way to get a password is to guess the password. For this reason it is important to create strong passwords and to not reuse passwords.
12. A. elsave is a command used to clear the event log and cover a hacker’s tracks.
13. D. Snow is a steganography program used to hide data within the whitespace of text files.
14. D. The first thing a hacker should do after gaining administrative level access to a system is
disable system auditing to prevent detection and attempt to cover tracks.
15. A. Stegdetect is a steganography detection tool.
16. B. LNS is an NTFS countermeasure tool used to detect NTFS streams.
17. B. makestrm.exe is a program used to make NTFS streams.
18. C. It is important to clear the event log after disabling auditing because an entry is created
indicating that auditing is disabled.
19. A. A kernel-level rootkit is the most dangerous because it infects the core of the system.
20. B. attrib +h [file/directory] is the command used to hide a file using the hide
attribute.
Chapter
5
Trojans, Backdoors,
Viruses, and Worms
CEH Exam OBjECTiVEs COVErEd in
THis CHapTEr:
ÛÛ
What is a Trojan?
ÛÛ
What is meant by overt and covert channels?
ÛÛ
List the different types of Trojans
ÛÛ
What are the indications of a Trojan attack?
ÛÛ
Understand how the “Netcat” Trojan works
ÛÛ
What is meant by “wrapping”?
ÛÛ
How do reverse connecting Trojans work?
ÛÛ
What are the countermeasure techniques in preventing
Trojans?
ÛÛ
Understand Trojan evading techniques
ÛÛ
Understand the differences between a virus and a worm
ÛÛ
Understand the types of viruses
ÛÛ
How a virus spreads and infects a system
ÛÛ
Understand antivirus evasion techniques
ÛÛ
Understand virus detection methods
Review Questions
147
Review Questions
1.
What is a wrapper?
A. A Trojaned system
B.
2.
A program used to combine a Trojan and legitimate software into a single executable
C.
A program used to combine a Trojan and a backdoor into a single executable
D.
A way of accessing a Trojaned system
What is the difference between a backdoor and a Trojan?
A. A Trojan usually provides a backdoor for a hacker.
3.
B.
A backdoor must be installed first.
C.
A Trojan is not a way to access a system.
D.
A backdoor is provided only through a virus, not through a Trojan.
What port does Tini use by default?
A. 12345
4.
B.
71
C.
7777
D.
666
Which is the best Trojan and backdoor countermeasure?
A. Scan the hard drive on network connection, and educate users not to install unknown
software.
5.
B.
Implement a network firewall.
C.
Implement personal firewall software.
D.
Educate systems administrators about the risks of using systems without firewalls.
E.
Scan the hard drive on startup.
How do you remove a Trojan from a system?
A. Search the Internet for freeware removal tools.
6.
B.
Purchase commercially available tools to remove the Trojan.
C.
Reboot the system.
D.
Uninstall and reinstall all applications.
What is ICMP tunneling?
A. Tunneling ICMP messages through HTTP
B.
Tunneling another protocol through ICMP
C.
An overt channel
D.
Sending ICMP commands using a different protocol
Chapter 5
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N
Trojans, Backdoors, Viruses, and Worms
What is reverse WWW shell?
A. Connecting to a website using a tunnel
8.
B.
A Trojan that connects from the server to the client using HTTP
C.
A Trojan that issues commands to the client using HTTP
D.
Connecting through a firewall
What is a covert channel?
A. Using a communications channel in a way that was not intended
9.
B.
Tunneling software
C.
A Trojan removal tool
D.
Using a communications channel in the original, intended way
What is the purpose of system file verification?
A. To find system files
B.
To determine whether system files have been changed or modified
C.
To find out if a backdoor has been installed
D.
To remove a Trojan
10. Which of the following is an example of a covert channel?
A. Reverse WWW shell
B.
Firewalking
C.
SNMP enumeration
D.
Steganography
11. What is the difference between a virus and a worm?
A. A virus can infect the boot sector but a worm cannot.
B.
A worm spreads by itself but a virus must attach to an email.
C.
A worm spreads by itself but a virus must attach to another program.
D.
A virus is written in C++ but a worm is written in shell code.
12. What type of virus modifies itself to avoid detection?
A. Stealth virus
B.
Polymorphic virus
C.
Multipartite virus
D.
Armored virus
Review Questions
13. Which virus spreads through Word macros?
A. Melissa
B.
Slammer
C.
Sobig
D.
Blaster
14. Which worm affects SQL servers?
A. Sobig
B.
SQL Blaster
C.
SQL Slammer
D.
Melissa
15. Which of the following describes armored viruses?
A. Hidden
B.
Tunneled
C.
Encrypted
D.
Stealth
16. What are the three methods used to detect a virus?
A. Scanning
B.
Integrity checking
C.
Virus signature comparison
D.
Firewall rules
E.
IDS anomaly detection
F.
Sniffing
17. What components of a system do viruses infect? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Files
B.
System sectors
C.
Memory
D.
CPU
E.
DLL files
18. Which of the following are the best indications of a virus attack? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Any anomalous behavior
B.
Unusual program opening or closing
C.
Strange pop-up messages
D.
Normal system operations as most viruses run in the background
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Trojans, Backdoors, Viruses, and Worms
19. A virus that can cause multiple infections is known as what type of virus?
A. Multipartite
B.
Stealth
C.
Camouflage
D.
Multi-infection
20. Which of the following is a way to evade an antivirus program?
A. Write a custom virus script.
B.
Write a custom virus signature.
C.
Write a custom virus evasion program.
D.
Write a custom virus detection program.
Answers to Review Questions
151
Answers to Review Questions
1.
B. A wrapper is software used to combine a Trojan and legitimate software into a single
executable so that the Trojan is installed during the installation of the other software. After
a Trojan has been installed, a system is considered “Trojaned.” A backdoor is a way of
accessing a Trojaned system and can be part of the behavior of a Trojan.
2.
A. A Trojan infects a system first and usually includes a backdoor for later access. The
backdoor is not installed independently, but is part of a Trojan. A Trojan is one way a
hacker can access a system.
3.
C. Tini uses port 7777 by default. Doom uses port 666.
4.
A. The best prevention is to scan the hard drive for known Trojans on network connections and backdoors and to educate users not to install any unknown software. Scanning
the hard drive at startup is a good method for detecting a Trojan, but will not prevent its
installation. User education is an important component of security but will not always and
consistently prevent a Trojan attack.
5.
B. To remove a Trojan, you should use commercial tools. Many freeware tools contain Trojans
or other malware. Rebooting the system alone will not remove a Trojan from the system.
Uninstalling and reinstalling applications will not remove a Trojan as it infects the OS.
6.
B. ICMP tunneling involves sending what appear to be ICMP commands but really are
Trojan communications. An overt channel sends data via a normal communication path
such as via email. Sending or tunneling ICMP within another protocol such as HTTP is not
considered ICMP tunneling.
7.
B. Reverse WWW shell is a connection from a Trojan server component on the compromised system to the Trojan client on the hacker’s system. Connecting to a website using
tunneling or through a firewall is not considered a reverse WWW shell.
8.
A. A covert channel is the use of a protocol or communications channel in a nontraditional
way. Tunneling software is one way of using a covert channel but does not necessarily
define all covert channels. Using a communications channel in the original intended way is
considered an overt channel.
9.
B. System file verification tracks changes made to system files and ensures that a Trojan has
not overwritten a critical system file. System files and backdoors are not located using system file verification. To remove a Trojan, you should use commercial removal tools.
10. A. Reverse WWW shell is an example of a covert channel. Firewalking is enumerating a
firewall for firewall rules, allowed traffic, and open ports. Steganography is hiding information in text or graphics. SNMP enumeration is used to identify SNMP MIB settings on
networking devices.
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Trojans, Backdoors, Viruses, and Worms
11. C. A worm can replicate itself automatically, but a virus must attach to another program.
Viruses are not always spread via email but can also be attached to other programs or
installed directly by tricking the user. Both viruses and worms can infect the boot sector.
The programming language is not used to categorize malware as either viruses or worms.
12. B. A polymorphic virus modifies itself to evade detection. Stealth viruses hide the normal
virus characteristics to prevent detection. Multipartite viruses are viruses that create multiple infections or infect multiple files or programs. Armored viruses use encryption to evade
detection.
13. A. Melissa is a virus that spreads via Word macros. Slammer and Blaster are actually worm
infections, not viruses. Sobig is another type of virus.
14. C. SQL Slammer is a worm that attacks SQL servers. Melissa affects Word files through
the use of macros. There is no such worm as SQL Blaster.
15. C. Armored viruses are encrypted. They are not by nature tunneled and do not change
characteristics, as do stealth viruses. Also, armored viruses are not hidden in any other way.
16. A, B, C. Scanning, integrity checking, and virus signature comparison are three ways to
detect a virus infection. Firewalls, IDS anomaly detection, and sniffing all work at lower
layers of the OSI model and are not able to detect viruses.
17. A, B, E. A virus can affect files, system sectors, and DLL files. Memory and CPU cannot be
infected by viruses.
18. B, C. Trojans, backdoors, spyware, and other malicious software can cause a system to not
act normally. Any indications of programs opening or closing without user intervention,
unresponsive programs, unusual error messages, or pop-ups could indicate any type of malware has infected the system. But not all anomalous behavior can be attributed to a virus.
19. A. A multipartite virus can cause multiple infections. Stealth viruses hide the normal virus
characteristics to prevent detection. Camouflage and multi-infection are not categories of
viruses.
20. A. A custom virus script can be used to evade detection because the script will not match a
virus signature.
Chapter
6
Gathering Data from
Networks: Sniffers
CEH Exam ObjECtivES COvErED iN
tHiS CHaptEr:
ÛÛ
Understand the protocol susceptible to sniffing
ÛÛ
Understand active and passive sniffing
ÛÛ
Understand ARP poisoning
ÛÛ
Understand ethereal capture and display filters
ÛÛ
Understand MAC flooding
ÛÛ
Understand DNS spoofing techniques
ÛÛ
Describe sniffing countermeasures
Chapter 6
168
n
Gathering Data from Networks: Sniffers
Review Questions
1.
What is sniffing?
A. Sending corrupted data on the network to trick a system
2.
B.
Capturing and deciphering traffic on a network
C.
Corrupting the ARP cache on a target system
D.
Performing a password-cracking attack
What is a countermeasure to passive sniffing?
A. Implementing a switched network
3.
B.
Implementing a shared network
C.
ARP spoofing
D.
Port-based security
What type of device connects systems on a shared network?
A. Routers
4.
B.
Gateways
C.
Hubs
D.
Switches
Which of the following is a countermeasure to ARP spoofing?
A. Port-based security
5.
B.
WinTCPkill
C.
Wireshark
D.
MAC-based security
What is dsniff?
A. A MAC spoofing tool
6.
B.
An IP address spoofing tool
C.
A collection of hacking tools
D.
A sniffer
At what layer of the OSI model is data formatted into packets?
A. Layer 1
B.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 3
D.
Layer 4
Review Questions
7.
What is snort?
A. An IDS and packet sniffer
8.
B.
Only an IDS
C.
Only a packet sniffer
D.
Only a frame sniffer
What mode must a network card operate in to perform sniffing?
A. Shared
9.
B.
Unencrypted
C.
Open
D.
Promiscuous
The best defense against any type of sniffing is
.
A. Encryption
B.
A switched network
C.
Port-based security
D.
A good security training program
10. For what type of traffic can WinSniffer capture passwords? (Choose all that apply.)
A. POP3
B.
SMTP
C.
HTTP
D.
HTTPS
11. Which of the following software tools can perform sniffing? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Dsniff
B.
Wireshark
C.
NetBSD
D.
Netcraft
12. At what layer of the OSI model is data formatted into frames?
A. Layer 1
B.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 3
D.
Layer 4
13. In which type of header are MAC addresses located?
A. Layer 1
B.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 3
D.
Layer 7
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14. In which type of header are IP addresses located?
A. Layer 1
B.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 3
D.
Layer 7
15. In which header do port numbers appear?
A. IP
B.
MAC
C.
Data Link
D.
Transport
16. What is the proper Wireshark filter to capture traffic only sent from IP address 131.1.4.7?
A. ip.src == 131.1.4.7
B.
ip.address.src == 131.1.4.7
C.
ip.source.address == 131.1.4.7
D.
src.ip == 131.1.4.7
17. Which Wireshark filter will only capture traffic to www.google.com?
A. ip.dst = www.google.com
B.
ip.dst eq www.google.com
C.
ip.dst == www.google.com
D.
http.dst == www.google.com
18. Passwords are found in which layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B.
IP
C.
Data Link
D.
Physical
19. Wireshark was previously known as
.
A. Packet Sniffer
B.
Ethereal
C.
EtherPeek
D.
SniffIT
20. Cain & Abel can perform which of the following functions? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Sniffing
B.
Packet generation
C.
Password cracking
D.
ARP poisoning
Answers to Review Questions
171
Answers to Review Questions
1.
B. Sniffing is the process of capturing and analyzing data on a network.
2.
A. By implementing a switched network, passive sniffing attacks are prevented.
3.
C. A network connected via hubs is called a shared network.
4.
A. Port-based security implemented on a switch prevents ARP spoofing.
5.
C. Dsniff is a group of hacking tools.
6.
C. Packets are created and used to carry data at Layer 3.
7.
A. Snort is both an intrusion detection system (IDS) and a sniffer.
8.
D. A network card must operate in promiscuous mode in order to capture traffic destined
for a different MAC address than its own.
9.
A. Encryption renders the information captured in a sniffer useless to a hacker.
10. A, B, C. WinSniffer can capture passwords for POP3, SMTP, and HTTP traffic.
11. A, B. Dsniff and Wireshark are sniffer software tools.
12. B. Data is formatted into frames at Layer 2.
13. B. MAC addresses are added in the Layer 2 header.
14. C. IP addresses are added in the Layer 3 header.
15. D. Port numbers are in the Transport layer.
16. A. ip.src == 131.1.4.7 will capture traffic sent from IP address 131.1.4.7.
17. B. ip.dst eq www.google.com is the filter that will capture traffic with the destination
www.google.com.
18. A. Most passwords such as HTTP, FTP, and telnet passwords are found at the Application
layer of the OSI model.
19. B. Wireshark was previously called Ethereal.
20. A, C, D. Cain & Abel can perform sniffing, password cracking, and ARP poisoning.
Chapter
7
Denial of Service and
Session Hijacking
CEH Exam ObjECtivES COvErED in
tHiS CHaptEr:
ÛÛ
Understand the types of DoS attacks
ÛÛ
Understand how a DDoS attack works
ÛÛ
Understand how BOTs/BOTNETs work
ÛÛ
What is a “smurf” attack?
ÛÛ
What is “SYN” flooding?
ÛÛ
Describe the DoS/DDoS countermeasures
ÛÛ
Understand spoofing vs. hijacking
ÛÛ
List the types of session hijacking
ÛÛ
Understand sequence prediction
ÛÛ
What are the steps in performing session hijacking?
ÛÛ
Describe how you would prevent session hijacking
Review Questions
Review Questions
1.
Which is a method to prevent denial-of-service attacks?
A. Static routing
B.
2.
Traffic filtering
C.
Firewall rules
D.
Personal firewall
What is a zombie?
A. A compromised system used to launch a DDoS attack
3.
B.
The hacker’s computer
C.
The victim of a DDoS attack
D.
A compromised system that is the target of a DDoS attack
The Trinoo tool uses what protocol to perform a DoS attack?
A. TCP
4.
B.
IP
C.
UDP
D.
HTTP
What is the first phase of a DDoS attack?
A. Intrusion
5.
B.
Attack
C.
DoS
D.
Finding a target system
Which tool can run eight different types of DoS attacks?
A. Ping of Death
6.
B.
Trinoo
C.
Targa
D.
TFN2K
What is a smurf attack?
A. Sending a large amount of ICMP traffic with a spoofed source address
B.
Sending a large amount of TCP traffic with a spoofed source address
C.
Sending a large number of TCP connection requests with a spoofed source address
D.
Sending a large number of TCP connection requests
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Denial of Service and Session Hijacking
What is a LAND attack? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Sending oversized ICMP packets
8.
B.
Sending packets to a victim with a source address set to the victim’s IP address
C.
Sending packets to a victim with a destination address set to the victim’s IP address
D.
Sending a packet with the same source and destination address
What is the Ping of Death?
A. Sending packets that, when reassembled, are too large for the system to understand
9.
B.
Sending very large packets that cause a buffer overflow
C.
Sending packets very quickly to fill up the receiving buffer
D.
Sending a TCP packet with the fragment offset out of bounds
How does a denial-of-service attack work? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cracks passwords, causing the system to crash
B.
Imitates a valid user
C.
Prevents a legitimate user from using a system or service
D.
Attempts to break the authentication method
10. What is the goal of a DoS attack?
A. To capture files from a remote system
B.
To incapacitate a system or network
C.
To exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
D.
To execute a Trojan using the hidden shares
11. Which of the following tools is only for Sun Solaris systems?
A. Juggernaut
B.
T-Sight
C.
IP Watcher
D.
TTYWatcher
12. What is a sequence number?
A. A number that indicates where a packet falls in the data stream
B.
A way of sending information from the sending to the receiving station
C.
A number that the hacker randomly chooses in order to hijack a session
D.
A number used in reconstructing a UDP session
Review Questions
191
13. What type of information can be obtained during a session-hijacking attack? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Passwords
B.
Credit card numbers
C.
Confidential data
D.
Authentication information
14. Which of the following is essential information to a hacker performing a session-hijacking
attack?
A. Session ID
B.
Session number
C.
Sequence number
D.
Source IP address
15. Which of the following is a session-hijacking tool that runs on Linux operating systems?
A. Juggernaut
B.
Hunt
C.
TTYWatcher
D.
TCP Reset Utility
16. Which of the following is the best countermeasure to session hijacking?
A. Port filtering firewall
B.
Encryption
C.
Session monitoring
D.
Strong passwords
17. Which of the following best describes sniffing?
A. Gathering packets to locate IP addresses in order to initiate a session-hijacking attack
B.
Analyzing packets in order to locate the sequence number to start a session hijack
C.
Monitoring TCP sessions in order to initiate a session-hijacking attack
D.
Locating a host susceptible to a session-hijack attack
18. What is session hijacking?
A. Monitoring UDP sessions
B.
Monitoring TCP sessions
C.
Taking over UDP sessions
D.
Taking over TCP sessions
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Denial of Service and Session Hijacking
19. What types of packets are sent to the victim of a session-hijacking attack to cause them to
close their end of the connection?
A. FIN and ACK
B.
SYN or ACK
C.
SYN and ACK
D.
FIN or RST
20. What is an ISN?
A. Initiation session number
B.
Initial sequence number
C.
Initial session number
D.
Indication sequence number
Answers to Review Questions
193
Answers to Review Questions
1.
B. Traffic filtering is a method to prevent DoS attacks. Static routing will not prevent DoS
attacks as it does not perform any traffic filtering or blocking. Firewall rules and personal
firewalls will not stop traffic associated with a DoS attack but will help detect an attack.
2.
A. A zombie is a compromised system used to launch a DDoS attack.
3.
C. Trinoo uses UDP to flood the target system with data.
4.
A. The intrusion phase compromises and recruits zombie systems to use in the coordinated
attack phase.
5.
C. Targa is able to send eight different types of DoS attacks.
6.
A. A smurf attack sends a large number of ICMP request frames with a spoofed address of
the victim system.
7.
A, B. A LAND attack sends packets to a system with that system as the source address,
causing the system to try to reply to itself.
8.
A. The Ping of Death attack sends packets that, when reassembled, are too large and cause
the system to crash or lock up.
9.
C. A DoS attack works by preventing legitimate users from accessing the system.
10. B. The goal of a DoS attack is to overload a system and cause it to stop responding.
11. D. TTYWatcher is used to perform session hijacking on Sun Solaris systems.
12. A. A sequence number indicates where the packet is located in the data stream so the
receiving station can reassemble the data.
13. A, B, C. Passwords, credit card numbers, and other confidential data can be gathered in a
session-hijacking attack. Authentication information isn’t accessible because session hijacking
occurs after the user has authenticated.
14. C. In order to perform a session-hijacking attack, the hacker must know the sequence
number to use in the next packet so the server will accept the packet.
15. A. Juggernaut runs on Linux operating systems.
16. B. Encryption makes any information the hacker gathers during a session-hijacking attempt
unreadable.
17. B. Sniffing is usually used to locate the sequence number, which is necessary for a session
hijack.
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Denial of Service and Session Hijacking
18. D. The most common form of session hijacking is the process of taking over a TCP session.
19. D. FIN (finish) and RST (reset) packets are sent to the victim to desynchronize their connection and cause them to close the existing connection.
20. B. ISN is the initial sequence number that is sent by the host and is the starting point for
the sequence numbers used in later packets.
Chapter
8
Web Hacking:
Google, Web Servers,
Web Application
Vulnerabilities, and
Web-Based Password
Cracking Techniques
CEH ExAm OBjECTiVES COVErEd in
THiS CHAPTEr:
ÛÛ
List the types of web server vulnerabilities
ÛÛ
Understand the attacks against web servers
ÛÛ
Understand IIS Unicode exploits
ÛÛ
Understand patch-management techniques
ÛÛ
Understand Web Application Scanner
ÛÛ
What is the Metasploit Framework?
ÛÛ
Describe web server hardening methods
ÛÛ
Understand how web applications work
ÛÛ
Objectives of web application hacking
ÛÛ
Anatomy of an attack
ÛÛ
Web application threats
ÛÛ
Understand Google hacking
ÛÛ
Understand web application countermeasures
Chapter 8
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n
Web Hacking
Review Questions
1.
Which of the following are types of HTTP web authentication? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Digest
2.
B.
Basic
C.
Windows
D.
Kerberos
Which of the following is a countermeasure for a buffer overflow attack?
A. Input field length validation
3.
B.
Encryption
C.
Firewall
D.
Use of web forms
A hardware device that displays a login that changes every 60 seconds is known as a/an
.
A. Login finder
4.
B.
Authentication server
C.
Biometric authentication
D.
Token
Which is a common web server vulnerability?
A. Limited user accounts
5.
B.
Default installation
C.
Open shares
D.
No directory access
A password of P@SSWORD can be cracked using which type of attack?
A. Brute force
B.
6.
Hybrid
C.
Dictionary
D.
Zero day exploit
Which of the following is a countermeasure for authentication hijacking?
A. Authentication logging
B.
Kerberos
C.
SSL
D.
Active Directory
Review Questions
7.
217
Why is a web server more commonly attacked than other systems?
A. A web server is always accessible.
8.
B.
Attacking a web server does not require much hacking ability.
C.
Web servers are usually placed in a secure DMZ.
D.
Web servers are simple to exploit.
A client/server program that resides on a web server is called a/an
.
A. Internet program
9.
B.
Web application
C.
Patch
D.
Configuration file
Which is a countermeasure to a directory-traversal attack?
A. Enforce permissions to folders.
B.
Allow everyone access to the default page only.
C.
Allow only registered users to access the home page of a website.
D.
Make all users log in to access folders.
10. What is it called when a hacker inserts programming commands into a web form?
A. Form tampering
B.
Command injection
C.
Buffer overflow
D.
Web form attack
11. Which of the following commands would start to execute a banner grab against a web server?
A. telnet www.yahoo.com 80
B.
telnet HTTP www.yahoo.com
C.
http://www.yahoo.com:80
D.
HEAD www.yahoo.com
12. Which of the following exploits can be used against Microsoft Internet Information (IIS)
Server? (Choose all that apply.)
A. IPP printer overflow attack
B.
ISAPI DLL buffer overflow attack
C.
Long URL attack
D.
Proxy buffer overflow attack
13. Where does the most valuable target information reside on a web server?
A. Web server home directory
B.
Web application system files
C.
Web application database
D.
NTHOME directory
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n
Web Hacking
14. Which of the following hacking tools performs directory-traversal attacks on IIS?
A. RPC DCOM
B.
IIScrack.dll
C.
WebInspect
15. Which program can be used to download entire websites?
A. WebSleuth
B.
WSDigger
C.
Wget
D.
BlackWidow
16. Web servers support which of the following authentication credentials? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Certificates
B.
Tokens
C.
Biometrics
D.
Kerberos
17. Which tool can be used to pull all email addresses from a website?
A. WebSleuth
B.
WSDigger
C.
Wget
D.
BlackWidow
18. What does SiteScope do?
A. Maps out connections in web applications
B.
Views the HTML source for all web pages in a site
C.
Gathers email address from websites
D.
Tests exploits against web applications
19. What are the three primary types of attacks against IIS servers?
A. Directory traversal
B.
Buffer overflows
C.
Authentication attacks
D.
Source disclosure attacks
20. Which of the following is a common website attack that allows a hacker to deface a website? (Choose all that apply)
A. Using a DNS attack to redirect users to a different web server
B.
Revealing an administrator password through a brute-force attack
C.
Using a directory-traversal attack
D.
Using a buffer overflow attack via a web form
Answers to Review Questions
219
Answers to Review Questions
1.
A, B. Digest and basic are the types of HTTP web authentication.
2.
A. Validating the field length and performing bounds checking are countermeasures for a
buffer overflow attack.
3.
D. A token is a hardware device containing a screen that displays a discrete set of numbers
used for login and authentication.
4.
B. Default installation is a common web server vulnerability.
5.
B. A hybrid attack substitutes numbers and special characters for letters.
6.
C. SSL is a countermeasure for authentication hijacking.
7.
A. A web server is always accessible, so a hacker can hack it more easily than less-available
systems.
8.
B. Web applications are client/server programs that reside on a web server.
9.
A. A countermeasure to a directory-traversal attack is to enforce permissions to folders.
10. B. Command injection involves a hacker entering programming commands into a web
form in order to get the web server to execute the commands.
11. A. To make an initial connection to the web server, use telnet to port 80.
12. A, B. IPP printer overflow and ISAPI DLL buffer overflow attacks are types of buffer overflow attacks that can be used to exploit IIS Server.
13. C. The most valuable target data, such as passwords, credit card numbers, and personal
information, reside in the database of a web application.
14. D. IISExploit.exe is a tool used to perform automated directory-traversal attacks on IIS.
15. C. Wget is a command-line tool that can be used to download an entire website with all the
source files.
16. A, B, C. Certificates, tokens. and biometrics are all credentials that can authenticate users
to web servers and web applications. Kerberos is a type of security system used to protect
user authentication credentials.
17. A. WebSleuth can be used to index a website and specifically pull email addresses from all
the pages of a website.
18. A. SiteScope maps out the connections within a web application and aids in the deconstruction of the program.
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19. A, B, D. The three most common attacks against IIS are directory traversal, buffer overflows, and source disclosure.
20. A, B. Using a DNS attack to redirect users to a different web server and revealing an administrator password through a brute-force attack are two methods of defacing a website.
Chapter
9
Attacking
Applications:
SQL Injection and
Buffer Overflows
CEH ExAm OBjECtIvES COvErEd In
tHIS CHAptEr:
ÛÛ
What is SQL injection?
ÛÛ
Understand the steps to conduct SQL injection
ÛÛ
Understand SQL Server vulnerabilities
ÛÛ
Describe SQL injection countermeasures
ÛÛ
Overview of stack-based buffer overflows
ÛÛ
Identify the different types of buffer overflows and
methods of detection
ÛÛ
Overview of buffer overflow mutation techniques
Review Questions
Review Questions
1.
Entering Password::blah’ or 1=1- into a web form in order to get a password is an
example of what type of attack?
A. Buffer overflow
2.
B.
Heap-based overflow
C.
Stack-based overflow
D.
SQL injection
Replacing NOP instructions with other code in a buffer overflow mutation serves what
purpose?
A. Bypassing an IDS
3.
B.
Overwriting the return pointer
C.
Advancing the return pointer
D.
Bypassing a firewall
Which of the following is used to store dynamically allocated variables?
A. Heap overflow
4.
B.
Stack overflow
C.
Heap
D.
Stack
What is the first step in a SQL injection attack?
A. Enter arbitrary commands at a user prompt.
5.
B.
Locate a user input field on a web page.
C.
Locate the return pointer.
D.
Enter a series of NOP instructions.
What command is used to retrieve information from a SQL database?
A. INSERT
6.
B.
GET
C.
SET
D.
SELECT
Which of the following is a countermeasure for buffer overflows?
A. Not using single quotes
B.
Securing all login pages with SSL
C.
Bounds checking
D.
User validation
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n
Attacking Applications: SQL Injection and Buffer Overflows
What does NOP stand for?
A. No Operation
8.
B.
Network Operation Protocol
C.
No Once Prompt
D.
Network Operation
What information does a hacker need to launch a buffer overflow attack?
A. A hacker needs to be familiar with the memory address space and techniques of buffer
overflows in order to launch a buffer overflow attack.
9.
B.
A hacker needs to understand the differences between heaps and stacks.
C.
A hacker must be able to identify a target vulnerable to a buffer overflow attack.
D.
A hacker must be able to perform a port scan looking for vulnerable memory stacks.
Why are many programs vulnerable to SQL injection and buffer overflow attacks?
A. The programs are written quickly and use poor programming techniques.
B.
These are inherent flaws in any program.
C.
The users have not applied the correct service packs.
D.
The programmers are using the wrong programming language.
10. Which command would a hacker enter in a web form field to obtain a directory listing?
A. Blah’;exec master..xp_cmdshell “dir *.*”-B.
Blah’;exec_cmdshell “dir c:\*.* /s >c:\directory.txt”--
C.
Blah’;exec master..xp_cmdshell “dir c:\*.* /s >c:\directory.txt”--
D.
Blah’;exec cmdshell “dir c:\*.* “--
11. What are two types of buffer overflow attacks?
A. Heap and stack
B.
Heap and overflow
C.
Stack and memory allocation
D.
Injection and heap
12. Variables that are gathered from a user input field in a web application for later execution
by the web application are known as
.
A. Delayed execution
B.
Dynamic strings
C.
Static variables
D.
Automatic functions
Review Questions
235
13. What is one purpose of SQL injection attacks?
A. To create heap-based buffer overflows
B.
To create stack-based buffer overflows
C.
To perform NOP execution
D.
To identify vulnerable parameters
14. Which application will help identify whether a website is vulnerable to SQL injection
attacks?
A. BlackWidow
B.
Metasploit
C.
Scrawlr
D.
SQL Block
15. A countermeasure to buffer overflows is to use the
because it is not susceptible to buffer overflow attacks.
programming language
A. Java
B.
Netscape
C.
Oracle
D.
ASP
16. You are a programmer analyzing the code of an application running on your organization’s
servers. There are an excessive number of fgets () commands. These are C++ functions
that do not perform bounds checking. What kind of attack is this program susceptible to?
A.
Buffer overflow
B.
Denial of service
C.
SQL injection
D.
Password cracking
17. Which of the following are countermeasures to SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Rejecting known bad input
B.
Sanitizing and validating input field
C.
Performing user validation
D.
Ensuring all user input is a variable
18. An ethical hacker is performing a penetration test on a web application. The hacker finds
a user input field on a web form and enters a single quotation mark. The website responds
with a server error. What does the error indicate?
A. The web application is susceptible to SQL injection attacks.
B.
The web application is not susceptible to SQL injection attacks.
C.
The server is experiencing a denial of service.
D.
The web application has crashed.
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Attacking Applications: SQL Injection and Buffer Overflows
19. SQL statements that vary from execution to execution are known as ______________
strings.
A. Variable
B.
Dynamic
C.
Application-based
D.
Static
20. When is a No Operation (NOP) instruction added to a string?
A. After the malicious code is executed
B.
Before the malicious code is executed
C.
At exactly the same time the malicious code is executed
D.
During the time the malicious code is executed
Answers to Review Questions
237
Answers to Review Questions
1.
D. Use of a single quote indicates a SQL injection attack.
2.
A. The purpose of mutating a buffer overflow by replacing NOP instructions is to bypass an IDS.
3.
C. A heap is using to store dynamic variables.
4.
B. The first step in a SQL injection attack is to locate a user input field on a web page using
a web browser.
5.
D. The command to retrieve information from a SQL database is SELECT.
6.
C. Performing bounds checking is a countermeasure for buffer overflow attacks.
7.
A. NOP is an acronym for No Operation.
8.
C. All a hacker needs to be able to do to launch a buffer overflow attack is to identify a
target system. A hacker can run a prewritten exploit to launch a buffer overflow.
9.
A. Programs can be exploited because they’re written quickly and poorly.
10. C. The command Blah’;exec master..xp_cmdshell “dir c:\*.* /s >c:\directory
.txt”-- obtains a directory listing utilizing SQL injection.
11. A. Heap and stack are the two types of buffer overflows.
12. B. Dynamic strings are user input fields stored for later execution by the application.
13. D. One purpose of attacking a SQL database–based application is to identify user input
parameters susceptible to SQL injection attacks.
14. C. HP’s Scrawlr will scan a web URL to determine if the site is vulnerable to SQL injection
attacks.
15. A. A recommended countermeasure to buffer overflow attacks is to use Java-based applications, which are not susceptible to buffer overflow attacks.
16. A. Applications that do not perform bounds checking on user input fields are susceptible to
buffer overflow attacks.
17. A, B. Rejecting known bad input and sanitizing and validating user input prior to sending
the command to the SQL database is a countermeasure to SQL injection attacks.
18. A. A server error in response to a single quotation mark in a web application user input
field indicates the application is not sanitizing the user data and is therefore susceptible to
SQL injection attacks.
19. B. Dynamic strings are built on the fly from user input and will vary each time the command
is executed.
20. B. A NOP instruction is added to a string just before the malicious code is to be executed.
Chapter
10
Wireless Network
Hacking
CEH Exam ObjECtivEs COvErEd iN
tHis CHaptEr:
ÛÛ
Overview of WEP, WPA authentication mechanisms, and
cracking techniques
ÛÛ
Overview of wireless sniffers and locating SSIDs, MAC
spoofing
ÛÛ
Understand rogue access points
ÛÛ
Understand wireless hacking techniques
ÛÛ
Describe the methods used to secure wireless networks
Review Questions
Review Questions
1.
Which of the following security solutions uses the same key for both encryption and
authentication?
A. WPA
B.
2.
WPA2
C.
WEP
D.
802.11i
What does WEP stands for?
A. Wireless Encryption Protocol
3.
B.
Wired Equivalent Privacy
C.
Wireless Encryption Privacy
D.
Wired Encryption Protocol
What makes WEP crackable?
A. Same key used for encryption and authentication
4.
B.
Length of the key
C.
Weakness of IV
D.
RC4
Which form of encryption does WPA use?
A. AES
5.
B.
TKIP
C.
LEAP
D.
Shared key
Which form of authentication does WPA2 use?
A. Passphrase only
6.
B.
802.1x/EAP/RADIUS
C.
Passphrase or 802.1x/EAP/RADIUS
D.
AES
802.11i is most similar to which wireless security standard?
A. WPA2
B.
WPA
C.
TKIP
D.
AES
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Which of the following is a Layer 3 security solution for WLANs?
A. MAC filter
8.
B.
WEP
C.
WPA
D.
VPN
A device that sends deauth frames is performing which type of attack against the WLAN?
A. Denial of service
9.
B.
Cracking
C.
Sniffing
D.
MAC spoofing
What is the most dangerous type of attack against a WLAN?
A. WEP cracking
B.
Rogue access point
C.
Eavesdropping
D.
MAC spoofing
10. 802.11i is implemented at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1
B.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 3
D.
Layer 7
11. Which of the following is the best option for securing a home wireless network?
A. WEP
B.
Shared-key authentication
C.
WPA-Personal
D.
WPA-Enterprise
12. You just installed a new wireless access point for your home office. Which of the following
steps should you take immediately to secure your WLAN?
A. Spoof your clients MAC address.
B.
Change the Admin password on the AP.
C.
Change the channel on the AP to Channel 11.
D.
Set the SSID to SECURE.
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257
13. What can be done on a wireless laptop to increase security when connecting to any
WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. Install and configure personal firewall software.
B.
Disable auto-connect features.
C.
Use WEP.
D.
Use MAC filtering.
14. What is an SSID used for on a WLAN?
A. To secure the WLAN
B.
To manage the WLAN settings
C.
To identify the WLAN
D.
To configure the WLAN AP
15. What is the best way to enforce a “no wireless” policy?
A. Install a personal firewall.
B.
Disable WLAN client adapters.
C.
Use a WIDS/WIPS.
D.
Only connect to open APs.
16. Which of the following is a program used to spoof a MAC address?
A. MAC Again
B.
Big MAC
C.
TMAC
D.
WZC
17. Which of the following are Layer 7 application-secure protocols used to secure data on
WLAN hotspots?
A. HTTPS
B.
HTTP
C.
FTP
D.
VPN
18. Which type of frame is used by a WIPS to prevent WLAN users from connecting to rogue
access points?
A. Disconnect
B.
Deauthentication
C.
Disable
D.
Reject
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19. WPA passphrases can consist of which of the following character sets?
A. Only a–z and A–Z
B.
Only a–z
C.
Only a–z, A–Z, and 0–9
D.
Only 0–9
20. Which of the following is a countermeasure to using WEP?
A. Use a strong WEP key of at least 20 characters.
B.
Use a WEP key that does not repeat any of the same characters.
C.
Use WPA instead of WEP.
D.
Implement a preshared key with WEP.
Answers to Review Questions
259
Answers to Review Questions
1.
C. WEP uses the same key for encryption and authentication.
2.
B. WEP is an acronym for Wired Equivalent Privacy.
3.
C. WEP is crackable because of the lack of sophistication in using the IV when deploying RC4.
4.
B. WPA uses TKIP.
5.
C. WPA2 uses either a passphrase in personal mode or 802.1x/EAP/RADIUS in
enterprise mode.
6.
A. 802.11i is almost the same as WPA2.
7.
D. A VPN is a Layer 3 security solution for WLANs.
8.
A. A DoS can be performed by a device sending constant deauth frames.
9.
B. A rogue AP is the most dangerous attack against a WLAN because it gives a hacker an
open door into the network.
10. B. 802.11i is a Layer 2 technology.
11. C. WPA-Personal has the strongest authentication and encryption usable on a home network. WPA-Enterprise requires a RADIUS server, which most home users would not have
the ability to set up and configure.
12. B. You should immediately change the Admin password on an AP’s web interface when
installing a new AP.
13. A, B. Installing and configuring personal firewall software and disabling auto-connect features are two ways to increase the security of WLAN connections.
14. C. A Service Set Identifier (SSID) is used to identify the WLAN to wireless users.
15. C. Using a wireless intrusion detection system or protection system is the best way to
enforce a “no wireless” policy.
16. C. TMAC is a program used to spoof a MAC address.
17. A. HTTPS is a secure version of HTTP commonly used to secure data on WLAN hotspots.
18. B. Deauthentication frames are used by a WIPS to prevent users from connecting to rogue APs.
19. C. WPA passphrases can be alphanumeric and include a–z, A–Z, and 0–9.
20. C. Using WPA is a countermeasure to the weakness of WEP.
Chapter
11
Physical Site Security
CEH Exam ObjECtivES COvErEd in
tHiS CHaPtEr:
ÛÛ
Physical security breach incidents
ÛÛ
Understanding physical security
ÛÛ
What is the need for physical security?
ÛÛ
Who is accountable for physical security?
ÛÛ
Factors affecting physical security
Review Questions
275
Review Questions
1.
Who is responsible for implementing physical security? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The owner of the building
B.
2.
Chief information officer
C.
IT managers
D.
Employees
Which of these factors impacts physical security?
A. Encryption in use on the network
3.
B.
Flood or fire
C.
IDS implementation
D.
Configuration of firewall
Which of the following is physical security designed to prevent? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Stealing confidential data
4.
B.
Hacking systems from the inside
C.
Hacking systems from the Internet
D.
Gaining physical access to unauthorized areas
Which of the following is often one of the most overlooked areas of security?
A. Operational
5.
B.
Technical
C.
Internet
D.
Physical
A hacker who plants a rogue wireless access point on a network in order to sniff the traffic
on the wired network from outside the building is causing what type of security breach?
A. Physical
6.
B.
Technical
C.
Operational
D.
Remote access
Which area of security usually receives the least amount of attention during a penetration test?
A. Technical
B.
Physical
C.
Operational
D.
Wireless
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Physical Site Security
Which of the following attacks can be perpetrated by a hacker against an organization with
weak physical security controls?
A. Denial of service
8.
B.
Radio frequency jamming
C.
Hardware keylogger
D.
Banner grabbing
Which type of access allows passwords stored on a local system to be cracked?
A. Physical
9.
B.
Technical
C.
Remote
D.
Dial-in
Which of the following is an example of a physical security breach?
A. Capturing a credit card number from a web server application
B.
Hacking a SQL Server in order to locate a credit card number
C.
Stealing a laptop to acquire credit card numbers
D.
Sniffing a credit card number from packets sent on a wireless hotspot
10. What type of attack can be performed once a hacker has physical access?
A. Finding passwords by dumpster diving
B.
Stealing equipment
C.
Performing a DoS attack
D.
Performing session hijacking
11. What is the most important task after a physical security breach has been detected?
A. Lock down all the doors out of the building.
B.
Shut down the servers to prevent further hacking attempts.
C.
Call the police to begin an investigation.
D.
Gather information for analysis to prevent future breaches.
12. Which of the following is a recommended countermeasure to prevent an attack against
physical security?
A. Lock the server room.
B.
Disconnect the servers from the network at night.
C.
Do not allow anyone in the server room.
D.
Implement multiple ID checks to gain access to the server room.
Review Questions
277
13. What are some physical measures to prevent a server hard drive from being stolen? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. Lock the server room door.
B.
Lock the server case.
C.
Add a software firewall to the server.
D.
Enforce badges for all visitors.
14. What is the name for a person who follows an employee through a locked door without
their own badge or key?
A. Tailgater
B.
Follower
C.
Visitor
D.
Guest
15. Which of the following should be done after a physical site security breach is detected?
A. Implement security awareness training.
B.
Establish a security response team.
C.
Identify the stakeholders.
D.
Perform penetration testing.
16. Which of the following should be physically secured? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Network hubs/switches
B.
Removable media
C.
Confidential documents
D.
Backup tapes
E.
All of the above
17. Which of the following are physical ways to protect portable devices? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Strong user passwords
B.
Cable locks to prevent theft
C.
Motion-sensing alarms
D.
Personal firewall software
18. Which of the following are physical security measures designed to prevent?
A. Loss of data or damage to systems caused by natural causes
B.
Access to data by employees and contractors
C.
Physical access to a customer database
D.
Access to an employee database via the Internet
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19. Which of the following could be caused by a lack of physical security?
A. Web server attack
B.
SQL injection
C.
Attack on a firewall
D.
Implementation of a rogue wireless access point
20. Which of the following are indications of a physical site breach?
A. Unauthorized personnel recorded on a security camera
B.
IDS log event recording an intruder accessing a secure database
C.
An antivirus scanning program indicating a Trojan on a computer
D.
An employee inappropriately accessing the payroll database
Answers to Review Questions
279
Answers to Review Questions
1.
B, C, D. The chief information officer, along with all the employees, including IT managers,
is responsible for implementing physical security.
2.
B. A fire or flood can affect physical security; all the other options are technical security
issues.
3.
A, B, D. Physical security is designed to prevent someone from stealing confidential data,
hacking systems from the inside, and gaining physical access to unauthorized areas. Technical security defends against hacking systems from the Internet.
4.
D. Physical security is one of the most overlooked areas of security.
5.
A. In order to place a wireless access point, a hacker needs to have physical access.
6.
B. Physical security usually receives the least amount of testing during a penetration test.
7.
C. A hardware keylogger can be installed to capture passwords or other confidential data
once a hacker gains physical access to a client system.
8.
A. Physical access allows a hacker to crack passwords on a local system.
9.
C. Theft of equipment is an example of a physical security breach.
10. B. Stealing equipment requires physical access.
11. D. The most important task after a physical security breach has been detected is to gather
information and analyze to prevent a future attack.
12. A. Locking the server room is a simple countermeasure to prevent a physical security
breach.
13. A, B, D. Locking the server room and server cases and enforcing badges for all visitors are
physical controls. A software firewall is a technical control.
14. A. A tailgater is the name for an intruder who follows an employee with legitimate access
through a door.
15. C. After a physical site security breach, the stakeholders in the incident response process
need to be identified. Implement security awareness training, establish a security response
team, and perform penetration testing before another physical site security breach is
detected.
16. E. Network hubs and switches, removable media, confidential documents, and all backup
media tapes should be physically secured and then destroyed when they are no longer
needed.
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17. B, C. Cable locks and motion-sensing alarms are physical countermeasures to prevent theft
of portable devices.
18. A. Physical security measures are designed to prevent loss of data or damage to systems
caused by natural causes.
19. D. A lack of physical security could allow a hacker to plant a rogue wireless access point
on the network.
20. A. Unauthorized personnel recorded on a security camera is an indication of a physical site
security breach.
Chapter
12
Hacking Linux
Systems
CEH Exam ObjECtivES COvErEd in
tHiS CHaptEr:
ÛÛ
Understand how to compile a Linux kernel
ÛÛ
Understand GCC compilation commands
ÛÛ
Understand how to install LKM modules
ÛÛ
Understand Linux hardening methods
Review Questions
Review Questions
1.
What does LKM stand for?
A. Linux Kernel Module
B.
2.
Linux Kernel Mode
C.
Linked Kernel Module
D.
Last Kernel Mode
What GCC command is used to compile a C++ file called source into an executable file
called game?
A. g++ source.c –o game
B.
3.
gcc source.c –o game
C.
gcc make source.cpp –o game
D.
g++ source.cpp –o game
What is the command to deny all users access from the network?
A. Cat “All:All”>> /etc/hosts.deny
4.
B.
Set “All:All”>> /etc/hosts.deny
C.
IP deny “All:All”
D.
Cat All:All deny
Of the following, which are common commercial Linux distributions?
A. SUSE, Knark, and Red Hat
5.
B.
SUSE, Adore, Debian, and Mandrake
C.
SUSE, Debian, and Red Hat
D.
SUSE, Adore, and Red Hat
What is a Linux live CD?
A. A Linux operating system that runs from a CD
6.
B.
A Linux operating system installed from a CD onto a hard drive
C.
A Linux tool that runs applications from a CD
D.
A Linux application that makes CDs
What type of attack can be disguised as an LKM?
A. DoS
B.
Trojan
C.
Spam virus
D.
Rootkit
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Hacking Linux Systems
Which of the following is a reason to use Linux?
A. Linux has no security holes.
8.
B.
Linux is always up-to-date on security patches.
C.
No rootkits can infect a Linux system.
D.
Linux is flexible and can be modified.
Which of the following is not a way to harden Linux?
A. Physically secure the system.
9.
B.
Maintain a current patch level.
C.
Change the default passwords.
D.
Install all available services.
What type of file is used to create a Linux live CD?
A. ISO
B.
CD
C.
LIN
D.
CDFS
10. Why is it important to use a known good distribution of Linux?
A. Source files can become corrupted if not downloaded properly.
B.
Only certain distributions can be patched.
C.
Source files can be modified, and a Trojan or backdoor may be included in the source
binaries of some less-known or free distributions of Linux.
D.
Only some versions of Linux are available to the public.
11. What command will give you the most information Linux files?
A. ls -a
B.
ls -m
C.
ls -t
D.
ls -l
12. What is the purpose of the man command?
A. Lists help and documentation
B.
Manually configures a program
C.
Performs system maintenance
D.
Installs a program
13. In which directory are Linux system source files located?
A. source
B.
src
C.
sys
D.
system
Review Questions
297
14. What is the Linux command that lists all current running processes?
A. ps
B.
list ps
C.
show ps
D.
process
15. What is the Linux command for viewing the IP address of a network interface?
A. ifconfig
B.
ipconfig
C.
ipconfig /all
D.
interface /ip
16. Which Linux command would produce the following output?
A. routing
B.
route print
C.
route
D.
show routes
17. What is a recommended way to secure the Linux root account? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Prevent direct root logins except from the system console.
B.
Restrict the use of su to a single group.
C.
Install su protect to prevent misuse of the su command.
D.
Grant the admin privilege to any user needing to install programs.
18. When you are securing local Linux file systems, which two types of directories should you
be check for appropriate permissions? (Choose two.)
A. Root directory
B.
Services directory
C.
Writable system executable directories
D.
Writable user home directories
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19. What is the Cat command you would use to harden the file system of a Linux system?
A. Cat “source=All:destination=All”>> /etc/hosts.deny
B.
Cat “All:All”>> /etc/hosts.deny
C.
Cat “Any:Any”>> /etc/hosts.deny
D.
Cat “All:All”
/etc/hosts.deny
20. In which file should you check to ensure users do not have a null password in a Linux system?
A. Password file
B.
Passwd file
C.
Shadow file
D.
Shdw file
Answers to Review Questions
299
Answers to Review Questions
1.
A. LKM stands for Linux Kernel Module.
2.
D. g++ source.cpp –o game is the GCC command to create an executable called game
from the source file source.
3.
A. Use the Cat “All:All”>> /etc/hosts.deny command to deny all users access from
the network on a Linux system.
4.
C. SUSE, Debian, and Red Hat are all commercial versions of Linux.
5.
A. A Linux live CD is a fully functioning operating system that runs from a CD.
6.
D. A rootkit can be disguised as an LKM.
7.
D. Linux is flexible and can be modified because the source code is openly available.
8.
D. Linux should not have unused services running, because each additional service may
have potential vulnerabilities.
9.
A. An ISO file is used to create a Linux live CD.
10. C. Known good distributions have been reviewed by the Linux community to verify that a
Trojan or backdoor does not exist in the source code.
11. D. The command ls -l lists all the information about files such as permissions, owners,
size, and last modified date.
12. A. The man command will list help and documentation in Linux.
13. B. The src directory contains the Linux source files.
14. A. The ps command lists all running processes.
15. A. Use the ifconfig command to view the IP address of a network interface. ipconfig
and ipconfig/all are Windows commands to view IP address information.
16. C. route displays the routing table. route print is a Windows command to display the
routing table. show routes is a command commonly used to view a routing table.
17. A, B. The recommended way to secure the Linux root account is to prevent direct root logins and to restrict the use of su to one group.
18. C, D. Writable system executable directories and writable user home directories should
both be checked as they could be used to execute malicious code.
19. B. Use the command Cat “All:All”>> /etc/hosts.deny to harden a Linux system and
ensure all users are denied access to certain files from the network.
20. C. User passwords in a Linux system are stored in the shadow file. To harden a system,
check the shadow file for null passwords.
Chapter
13
Bypassing Network
Security: Evading
IDSs, Honeypots,
and Firewalls
CEH Exam OBjECtIvES COvErED IN
tHIS CHaptEr:
ÛÛ
List the types of intrusion detection systems and evasion
techniques
ÛÛ
List firewall types and honeypot evasion techniques
Review Questions
Review Questions
1.
What is a system that performs attack recognition and alerting for a network?
A. HIDS
B.
2.
NIDS
C.
Anomaly detection HIDS
D.
Signature-based NIDS
Which of the following tools bypasses a firewall by sending one byte at a time in the IP
header?
A. Honeyd
3.
B.
Nessus
C.
Covert_TCP
D.
007 Shell
E.
TCP to IP Hide
Which of the following is a honeypot-detection tool?
A. Honeyd
4.
B.
Specter
C.
KFSensor
D.
Sobek
Which of the following is a system designed to attract and identify hackers?
A. Honeypot
5.
B.
Firewall
C.
Honeytrap
D.
IDS
Which of the following is a tool used to modify an attack script to bypass an IDS’s signature detection?
A. ADMmutate
B.
Script Mutate
C.
Snort
D.
Specter
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What is a reverse WWW shell?
A. A web server making a reverse connection to a firewall
7.
B.
A web client making a connection to a hacker through the firewall
C.
A web server connecting to a web client through the firewall
D.
A hacker connecting to a web server through a firewall
A reverse WWW shell connects to which port on a hacker’s system?
A. 80
8.
B.
443
C.
23
D.
21
What is the command used to install and run Snort?
A. snort –l c:\snort\log –c C:\snort\etc\snort.conf –A console
9.
B.
snort –c C:\snort\etc\snort.conf –A console
C.
snort –c C:\snort\etc\snort.conf console
D.
snort –l c:\snort\log –c –A
What type of program is Snort?
A. NIDS
B.
Sniffer, HIDS, and traffic-logging tool
C.
Sniffer and HIDS
D.
NIDS and sniffer
10. What are the ways in which an IDS is able to detect intrusion attempts? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Signature detection
B.
Anomaly detection
C.
Traffic identification
D.
Protocol analysis
11. You are viewing a snort output report and see an entry with the following address information: 168.175.44.80:34913 -> 142.155.44.28:443. What type of server is the destination
address?
A. HTTP
B.
FTP
C.
SSL
D.
HTTPS
Review Questions
12. What is the snort.conf file variable for the local IP subnet?
A. INTERNAL_NET
B.
DESTINATION_NETWORK
C.
SOURCE_NET
D.
HOME_NET
13. How is the rule location identified in the snort.conf file?
A. RULE_PATH
B.
RULE_DIR
C.
RULES
D.
RULE_NET
14. Which field is not located in the rule header in a Snort rule?
A. Rule Action
B.
Protocol
C.
Source Address
D.
HOME_NET
15. Which Snort rule option would associate a high priority to an alert?
A. class:attempted-admin
B.
classtype:High
C. classtype:attempted-admin
D.
class:admin
16. What are the two components needed when installing Snort?
A. Snort rules
B.
Snort signatures
C.
Snort Engine
D.
Snort processor
17. What is an attack signature in an IDS?
A. A pattern of packets that indicates an attack
B.
The first packet that indicates the start of an attack
C.
The TCP header that indicates an attack
D.
The confirmation that an attack has occurred
18. What is a method used to defeat an IDS signature match?
A. Anomaly detection
B.
Tunneling
C.
Packet smashing
D.
Buffer overflows
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19. You are reviewing a Snort output report with the following content:
10/17-20:28:15.014784 0:10:5A:1:D:5B -> 0:2:B3:87:84:25 type:0x800 len:0x3C
192.168.1.4:1244 -> 192.168.1.67:443 TCP TTL:128 TOS:0x0 ID:39235
IpLen:20 DgmLen:40 DF
***A**** Seq: 0xA18BBE Ack: 0x69749F36 Win: 0x2238 TcpLen: 20
0x0000: 00 02 B3 87 84 25 00 10 5A 01 0D 5B 08 00 45 00 .....%..Z..[..E.
0x0010: 00 28 99 43 40 00 80 06 DD F4 C0 A8 01 04 C0 A8 .(.C@...........
0x0020: 01 43 04 DC 01 BB 00 A1 8B BE 69 74 9F 36 50 10 .C........it.6P.
0x0030: 22 38 6E 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 “8nc........
What TCP flags are set in the packet?
A. ACK
B.
SYN
C.
FIN
D.
RST
20. A Snort file has been retrieved with the following output:
10/17-20:28:15.080091 0:2:B3:87:84:25 -> 0:10:5A:1:D:5B type:0x800 len:0x13B
192.168.1.67:443 -> 192.168.1.4:1244 TCP TTL:64 TOS:0x0 ID:6664
IpLen:20 DgmLen:301 DF
***AP*** Seq: 0x6974A4F2 Ack: 0xA18F51 Win: 0x1E51 TcpLen: 20
0x0000: 00 10 5A 01 0D 5B 00 02 B3 87 84 25 08 00 45 00 ..Z..[.....%..E.
0x0010: 01 2D 1A 08 40 00 40 06 9C 2B C0 A8 01 43 C0 A8 .-..@.@..+...C..
0x0020: 01 04 01 BB 04 DC 69 74 A4 F2 00 A1 8F 51 50 18 ......it.....QP.
0x0030: 1E 51 5B AF 00 00 17 03 01 01 00 9D 6D 31 27 DB .Q[.........m1’.
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