The point, however, is that this issue _is_ there and always has been;
this wasn't something invented five years ago.

Often ommitted from these discussion are the gender-specific translations
introduced into English translations but not supported by the original.

(Last time --maybe the time before that?-- when this discussion came
around someone posted a list of examples of these mistranslations from the
KJV through the RSV. Unfortunately my copy's on my "other computer" at
the moment, so maybe someone else knows what I mean?)