Q. Which of these is/are urban local body/bodies in India?

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements
1. The legislature of the state, by law, endows the panchayats with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of selfgovernment.
2. The above reflects the essence of Article 39 of the Constitution.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

1, 2

D.

None of these

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements.
1. Special Officer's post under Article 338 was substituted by the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India procures and markets the nontimber forest products (NTFP).
3. T he first Backward Classes Comm iss ion formulated 11 indicators based on social backwardness, educational backwardness and economic backwardness.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 only

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements:
1. There was a special provision for the Anglo-Indiancommunity in certain services under Article 336 of the Constitution of India. However, all such reservations were to cease at the end of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution of India.
2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed in 1955.
3. The Untouchability (Offences) Act was renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1 and 2

C.

2 and 3

D.

1 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of setting up of the given Commissions concerning weaker sections of the Indian society?

Which of the following statements is correct?The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office before expiry of his term

A.

in like manner and like ground as a member of the Union Public Service Commission

B.

in like manner and like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court

C.

on the recommendations of the Supreme Court

D.

on the recommendations of the Cabinet

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?\
1. The members of the State Election Commission are appointed by the President
2. These members can be removed in like manner and on grounds similar to that of the High Court Judge

A.

Only 1 is true

B.

Only 2 is true

C.

1, 2 both are true

D.

1, 2 both are false

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The tenure of the Panchayat is five years
2. If it dissolved in the second year, its election need to be held within 6 months of the dissolution.

In which year was the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Schedule Tribes began to be constituted in two different commissions — one for the Scheduled Castes and another for the Scheduled Tribes?

A.

1985

B.

1987

C.

1989

D.

1991

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

The decision of the Central Administrative Tribunals can be challenged in the Surpeme Court of India under the Article

A.

323 A

B.

329

C.

243 C

D.

343

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constitutent Assembly:
1. The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents: Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs and Christians.
2. T he Cha irm an of t he Union Const it uent Commitee was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3. The total strength of the Constitutent Assemblywas 389.
4. The Drafting Com mitt ee un der the chairmnanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consisted of eight members.

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

3 only

D.

1 only

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

The doctrine of 'prospective overruling' was adopted by the Supreme Court of India in the case of

A.

Champakam Dorairajan Vs. State of Madras

B.

Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab

C.

Kesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala

D.

Kehar Singh Vs. Union of India

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court of India laid down that citizen can be compensated for loss or injury caused by arbitrary or capricious action by a public authority?

A.

Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India

B.

Indira Sawhey Vs. Union of India

C.

Common Cause Vs. Union of India

D.

Golak Nath Vs. Union of India

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements will regard to Judicial System in India:
1. Panchayat Courts functions in some of the states
2. The Supreme Court of India consists of 26 judges including the Chief Justice of India
3. Union Territories of Delhi and Chandigarh both have High Courts
4. The National Judicial Academy has been set up by the Government of India

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

B.

3 and 4

C.

1 only

D.

1, 2 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements with regard to the Advocate-General of the State in India;
1. He/she is appointed by the President of India
2. He/she can taken part in the proceedings of the State Legislative Assembly
3. His/her salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of India
4. He/she advises the State Government on legal matters

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

A.

2 and 4

B.

3 only

C.

1 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements:
A. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution does not lay down that all laws must be of universal application.
B. State has power to classify persons for legitimate purpose and on reasonable grounds.

A.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B.

Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A.

C.

A is true, but R is false.

D.

A is false, but R is true.

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Consider hthe following statements:
A. Judicial Review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the Constitution.
B. The source of the power of judicial review in India is Article 13 (2) of the Constitution.

A.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B.

Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A.

C.

A is true, but R is false.

D.

A is false, but R is true.

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

Consider hthe following statements:
A. Judicial activisim emerged in India as an extraconstitutional development through judicial pronouncements and judgements.
B. Judicial activism fills the gap, since the existing law is not clear or pronounced.

Consider the following statements regarding Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest(SARFAESI) Act 2002:(i) It allows the banks and financial institutions to sell the security once it becomes non performing(ii) It allows the banks and financial institutions to sell the security in case of secured and unsecured debt(iii) It allows only RBI to classify any asset as non performing(iv) It allows RBI or any other authority or body as applicable to classify any asset as non performing

Consider the following statements regarding "Sovereign Gold Bonds" scheme launched recently:
(i) If the market price of gold declines, investors will be protected against capital loss
(ii) These are government securities denominated in grams of gold
(iii) Issued by RBI on behalf of Govt. of India
(iv) Investors will receive fixed interest rate

Q.Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) & (ii) only

B.

(ii) & (iii) and (iv) only

C.

(i), (ii) & (iii) only

D.

All of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

Which of the following are components of India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves?
(i) SDR: Special Drawing Rights
(ii) FCA: Foreign Currency Assets
(iii) RTP: Reserve Tranche Position
(iv) GoldSelect the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(ii) only

B.

(ii) & (iv) only

C.

(i), (ii) & (iv) only

D.

All of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

Consider the following statements regarding the transactions happening at the international levelfor trade and financial flows.
(i) Currencies which maintain a stable purchasing power are generally accepted
(ii) Freely convertible currencies are generally accepted
(iii) There is an international authority with the power to force the use of a particular currency
(iv) There is a basket of currencies which can only be used to settle international transactions

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) and (ii) only

B.

(ii) and (iv) only

C.

(iii) and (iv) only

D.

(ii), (iii) and (iv) only

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

Consider the following statements:
(i) Bank notes are legal tenders
(ii) Bank notes are unlimited legal tenders
(iii) Bank notes are guaranteed by the Central Government
(iv) Bank notes are guaranteed by the RBI

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) & (iii) only

B.

(i) & (iv) only

C.

(i), (ii) & (iii) only

D.

(ii) & (iv) only

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements regarding the "Benami Transactions Act 2016":
(i) Unaccounted cash deposited in others' account is benami transaction
(ii) Property transactions among the family members is not benami transaction
(iii) A transaction where a property is held by a person, but has been paid by another person is called a benami transaction

It is a charge to the merchant by a bank for accepting payment through debit and credit cards

B.

It is a fixed charge per transaction

C.

It is the discount given to the customers for doing online transactions

D.

It is the discount given to the merchants for doing online transactions

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

With respect to the Budget of the Central Government, Capital Receipts are those receipts which either:(i) Causes reduction in assets of the government(ii) Create a liability for the government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) only

B.

(ii) only

C.

Both (i) & (ii)

D.

Neither (i) or (ii)

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

The Grants-in-aid given by the Central Government to the State Governments and local bodies for creation of capital assets are classified in the Union budget under?

A.

Revenue expenditure

B.

Capital Expenditure

C.

Both Revenue and Capital expenditure

D.

None of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

Which of the following are Non Tax Receipts of the Central Government?
(i) Registration of Companies
(ii) Royalty from on shore oilfields
(iii) Royalty from offshore oilfields
(iv) Issue of Passport and Visa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) only

B.

(i), (ii) & (iii) only

C.

(i), (iii) & (iv) only

D.

All of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 36

Which of the following are Nondebt capital receipts of Govt. of India
(i) Public Account receipts
(ii) Treasury Bills
(iii) Disinvestment
(iv) Recovery of loans

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) only

B.

(i) & (ii) only

C.

(iii) & (iv) only

D.

(i), (ii) & (iii) only

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

The Public Debt of Government of India includes which of the following:
(A) Treasury Bills
(ii) External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)
(iii) NRI deposits (iv) Foreign Direct Investment in India (FDI)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) only

B.

(i) & (iii) only

C.

(i), (ii) & (iii) only

D.

(ii) & (iv) only

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following are part of India’s External Debt?
(i) Investments made by Portfolio Investors in debt securities
(ii) Portfolio Investors purchasing government securities
(iii) External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)
(iv) NRI Deposits

What does "Revenue Neutral Tax Rate" means in reference to the Goods and Services Tax":

A.

The tax rate will be same for the Centre and State

B.

The tax rate at which Central and States revenues will be same

C.

That GST rate at which tax revenues (or revenue growth) of States and Centre will remain the same as before GST

D.

All of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statements regarding the duties of "National Anti-Profiteering Authority" in GST: (i) It may order imposition of penalty on businesses who are not passing on the GST tax rate benefits to consumers
(ii) It will determine whether any reduction in tax rates or the benefit of input tax credit has been passed to the recipient
(iii) It will identify registered person who has not passed on the benefit of reduction in taxes to the recipients

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

(i) only

B.

(i) & (ii) only

C.

(i) & (iii)

D.

All of the above

Solution:

QUESTION: 42

Consider the following:
I. The striking features of the Act of 1935 federalprinciple.
II. The Unit was to be with a bicameral legislature under a Governor-General with a dyarchical Executive Council consisting of two Concillors nominated of Governor-General to be in charge of the reserved department.
III. The Act abolished dyarchy in the provinces where popular governments were established.
IV. The provincial part of the Act was enforced in 1938.

A.

I, II and III are correct

B.

II, III and IV are correct

C.

III and IV are correct

D.

I and III are correct

Solution:

The implementation of the Federal portion of the Act depended on the co-operation of the Indian princes, and it was not readily received, only the provincial part of the Act was enforced in 1937.

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following is not true?

A.

The Buddhist seripture known as the Triptikas are believed to have been first secrified by Ananda, Upali and Kasyapa.

B.

It was recited in the Third Council of the Buddhist elders which met at Pataliputra.

C.

These were learnt orally and it was not till 80 B.C. that these were put down in writing in Ceylon in the region of the king Vattagamani.

D.

The Triptikas consist of Sutta, Vinaya and the Abhidhamma.

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

Consider the following regarding Cripps Offer of 1942:
I. To set up an Indian Union with the status of Dominion of the British Commonwealth.
II. India should not have the opinion of succession from the Commonwealth.
III. The Indian states should have the opinion of joining the Indian Union and any of the existing Indian provinces.
IV. Indian National Congress reject it as it did not promise immediate grant of full dominion status to India.

A.

I, III and IV are correct

B.

II and IV are correct

C.

I, II and IV are correct

D.

I, II, III and IV are correct

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following is correct about the Parliamentary declaration in India?

A.

The first Parliamentary declaration was made on 20th August 1917, by Mr. Edwin Montague, the Secretary of State for India.

B.

The Second declaration was made on October 1929 announcing that the natural issue of India's constitutional progress was the attainment of Dominion Status.

C.

The third declaration was made on June 3, 1947, in the House of Commons by the British PrimeMinister, Mr. Clement Attlee announcing that His Majesty's Government has decided to transfer power to the people of India at the earliest possible moment.

D.

All of the above is correct

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Which of the following is not true of the Delhi Pact concluded on the 5th March, 1931, between Lord Irwin and Mahatma Gandhi?

A.

Civil Disobedience Movement that had been started in April, 1930 was called off.

B.

Congress agreed to participate in Round Table Conference in London for settling the political issues between Great Britain and India.

C.

The repressive ordinany which had been passed since 1930 would continue

D.

The political prisoners made in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement were released.

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

Doctrine of Lapse principle was first enunciated in 1838 but it was Lord Dalhousie who applied it with the atmost rigour.

B.

Dalhousie annexed Satara in 1848, Jaitpur and Sambalpur in 1849 Baghat in 1850, Udaipur in 1852, Jansi 1855 and Nagpur in 1854.

C.

The British Government sold the jewels and furniture of the Nagpur Raj in a public auction.

D.

The Home-Government annulled the annexation of Udaipur and Baghat which was a cis-Sutlej state.

Solution:

It was first enunciated in 1834.

QUESTION: 48

Regarding Dominion Status which of the following is correct?
I. It was first demanded by the Indian National Congress in 1905.
II. On October 31, 1929, Lord Irwin announced that the natural issue of the constitutional progress in India was the attainment of dominion status.

A.

Only I is true

B.

Only II is true

C.

Both I and II is true

D.

None of the above is true

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following is correct?

A.

Government of Burma Act was passed in 1932 separating Burma from India and gave her a separate Constitution on the lines of the Government of India Act 1921.

B.

The office of Governor-General was created by the Regulating Act in 1773 and Warren Hastings was its first incumbent.

C.

The power of Governor-General was expanded by Pitt's India Act of 1784 and Supplementary Act of 1786.

D.

All of the above are correct

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

Consider the following:
I. Lord William Bentinck was the last GovernorGeneral of Fort William in Bengal and the first Governor-General of India as per the Charter Act of 1833.
II. Lord Mayo was the first Viceroy as per the Government of India Act, 1858.
III. Lord Linlithgow was the last Viceroy and the first Crown Representative as per the Act of 1935.
IV. C. Rajagopalachari was the last Governor-General of India.

A.

I, III, IV are correct

B.

II, III, IV are correct

C.

II and IV are correct

D.

I, II, III and IV are correct

Solution:

It was Lord Canning

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following regarding Jainism is not true?

A.

Jainism accepts the Brahmanical doctrines of Karma and rebirth but rejects the authority of the Vedas, the caste system and the practice of animal sacrifice.

B.

It accepts the existence of God the creator, and holds that God is the highest, noblest and fullest munifestation of all the powers that lie latent in the soul of man.

C.

The aim of Jaina is the complete deliverance of the soul from rebirth and reaching Siddha Sila.

D.

This can be attained through Tri-ratna: right faith right knowledge and right conduct

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

Which act of his Gandhi regarded as the 'Himalayan miscalculation'?

A.

In asking the people to non-cooperate without first disciplinning them in non-violence.

B.

The 'swaraj' that he had promised would come within a non-violent non-coperation, did not come.

He became Member of the Bombay Legislative Council in 1902 and was then elected to represent its non-official members in the Viceregal legislature.

B.

Associated with the Indian National Congress from the beginning he was its Joint Secretary for some years and presided over its 1905 session.

C.

In 1906 he founded the Servants of India Society at Poona.

D.

His last public duty was to serve as a Member of the Indian Public Service commission.

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

Reserved Forest is a forest

A.

totally under government control

B.

meant mainly for tribal people

C.

earmarked for commercial exploitation with restricted grazing

D.

without any economic activity

Solution:

QUESTION: 55

The correct sequence in decreasing order in terms of total production of the given non-ferrous metals in India is

A.

Lead, Zinc, Copper, Aluminium,

B.

Zinc, Lead, Aluminium, Copper

C.

Aluminium, Zinc, Copper, Lead

D.

Aluminium, Copper, Zinc, Lead

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

Which one of following of lakes is to tectonic origin?

A.

Baikal, Tanganyika and Rudolf

B.

Chilka, Pulicat and Dal

C.

Ladoga, Onega and Superior

D.

Chad, Biwa and Sambar

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following statement are true?
1. Moderate earthquakes are caused along constructive plate boundaries.
2. Disastrous earthquakes are caused along destructive plate boundaries.
3. Disastrous earthquakes are caused along destructive plate boundaries.
4. Severe earthquakes are caused along the conservative plate boundaries with the creation of transform faults.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 58

The main difference between paternoster lake and tarn is that paternoster lake is

A.

formed by glacial action whereas tarn is not

B.

associated with cirque whereas tarn is associated with glacial stairways

C.

associated with glacial stairways whereas tarn is associated with cirque

D.

a lake whereas tarn is not

Solution:

QUESTION: 59

Soils, which have undergone gullying and are associated with marshes, swamps or poorly drained upland are called

A.

Calcimorphous soils

B.

hydromorphic soils

C.

halomorphic soils

D.

sierozems

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

Which one of the following places is located at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?

A.

Vishnuprayag

B.

Deveprayag

C.

Rudraprayag

D.

Karnaprayag

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Which one of the following is the correct sequenceof landforms developed under fluvial cycle of erosion?

A.

Gorge, flood plain, piedmmont plain, delta

B.

Gorge, piedmont plain, flood plain, delta

C.

Gorge, piedmont plain, delta, flood plain

D.

Piedmont plain, Gorge, flood plain, delta\

Solution:

QUESTION: 62

Chemical weathering is most predominant in

A.

arid region

B.

semi-arid region

C.

humid tropical region

D.

Mediterranean region

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Which one of the following pairs is correct?
1. The Peninsular India has not undergone marine submergence since Archaean times.
2. The Aravalli mountains were one of the oldest geosynclines of the world.
3. Dharwar system is rich in minerals.
4. The Peninsular block of India is regarded as an earth-quake-free zone.

Q.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1, 2 3 and 4

B.

2 and 4

C.

1 and 2

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 64

During the passage of a tropical cyclone at sea coast, the following atmospheric conditions are observed :
1. Torrential rainfall with gusty winds.
2. Barometric fall with dark clouds.
3. Total clam and clear skies
The correct sequence of the occurrence of these conditions is

A.

2, 1, 3

B.

1, 2, 3

C.

3, 2, 1

D.

2, 3, 1

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

In India, the tropical moist deciduous forests form the natural cover in nearly all the places where the annual rainfall is between

A.

201 cm and 250 cm

B.

251 cm and 300 cm

C.

70 cm and 100 cm

D.

101 cm and 200 cm

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of cloud forms in ascending order of their heights from the ground

A.

Cirrus, Cumulus, Stratus

B.

Cumulus, stratus, cirrus

C.

Stratus, cirrus, cumulus

D.

Stratus, cumulus, cirrus

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

The correct sequence of the given states in descending order with respect to production of Bajra is :

A.

Rajasthan, Gujarat, maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh

B.

Rajasthan, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra

C.

Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra

D.

NONE

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following statements regarding a Pjordsare correct?
1. Most of the Pjords were formed due to a rise in sea level after the melting of Pleistocene icesheets. 2. It is an emergent coast which originally was a submerged glaciated valley.
3. It is a long, narrow inlet of the sea bounded by steep mountains slopes extending to considerable depths.
4. It is glaciered valley that has been inundated by the sea and forms a deep steep-sided coastal inlet.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

B.

1, 3 and 4

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

Which one of the following statements regarding El Nino is NOT true?

A.

It is an extension of the Equatorial current towards the western coast of South America

B.

It is an occasional warm current leading to an increase of about 10- C in surface water temperature

C.

It develops as a temporary replacement of the usual cold Peruvian current

D.

It causes an increase in planktons which thrive in the cold Peruvian current

Solution:

QUESTION: 70

Which one of the following regions is culturally closer the India but ethnically related to China?

A.

Central Asia

B.

Polynesia

C.

West Asia

D.

South-East Asia

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

Which one of the following commercially important groups of trees belongs to cool temperate hardwood species?

A.

Maple, mahogany and oak

B.

Mathogany, ebony and maple

C.

Oak, poplar and maple

D.

Ebony, oak and poplar

Solution:

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following is true?
I. Halo orbit is a periodic, three dimensional orbit the L1, L2 and L3 lagrange point in a three body system.
II. Lagrange point is the point where the combined gravitational force of two large bodies is equal to the centifugal force that is felt by a third body which is reatively smaller.
III. There are about 10 such points in a two body system.

A.

I and II

B.

I, II and III

C.

II and III

D.

I and III

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

What is true about the discovery of most ancient spiral galaxy in the universe that existed 11 billionyears ago?
I. The discovery was made by Australian National University and Swinburne University of Technology using a technique that cmbines gravitational lensing with the Near-infrared integral field spectrograph. II. The galaxy known as A1689B11, existed just 2.6 billion years after the Big Bang, when the universe was only one fifth of its present age.
III. Gravitational Lenses is a phenomenon in which the gravity of a massive object bends and amplifies the light from an object that lies beyond it.
IV. This discovery opens the door to investigating how galaxies transition from highly chaotic, turbulant disc to tranquil, thin discs like those of our own Milky way galaxy.

A.

I, II, III and IV

B.

II, III and IV

C.

I, II and III

D.

I, III and IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements regarding Gleadovia Kongakianorum:
I. Scientists have discovered a new species of parasitic plant in Nagaland forest and named it after Naga tribe Konyak.
II. It is a holoparasite which does not ahve chlorophyll but has a well developed vascular system.
III. The International Union of Conservation has described its status as 'data deficient' as the species have not been reported else where.
IV. The other three species of Gleadsvia genus are found in Assam and Himachal

A.

I, II, III

B.

I, II, III, IV

C.

I, II, IV

D.

II, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

What is true of Free Space Optical (FSO) Communication?
I. It is an optical communication technology in which data is transmitted by propagation of light in a free space allowing optical connectivity.
II. Working of FSO is similar to optical fibre cable networks but the only difference is that the optical beams are sent through free air or vacuum in stead of glass fibre.
III. It is capable of sending upto 2.5 Gbps of data, voice and video communication simultaneously through the air.

A.

I, II, III

B.

I and III

C.

I and II

D.

II and III

Solution:

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following is not true of Ecitonium?

A.

New matter Excitonium was found while studying the non-doped crystals of a transition metal dichalcogenide titanium diselenide.

B.

The term excitonium was first coined by BertHaiperin in 1960s.

C.

It exhibits microscopic quantum phenomenon like a superconductor and is formed of ions.

D.

It is formed of excitions

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements regarding All India Survey on Higher Education:
I. There exists a regional disparity in college density (number of colleges per lakh eligible population) which varies from 7 in Bihar to 59 in Telangana as compared to All India average of 28.
II. Total enrolment in higher education has been estimated to be 35.7million with an overall increase of 18.3% as compared with 2012-13.
III. A high percentage of the eligible population is still outside college as shown by the GER in Higher Education in India of 25.2% (calculated for 18-23 years of age group).
IV. There is a marginal increase in the Gender Parity Index (GPI) (a ratio of proportional representation of female and male) for all categories from 0.89 in 2012-13 to 0.94 in 2016-17.

Q.Which of the above statement is correct?

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II, III, IV

D.

I, II, III

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements regarding National Testing Agency:
I. NTA was recommended in the national education policy 1986 but it was never implemented by previous governments.
II. It is created as a Society registered under the Indian Societies Registration Act, 1880, and as an autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.
III. It would be an independent body dedicated on the lines of the Educational Testing Service (ETS) in the United States.
IV. It will conduct entrance tests entrusted to it by any department or ministry.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

A.

II, III, IV

B.

I, II, III, IV

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, III

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements:
I. Swayam is a Web portal where Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) will be available free of cost on all kinds of subjects with a provision of cert ficate / credit-transfer.
II. It is designed to take the best teaching learning resources to all, including the most disadvantaged. III. Swayam Prabha a group of 33 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high-quality educationalprogrammes on 24×7 basis using the GSAT-1S satellite.
IV. National Academic Depository (NAD) is 24X7 online store house of all academic awards viz. certificates, diplomas, degrees, marks sheets etc. duly digitised and lodged by academic institutions / boards / eligibility assessment bodies.

Consider the following statements regarding Health Index in India:
I. Neonatal mortalityincludes deaths in the first 28 days of life.
II. Child mortalityrefers to death of children below 5 years per 1000 live births (50 per 1000 live births in 2015-16).
III. Maternal mortality Rate refers to number of women who die as a result of pregnancy and childbirth complications per 100,000 live births in a given year (174 per 100, 000 live births in 2015).

Q. Which of the above statement is correct?

A.

I, II

B.

I, II, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, III

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements:
I. Arunachal Pradesh emerged as the second State in the Northeast, after Sikkim, to be declared Open Defecation Free.
II. Arunachal has 21 districts and the State attained the feat much before the national deadline of October 2, 2018.
III. The project undertaken under Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) SBM (G) saw the light of day only after the State government extended an incentive of Rs 8,000 per toilet. This is in addition to the Centre's support of Rs 12,000, raising the grant for constructing a toilet to Rs 20,000.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct.

A.

I, II and III

B.

II and III

C.

I and III

D.

I and II

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements:
I. In 1968, corporate funding was banned.
II. In 1979, political parties were exempted from income- and wealth tax, provided they filed annual returns including audited accounts, listed donations of Rs 10,000 and above, and disclosed the identities of such donors.
III. An amendment to the Companies Act in 1985 restored corporate funding. Companies could donate up to 5% of their average net profit over the previous three years.
IV. In 2003, the NDA government made individual and company donations fully tax-deductible. However, the cap on how much companies could contribute remained.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

A.

I, II, III

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

What are Electoral Bonds?
I. These are interest-free bearer instruments (like Promissory Notes) that will be available for purchase from the State Bank of India within a designated window of 10 days in every quarter of the financial year.
II. An additional period of a month will be notified in the year of elections to Lok Sabha.
III. "The life of the bond would be only 30 days. (It) can only be encashed in a predeclared account of a political party (which) will have to disclose the amount to the Election Commission.
IV. After purchasing the bonds, these entities can hand them to political parties of their choice, which must redeem them within the prescribed time.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

A.

I, II, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

I, II, III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following is true?
I. The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal to amend Section 4(1) and Section 5(1) of the National Trust for the Welfare of Person with Autism, Cerebral Plasy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities Act, 1999 to fix the term of the Chairperson and Members of the Board of National Trust for three years.
II. Section 4(1) of the National Trust Act, 1999 provides that the Chairperson or a Member of the Board of National Trust would continue in office beyond the prescribed term of three years until his successor shall have been duly appointed.
III. In case of resignation of the Chairperson, section 5(1) of the Act provides for him to continue in office until his successor is duly appointed by the Government.

A.

I and II

B.

I, II and III

C.

II and III

D.

none

Solution:

QUESTION: 86

What is true of Mahadayi river?
I. The river rises in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Western Ghats, in Khanapur taluk of Karnataka's Belagavi district, and flows in a general westerly direction, entering Goa in the Sattari taluk of North Goa district.
II. It is joined by a number of streams along the way, growing in volume to become the Mandovi, one of Goa's two major rivers, before emptying itself into the Arabian Sea at Vasco-da-gama.
III. Mahadayi also depends that of at least three protected habitats — the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Mahadayi Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

A.

I, II, III

B.

I and III

C.

II and III

D.

I and II

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements:
I. In a historic decision, the Supreme Court Collegium recommended the name of senior advocate Indu Malhotra for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
II. This is the first time in history that a woman lawyer has been recommended for direct elevation from the Bar to a Supreme Court judgeship. a reputed senior advocate practising in the apex court.
III. Ms. Malhotra would be only the tenth woman judge in the Supreme Court's 68-year-old history.
IV. Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first women Supreme Court judge, appoint 39 years after the apex court was established in 1950.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements:
I. With several recent complaints that the two existing biometric authentications for Aadhaar — fingerprints and iris scans — haven't worked, the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has decided to enable face authentication as an additional mode starting from July 1.
II. This facility is to help those unable to use the existing biometrics for authentication because their fingerprints are worn out (from old age or hard work) or their iris is affected by injury or disease. There have been reports that people with these issues weren't able to get Aadhaar-related benefits.
III. This mode will be used with "one more authentication factor", which means it will be in combination with a fingerprint, an iris scan or aone-time password (OTP).
IV. The UIDAI has also clarified that face authentication shall be on a temporary basis.

Q. Which of the above statement is correct?

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

II, III, IV

D.

I, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements:
I. Citizens who fall under the Emigration Check Required (ECR) category will soon have passports with orange jackets, instead of the dark blue that has so far been the colour of all passports under the ECR and non-ECR categories.
II. ECR passports are mainly given to non-matriculate workers who wish to work in the Gulf countries and in Southeast Asia.
III. ECR passport holders are being serviced by the Protector General of Emigrants so that their human rights are safeguarded abroad.
IV. White Passport is issued for government officials and maroon for diplomats.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

A.

I, II, III

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II, III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements:
I. In October, 2017 got approval by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs on the "Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP)" and "Skills Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE)" which are all set to boost the Skill India Mission in the country.
II. SANKALP is Its 4455 Crore centrally sponsored project including Rs. 3300 Crore support from World Bank whereas STRIVE is a Rs. 2200 crore - central sector project, with twenty five percent of the project outlay as World Bank assistance.
III. SANKALP and STRIVE are outcome focused projects marking a shift in government's implementation strategy in vocational education and training from inputs to results building in a strong shift to an outcome based skill ecosystem.

Q. Which of the above statements is correct?

A.

I, II, III

B.

II and III

C.

I and III

D.

I and II

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following is not correct?
I. Takshashila National Portal for Trainers and Assessors is an initiative by NSDC under Skill Indian Mission.
II. The portal is a dedicated platform towards the management of trainers and assessors training lifecycle and would function as the central repository of information concerning the development ofquality Trainers and Assessors in the Indian skill ecosystem.
III. It is built in with a feature to search trainers and assessors trained by SSCs across states, sectors and job roles for access to a pool of qualified and skilled professionals.

A.

I and II

B.

II and III

C.

I and III

D.

I, II and III

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

What is correct of Bengaluru Water supply and Sewerage Project
I. The Government of Japan has committed JICA Official Development Assistance loan fa an amount of Yen 45 billion (=Rs.2587 crore approx.) for the project?
II. India and Japan have had a long and fruitful history of bilateral developmen cooperation since 1958. III. In the last few years, the economic cooperation between India and Japan has steadily progressed and consolidates and strengthens the Strategic and Global Partnership between India and Japan.
IV. This Project will provide residents of Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagar Palike (BBMP) are especially in 110 villages with safe and stable water supply and sewerage services b: carrying-out construction of water treatment plant and sewage treatment plant.

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

I and II

C.

II and III

D.

I and III

Solution:

QUESTION: 93

The Narasimham Committee for Financing sector Reforms has suggested reduction in

A.

SLR and CRR

B.

SLR , CRR and priority sector Financing

C.

SLR and Financing to capital goods sector

D.

CRR, priority sector Financing and Financing to capital goods sector

Solution:

QUESTION: 94

"The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970,..... areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war's end, it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human being, something it never intended to do. The apparent toxic fallout from those clouds... is a crop of human miseries including cancers, miscarriages and birth defects- that may persist for decades." The offensive substance referred to in this quotation is

A.

DDT used as insecticide

B.

a complex mixture of herbicide and weedicides used to increase agricultural output in the then south Vietnam under the U.S. aid programme

C.

a complex mixture of DDT and other insecticide used as aerial sprays for protection against malaria and other tropical diseases

D.

dioxin used as defolants

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

"It begins as a single cell and grow into a merciless that claims millions of lives year after year. But scientists are steadily unlocking its mysteries, and the fight against it may now have reached a dramatic turning point. Now discoveries promise better therapies and hope in the war against... "The disease referred to in the above quotation is

A.

Cancer

B.

AIDS

C.

Tuberculosis

D.

Alzheimer's disease

Solution:

QUESTION: 96

Cryogenic engines find application in

A.

submarine propulsion

B.

frost-free refrigerators

C.

rocket technology

D.

researches in superconductivity

Solution:

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following companies has become the first provate Internet Service Provider (ISP) to start Internet services in India?

A.

Samtech International Ltd.

B.

Satyam Online Ltd.

C.

Cybemate & Srivel Ltd.

D.

H.P. Infrastructure Corporation Ltd.

Solution:

QUESTION: 98

The 'Modi script' was employed in the documents of the

A.

Wodeyars

B.

Zamorins

C.

Hoysalas

D.

Marathas

Solution:

QUESTION: 99

'Yellow cake' , an item of smuggling across borders is

A.

a crude form of heroin

B.

a crude form of cocaine

C.

uranium oxide

D.

unrefined gold

Solution:

QUESTION: 100

The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by