>In view of the fact that NT Greek does not include the indefinite article,
>is it possible to translate 1 John 5:16 something like the following?:
>"If any one sees his brother committing sin [rather than "a
sin"] not leading to death, he shall ask and He will give life to him; to
those committing sin not leading to death. There is sin [rather than "a
sin"] leading to death; I do not say that he should make request for
that [type of sin]." My interest, of course, is in the inclusion or
exclusion of the indefinite article preceding "sin."

The only place in the verse that makes me squeamish is the use of the
cognates hAMARTANONTA HAMARTIAN. He sees his brother sinning sin
(hAMARTANONTA HAMARTIAN). Greek does not use cognate verbs and objects as
often as Hebrew, it seems. So there is less of an assumption that the two
should be combined into one idea: "committing sin." Perhaps others on the
list have more experience with cognate verbs and objects in Greek. If the
two words are not combined into one idea, then it seems natural to
translate "sinning a sin."
BAG, s.v. PROS, gives an example with the accusative "of the result
that follows a set of circumstances . . . AUTH H ASQENEIA OUK ESTIV PROS
QANATON this disease is not of the kind that will lead to death. CF 1 J
5:16f." Thus they seem to allow a translation: "There is sin that leads to
death."