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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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05 Jan 2014, 14:04

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Vithal wrote:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

The correct option needs to parallel "do not", the only option that works is D, "do".

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09 Jan 2014, 21:05

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

I don't have any problem understanding the right answer. However, "None of the attempts" is a pleural subject with singular verb "explains". Can anyone please explain, is this a real error or I am missing something here.

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09 Jan 2014, 22:09

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piyushjj wrote:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

I don't have any problem understanding the right answer. However, "None of the attempts" is a pleural subject with singular verb "explains". Can anyone please explain, is this a real error or I am missing something here.

Thanks

'None of' is indefinite. It can either take plural or singular verb. This is a highly debated topic and GMAC stays far from such debatable rules. I have never seen an official question till date which just tests 'none of' concept. (As a matter of fact, I have never seen any of the SANAM pronouns tested on GMAT - OG 12/13, GMAT paper tests, GMATPrep and GMAT exam packs)

In addition to the rule that, 'none of' uses the object of the 'of' word in determining the number of the subject, the phrase that contains 'none of' when viewed in a 'collective term', will always be a singular subject, irrespective.
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30 Jan 2014, 15:36

piyushjj wrote:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

Parallelism, followed by redundant-words to be omitted !

... why so many of those not so exposed docommit crimes_________________

Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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24 Jan 2015, 23:50

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None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

ANS :i think we can eliminate wrong answer by ||ism concept.

A. None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.Do is not parallel to have . so this option is incorrect.

B. None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed has.Again Do is not parallel to has . so this option is wrong .

C . None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed ShallAgain Do is not parallel to Shall . so this option is wrong .

D . None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed doAgain Do is not parallel to do . this is answer .

E . None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed couldAgain do is not parallel to could . this is wrong Answer .

Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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04 Jul 2016, 01:46

Vithal wrote:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

why some do not commit the crime and, why some do commit the crime!!!!! get it?

Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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14 May 2017, 11:36

Vithal wrote:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

A "Have [commit crimes]" is incorrect.B "Has [commit crimes]" is incorrect.C "Shall [commit crimes]" is incorrect because the sentence examines past exposure and present causes. The future is incorrect here.D CorrectE "Could [commit crimes]" is not parallel to "do not."

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Re: As of this morning, none of my friends have been able to [#permalink]

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27 Aug 2017, 08:45

The issue seems to be none - is it plural or singular?In colloquial English I have often heard 'none of my friends had been able to catch the morning train' - but here D (OA) says 'is' singular is applicable?So, does 'none' apply to singular bunches of entities? (family, team/ board of director(S) and so on)on the GMAT if such a question comes what do we pick?

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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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23 Oct 2017, 22:00

Vithal wrote:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.

(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

Issues

(1) Meaning / ParallelismSubject-Verb: has

The sentence uses a parallel structure to describe a puzzling phenomenon: why most of the people in one group do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those in the opposite group have.

Though the full verb structure is not repeated, the words commit crimes are understood to apply to the second half as well: most in one group do not commit crimes and many of those in the opposite group have commit crimes. That structure is incorrect; it would need to say have committed crimes. It's not permissible to repeat words with a change in the structure; rather, the exact structure, commit crimes, must be repeated.

Test the other answers. Answer (B) not only contains the same error as answer (A) but it also uses the singular has when the subject is the plural many. Eliminate answers (A) and (B).

Answers (C), (D), and (E) can all re-use the structure commit crimes in that exact form: shall commit crimes, do commit crimes, could commit crimes. The meaning of the sentence, though, is illogical in answers (C) and (E). The question is not not why some people don't commit crimes today while others shall commit crimes in the future. Not is it why some people don't commit crimes today while others could commit crimes (but do they?). The issue is why one group does not commit crimes while another group does. Eliminate answers (C) and (E) for an illogical meaning.

The Correct Answer

Correct answer (D) corrects the error by using the same verb in the same tense for the second group: do.
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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13 Jan 2018, 22:34

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.

(A) have -Although both “do not commit” and “have” are present tense verbs, with “have” the past participle form of the verb is used. In this case, “done” should accompany “have”. But “done” is not present anywhere in the sentence so that it can be taken to be understood or elided. The verb in this sentence is “do” that will not go with “have”. This verb error can be rectified by replacing “have” with “do”.(B) has -- subject-verb agreement -- many needs have ; same as A(C) shall --Verb “shall” refers to the future tense, whereas the sentence presents a contrast in present tense.(D) do -- Correct(E) could --Verb “could” is in simple past tense, whereas the sentence presents a contrast in present tense.

Answer D
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Re: None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most [#permalink]

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16 Jan 2018, 21:30

Vithal wrote:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have.

(A) have(B) has(C) shall(D) do (E) could

ellipsis rule isif the latter part contains is/are, the first part must have a form of to beif the latter part contain do/did, the first part must have action verbif the latter part contains helping verb, the first part must contain the same helping verb which maybe is in different tesnse.

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Thank you for your question. While this sentence is long-winded, a quick read-through shows that this is a simple comparison between two groups: people who do not commit crimes, and those who do (hint: I just gave away the answer!).

To determine which answer is correct, let’s look at how each of the answers would change the meaning of the sentence:

A: have “Have” only considers those who committed crimes in the past, not the present. Since we’re comparing those who “do not” commit crimes, which is present tense, the other side should be in present tense too.

B: has “Has” is a singular verb that doesn’t agree with the plural word it’s referring to (those). It also suggests comparing past crimes and present.

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