[b-hebrew] Piel etc.

Yes, the two points bellow make good sense. Further, it is legitimate to ask if the binyanim/stems had no original function, how and why did they arise when they did in all Semitic languages?
Uri
George Athas <gathas at hotkey.net.au> wrote, in part:
"...... language does not work like mathematics -- it is far more fluid and abstract in its logic and operations, and Biblical Hebrew is no exception. However, I would not swing the pendulum so far the other way that the binyanim/stems become purely arbitrary forms. There does seem to be some method to the 'madness' of the binyanim/stems...."
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