On Thu 21 Sep 2000 (01:51:04), ravdev@mail.fm wrote:
> Yesterday a conversation came up about semitic patterns in I
> Corinthians 1:23-25. Is this true? If so, are there other instances
> where Paul uses Hebraisms to show his linguistic abilities for Aramaic
> or Hebrew? If
> Hebraisms are evident in the underlying tones of Greek texr, is it
> possible to reconstruct accurately a Hebrew text of the writings of
> Paul? Clement of Alexandria states that there was an original Book of
> Hebrews in
> the Hebrew language. Discounting the Book of Hebrews are there other
> possibilities for Hebrew originals [read 'autographs']?
Dear Dr Greenhill,
Jim West has already given you an answer. If you have the New Testament in
Hebrew, either in Delitzsch's or David Stern's translation, this may give
you some clews (clues?) for your research.
Looking at 1 Corinthians 1:23-25, there are no obvious Semitisms there, IMHO.
ERRWSQE
Ben
--
Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm
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