Which of the following correctly differentiates between “Demand Polity” and “Command Polity”, terms coined by Rudolph and Rudolph (1987)?

Former system is based on popular sovereignty; latter is based on charismatic rule.

D.

Former system stresses on governance rather than just rules; latter emphasizes on rules rather than governance.

Solution:

Justification: Rudolph and Rudolph have attempted to find correlates between the nature of polity of the state and economic characteristics.
In a democratic country, there are two competing sovereignties: state sovereignty and voter/citizen sovereignty. The demand polity refers to the situation when the government’s policies and programmes are for the short-term
benefits of people.
The allocations and welfare activities are carried out keeping elections in mind.
The model of command polity refers to that political set-up in which allocations and distributions are oriented to the long-term goals and sustainable benefits to people.

The role of the state in command politics is monopolistic and oligopolistic. The command politics relates to the postponement theory, which believes in investment for ensuring future development at the cost of the present needs and necessities of the people.

In the existing world, both these polities are found in a mixed form to varying degrees.

QUESTION: 2

Ahmedabad is often referred to as the 'Manchester of India' as it is a major textile region. Which of the following factors have enabled the growth of Ahmadabad as a textile Centre?

1. The flat terrain and easy availability of land is suitable for the establishment of the mills.

2. A very dry climate of Ahmadabad is ideal for spinning and weaving cotton.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification & Learning:

Statement 2: The climate is not dry, but pretty humid due to the proximity with coasts. It has a humid climate that is ideal for spinning and weaving.

Favourable locational factors were responsible for the development of the textile industry in Ahmedabad.

Ahmedabad is situated in the heart of a cotton growing area. This ensures easy availability of raw material.

The densely populated states of Gujarat and Maharashtra provide both skilled and semi-skilled labour. Well developed road and railway network permits easy transportation of textiles to different parts of the country,thus providing easy access to the market.

Consider the following about Nayanars and Alvars.

1. Their social base was confined to particular high castes of South India.

2. They emphasized the relevance of the moral ideals of Buddhists and Jainas to the contemporary society and promoted them.

3. Their songs were compiled in the Divya Prabandham.

4. They preached severe ascetisim as the only true path of salvation.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

Justification:

Statement 1: The seventh to ninth centuries saw the emergence of new religious movements, led by the Nayanars (saints devoted to Shiva) and Alvars (saints devoted to Vishnu) who came from all castes including those considered “untouchable” like the Pulaiyar and the Panars.

Statement 3: They drew upon the ideals of love and heroism as found in the Sangam literature (the earliest example of Tamil literature, composed during the early centuries of the Common Era) and blended them with the values of bhakti.

The Nayanars and Alvars went from place to place composing exquisite poems in praise of the deities enshrined in the villages they visited, and set them to music

The best known among them were Appar, Sambandar, Sundarar and Manikkavasagar,

Their songs were compiled in the Divya Prabandham.

Statement 2 and 4: They were sharply critical of the Buddhists and Jainas and preached ardent love of Shiva or Vishnu as the path to salvation.

Q Source: Page 105: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 4

The term ‘State’, when used in the context of India, refers most appropriately to which of the following?

A.

Government of India at all federal levels

B.

Territory of India including Union territories and other occupied areas

C.

The Political institution that represents sovereign people of India occupying a definite territory

D.

Any institution that ultimately works towards public welfare

Solution:

Learning: The term ‘State’ as such does not refer to state governments.

Rather when we use State, we are trying to distinguish it from ‘government’.

‘Government’ is responsible for administering and enforcing laws. The government can change with elections.

The State on the other hand refers to a political institution that represents a sovereign people who occupy a definite territory. We can, thus, speak of the Indian State, the Nepali State etc.

The Indian State has a democratic form of government. The government (or the executive) is one part of the State. The State refers to more than just the government and cannot be used interchangeably with it.

Q Source: Chapter 1: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following about the Global Taxonomy Initiative (GTI).

1. It is a non-govemmental initiative run by the Conservation International and Worldwide Fund for Nature (WWF).

2. It is the first ever global initiative on biodiversity conservation.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification:

Statement 1: The Conference of the Parties (COP) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) established the GTI. So, 1 is wrong.

It is an inter-governmental effort.

Statement 2: It was started in 1998, much after many important global agreements, conventions and treaties were negotiated and signed, for e.g. CBD in the early 1990s. So, clearly 2 is wrong.

Learning: GTI provides guidance to governments, taxonomists, non-govemment and international organizations, responsible for implementing the GTI (i.e. issues related to taxonomy of flora and fauna).

QUESTION: 6

Contour ploughing is advantageous to farms as it helps in

1. Reducing weed growth of farms

2. Increasing the nutrient base of the soil for growing multiple crops

3. Cutting down water erosion of soil

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

2 only

Solution:

Justification:

It is the farming practice of plowing and/or planting across a slope following its elevation contour lines.

Statement 3:These contour lines create a water break which reduces the formation of rills and gullies during times of heavy water run-off; which is a major cause of soil erosion.The water break also allows more time for the water to settle into the soil.

Statement 1: Since top soil erosion is reduced and water retention improved, it often leads to greater weed growth.

Statement 2: It doesn’t alter the natural nutrient base of the soil and only helps conserve the already existing nutrients.

The population Pyramid of Nation “A” is broader at base and rapidally narrows at the top. The pyramid is also symmetrical about the vertical axis. Which of the following can be said with certainty about Nation "A”?

1. Sex-ratio is adverse in the adult age group.

2. The nation must be reaping the benefits of Demographic Dividend as a vast majority of population is adult.

3. Both Birth rate and death rates are high.

4. Population is geographically concentrated.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1,2 and 3 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 only

Solution:

Concept: A population pyramid shows the total population divided into various age groups, e.g., 5 to 9 years, 10 to 14 years.

It also shows the percentage of the total population, subdivided into males and females, in each of those groups.

The shape of the population pyramid tells the story of the people living in that particular country.

The numbers of children (below 15 years) are shown at the bottom and reflect the level of births. The size of the top shows the numbers of aged people (above 65 years) and reflects the number of deaths.

Justification: Statement 1: Since the pyramid is vertically symmetrical, sex-ratio is 1000, i.e. males and females are equal in number. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: It seems that the larger population percentage in the country is of dependents, i.e. children and old people. A nation reaps demographic dividend using working adults, not dependents. So, 2 will be considered wrong.

Statement 3: The population pyramid of a country in which birth and death rates both are high is broad at the base and rapidly narrows towards the top. This is because although, many children are born, a large percentage of them die in their infancy, relatively few become adults and there are very few old people.

Statement 4: It does not tell anything about the geographical distribution of population.

Q Source: Page 72: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 8

In the production of silk, silkworm cocoons are boiled to kill the silkworms. Why the silkworms are not allowed to survive?

A.

If silkworms survive, no silk can be produced.

B.

The enzymes secreted by animal reduce the length of silk fibres.

C.

The natural colour of silk fibre cannot be retained if worms are allowed to survive.

D.

They make the silk toxic in nature.

Solution:

Justification: the animal is allowed to survive after spinning its cocoon and through the pupal phase of its lifecycle, it releases proteolytic enzymes to make a hole in the cocoon so it can emerge as an adult moth.

■ These enzymes are destructive to the silk and can cause the silk fibers to break down from over a mile in length to segments of random length, which seriously reduces the value of the silk threads.

■ To prevent this, silkworm cocoons are boiled. The heat kills the silkworms and the water makes the cocoons easier to unravel. Often, the silkworm itself is eaten.

Learning: As the process of harvesting the silk from the cocoon kills the larvae, sericulture has been criticized by animal welfare and rights activists.

■ Mahatma Gandhi was critical of silk production based on the Ahimsa philosophy "not to hurt any living thing". This led to Gandhi's promotion of cotton spinning machines, an example of which can be seen at the Gandhi Institute.

■ He also promoted Ahimsa silk, wild silk made from the cocoons of wild and semiwild silk moths.

■ Ahimsa silk is promoted in parts of southern India for those who prefer not to wear silk produced by killing silkworms

1. Viruses are characterized by their dependence on living cells for replication and existence.

2. They possess both species of nucleic acid - DNA and RNA.

3. Antibacterial antibiotics have no effect on viruses.

4. High energy radiation can inactivate viruses

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

Justification:

Statement 1: They do not have an independent metabolism for survival. They are totally dependent upon a living cell, either eukaryotic or prokaryotic, for replication and existence. Viruses are thus a kind of intracellular parasites.
Statement 2: This is one their important biological characteristics. Humans have both DNA and RNA. But, Viruses have only one species of nucleic acid which is either DNA or RNA.
Statement 3: Antibiotics affect only bacteria, not viruses. This is why anti-biotics do not work for many diseases. Statement 4: Ultraviolet, X-ray, and high-energy particles inactivate viruses, often used in water purification
systems to clean water.

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following about the Organization for Islamic Cooperation (OIC).

1. All West Asian states, except Iran, hold the membership of OIC.

2. India has been blocked by OIC on the “Kashmir Issue”.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification:

Statement 1: The OIC is an international organization founded in 1969. It consists of 57 member states including Iran and Pakistan. Administrative centre (headquarters) is in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: In this organisation, India is a blocked country, though it has about 12% of the world’s Muslim population. India has been blocked by Pakistan from joining the OIC over Kashmir issue. OIC regard parts of Kashmir as “occupied by India”.
Learning: Its Objectives:
(i) Raise the collective voice of the Muslim world.
(ii) Collectively work to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony.
OIC has permanent delegations to United Nations and the European Union.

QUESTION: 11

China recently launched the world’s first quantum satellite dubbed as Quantum Experiments at Space Scaler (QUESS) satellite. How is it a strategic gain for China?

1. The satellite will help China to establish hack-proof communications system by transmitting encrypted keys from space to the ground.

2. The satellite will enable China to research in Quantum physics from space resulting in significant cost reductions, Which of the above is/are correct?

In case intruder (hacker) tries to crack the message in Quantum communication, it will change its form in a way that would alert the sender and cause the message to be altered or deleted.

Justification: Statement 1: Earlier, researchers around the world had successfully sent quantum messages on land. But this first of its kind satellite-based quantum network would make it possible to send quickly encrypted (hack proof) messages around the world. It also opens door to other possible uses of the technology. The launch is also a major triumph for China in the field of quantum technology.

Statement 2: It is not related to research in quantum physics as a separate focus. It will be located in sun- synchronous orbit and help bolster China's communication system.

The QUESS satellite has been nicknamed as Micius after a 5th century BC Chinese philosopher.

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements.

1. Generally metallic minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rock formations that form large plateaus.

Justification: Statement 1: Iron-ore innorth Sweden, copper and nickel deposits in Ontario,Canada, iron, nickel, chromites and platinum in South Africa are examples of minerals found in igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Statement 2:Limestone deposits of Caucasusregion of France, manganese deposits of Georgia and Ukraine and phosphate beds of Algeria are some examples. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum arealso found in the sedimentary rocks.

Major Mineral oil reserves are found in which of the following countries?

1. Venezuela

2. Argentina

3. Russia

4. Qatar

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1,2 and 3 only

D.

1,2, 3 and 4

Solution:

Learning: According to current estimates, more than 80% of the world's proven crude oil reserves are located in OPEC Member Countries, with the bulk of OPEC oil reserves in the Middle East, amounting to 65% of the OPEC total.

Countries like Venezuela, Iraq and Kuwait are key members of OPEC with large soil reserves and production.

■ But finding signals from more exotic events, such as mergers of supermassive black holes in colliding galaxies, requires the ability to see subtle frequencies, a sensitivity level only possible from space.

■ So, LISA Pathfinder was intended as a stepping stone to the level of performance needed for a full-scale gravitational wave observatory.

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following about Rowlatt Act.

1. It allowed the British government to imprison people without due trial.

2. The Act banned all Indian owned presses from circulating news.

3. It was repealed following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 only

D.

1 and 3 only

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The Act clearly violated the rule of law, which the British often used to justify their administration in India. Indian nationalists including Mahatma Gandhi were vehement in their opposition to the Rowlatt bills due to such arbitrary provisions.

Statement 2: This was not a provision. Seditious acts were definitely penalize by the act though.

Some restrictive provisions on Press were made by the Vernacular Press Act, 1878.

Statement 3: Despite the large number of protests, the Rowlatt Act came into effect on 10 March 1919.

Learning: In Punjab, protests against this Act continued quite actively and on April 10 two leaders of the movement, Dr Satyapal and Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew were arrested.

To protest these arrests, a public meeting was held on 13 April at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar.

General Dyer entered the park and ordered the troops to fire.

Several hundreds of people died in this gunfire. This incident is known as Jallianwala Bagh massacre. Q Source: Page 44: 8thNCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 16

Consider the following with reference to Archean rock system in India belonging to certain geologic periods.

1. The Archean rock system in India can be found in Aravali Mountains.

2. This rock system contains non-metallic minerals only.

3. It contains mainly metamorphic sedimentary rocks.

4. It is the oldest rock system in India.

A.

1, 3 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

justification: Statement 1: It is found in Aravali Mountains, two-thirds of the Deccan peninsula and some parts of north east.
Statement 2: These rocks have abundant metallic and non-metallic minerals such as iron, copper, manganese, bauxite, lead, zinc, gold, silver, tin, tungsten, mica, asbestos, graphite, etc.
Statement 3: It is the “Dharwar” Rock System which is the first metamorphic sedimentary rocks in India.

Statement 4: These are the oldest followed by Dharwar rocks. Tertiary rocks are the youngest.

QUESTION: 17

In dry areas of low rainfall, thorny shrubs and scrubs grow. How do such plants adapt to the low level of moisture?

1. Such plants generally have shallow roots to utilize water more efficiently.

2. Some plant leaves have thorny and waxy surface to reduce loss of moisture by transpiration.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: They have adapted to desert conditions by developing extremely long root systems to draw water from deep underground near the water table. The mesquite's roots are considered the longest of any desert plant and have been recorded as long as 80 feet.

Statement 2: Some have succulent leaves to store moisture. Some have thorny leaves to reduce water loss by transpiration. Waxy leaves protect soil moisture beneath the coating.

Q Source: Page 18: Class 8thNCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 18

India has developed World’s first vaccine that is targeted exclusively at Leprosy. Consider the following about this disease.
1. Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by a bacteria.
2. To fight Leprosy, Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) is being supplied free of cost in India by the efforts of WHO.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae bacteria. It usually affects the skin and peripheral nerves, but has a wide range of clinical manifestations.

Statement 2: The National Leprosy Eradication Programme is being continued with Govt. of India funds from January 2005 onwards. Additional support for the programme is continued to be received from the WHO and ILEP organizations. MDT is to be supplied free of cost as of now by NOVARTIS through WHO.

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following functions can be devolved to a Gram Panchayat by the State Legislature?

1. Framing rules and regulations on social conduct in villages
2. The construction and maintenanceof water sources in the village
3. Levying and collecting taxes on public utilities

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Laws concerning villages can be made only by the State Legislature, and rules/regulations by the State government. So, 1 is incorrect.

The work of a Gram Panchayat includes the construction and maintenance of water sources, roads, drainage,school buildings and other common property resources.

It can also levy and collect local taxes and execute government schemes related to generating employmentin the village.

Q Source: Revision Past test: 7thNCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 20

Which of the following correctly bring(s) out the difference between a National Park and a Biosphere Reserve?

1. National Park is designated for the conservation of a particular species only, whereas Biosphere Reserves conserve a host of plants and species.

2. National Parks are aimed at conserving the cultural heritage of the region in-situ, whereas Biosphere Reserves conserve the landscape as a whole.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: A natural area designated to protect the ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems for present and future generations. It is not for the conservation of a particular species only.

It is the Wildlife sanctuary that aims at the conservation of particular set of species. So, 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: No human settlements are even allowed in the core region of a national park. So, 2 is clearly incorrect.

National parks conserve the ecological aspects of the environment, not its cultural and social aspects.

Learning: Biosphere reserves are a series of protected areas linked through a global network, intended to demonstrate the relationship between conservation and development.

Human settlements can generally be found in such reserves, as they conserve the ecosystem in its natural conditions.

Q Source: Page 21: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following will be the first expressway between India and China?

A.

Xinjiang Economic Corridor

B.

Kaladan Multimodal transport project

C.

India Trilateral Highway

D.

BCIM Economic Corridor

Solution:

Learning: The proposed corridor will cover 1.65 million square kilometres, encompassing an estimated 440 million people in China's Yunnan province, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Bihar in Northern India through the combination of road, rail, water and air linkages in the region.

■ The multi-modal corridor will be the first expressway between India and China and will pass through Myanmar and Bangladesh.

■ India's isolated eastern and north-eastern states also stand to gain by higher trade and connectivity with China and the rest of Asia the corridor will run from Kunming to Kolkata, linking Mandalay in Myanmar as well as Dhaka and Chittagong in Bangladesh.

QUESTION: 22

Kangra school of painting is associated with

1. Miniature paintings inspired from Vaishnavite traditions

2. Migration of Mughal artists to the hills from the plains following Nadir Shah’s invasion

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Nadir Shah’s invasion and the conquest of Delhi in 1739 resulted in the migration of Mughal artists to the hills to escape the uncertainties of the plains.

■ Here they found ready patrons which led to the founding of the Kangra school of painting.

■ By the mid-eighteenth century the Kangra artists developed a style which breathed a new spirit into miniature painting. The source of inspiration was the Vaishnavite traditions.

Learning: The Appointment Committee of Cabinet (ACC) recommended the appointment of Uijit Patel based on the recommendation of the Financial Sector Regulatory Appointments Search Committee (FSRASC).

■ The PMO appoints the RBI Governor.

■ The latter is only an advisory body headed by the Cabinet Secretary.

■ Some of the recent changes made to the RBI Act is the inclusion of a Monetary Policy Committee which will have representation both from government and RBI.

■ The veto power of the Governor regarding key monetary policy decisions has been revoked.

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following matches.

1. Khanqah : A system of land holdings which paid rent to the empire

2. Idgah : Rest house for travellers where spiritual matters were discussed

3. Cul-de-sac : A large prayer house facing East direction

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 only

D.

None of the above

Solution:

Justification: Delhi during Shah Jahan’s time was also an important centre of Sufi culture. It had several dargahs, khanqahs and idgahs.

Statement 1: It was a sufi lodge, often used as a rest house for travellers and a place where people come to discuss spiritual matters, get the blessings of saints, and hear sufi music.

Statement 2: It was an open prayer place of Muslims primarily meant for id prayers.

Statement 3: It was simply a street with a dead end.

Q Source: Page 66: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III - Part I

QUESTION: 25

India has ranked 66 th in the 2016 Global Innovation Index (GII). The index is released by

A.

World Trade Organization (WTO)

B.

World Bank

C.

United Nations Social and Economic Council (UNECOSOC)

D.

INSEAD and World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO)

Solution:

Learning:The annual index was released by France-based international business school INSEAD and World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO), a specialized agency of the United Nations.

■ The index ranks world economies since 2007 according to their innovation capabilities using more than 80 indicators.

■ India's better performance in the 2016 GII readings was due to its strengths in tertiary education, corporate R&D, software export and market sophistication.

■ India has starting to excel in ICT and creative goods exports. It is setting a good example highlighting how its policy is improving the innovation environment.

■ Among the middle income countries, India (25th) came second after China (17th) in innovation quality by overtaking Brazil (27th). China has figured at the 25th position (29th in 2015 GII) is the only middle- income country in the top 25.

QUESTION: 26

Consider the following about the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS).

1. According to the Olympic Charter, all disputes in connection with the Olympic Games can only be submitted to CAS.

2. Appeals against the orders of CAS can be filed in the IOC disciplinary commission.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification& Learning: Indian wrestler Narsingh Yadav was banned from all competitive sporting events for

four years by the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS) based in Lausanne, Switzerland.

He was banned by CAS following an appeal by World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) as there was

no evidence to accept his claim that his food was spiked by banned doping substance.

CAS is an international quasi-judicial body established to settle disputes related to sport through arbitration.

Statement 1:According to rule 61 of the Olympic Charter, all disputes in connection with the Olympic Games can only be submitted to CAS. Since 2016, an anti-doping division of CAS was given full authority to judge doping cases at the Olympic Games.

Statement 2: It had replaced earlier mechanism of the IOC disciplinary commission. So, 2 is incorrect.

QUESTION: 27

The innovative scheme of star rating of mines recently launched by the Union Ministry of Mines assesses performance of mines on the basis of which of the following parameters?

1. Total volume of mineral production and annual turnover

2. Scientific and systematic mining

3. Local community engagements and welfare programmes

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Justification: The innovative scheme of star rating of mines was launched by the Union Ministry of Mines through IBM as part of Sustainable Development Framework (SDF) in the mining sector.

■ The main objective of this system is to bring all mines to a minimum standard of Star Rating in the shortest possible time frame to adopt sustainable practices.

■ Based on the performance of the mining leases, a one to five star rating would be given to the mines.

■ Initially, the star rating will be done for mines of majorminerals.

The star rating will be based on the following parameters: (i) scientific and systematic mining, (ii) addressing social impact of resettlement and rehabilitation, (iii)local community engagements and welfare programmes, (iv) progressive and final mine closure and adoption of international standards and (v) adoption of international standards for mining operations and reporting.

QUESTION: 28

The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) is being implemented with which of the following objectives?

1. Make the Police functioning citizen friendly and more transparent by automating the functioning of Police Stations

Justification: It aims at increasing the efficiency and effectiveness of policing through adopting of principle of e- Governance and creation of a nationwide networking infrastructure for evolution of IT-enabled-state-of-the-art tracking system around 'Investigation of crime and detection of criminals'.

Objectives of 'CCTNS'

Make the Police functioning citizen friendly and more transparent by automating the functioning of Police Stations.

Improve delivery of citizen-centric services through effective usage of ICT.

Provide the Investigating Officers of the Civil Police with tools, technology and information to facilitate investigation of crime and detection of criminals.

Improve Police functioning in various other areas such as Law and Order, Traffic Management etc.

Facilitate Interaction and sharing of Information among Police Stations, Districts, State/UT headquarters and other Police Agencies.

Assist senior Police Officers in better management of Police Force

Keep track of the progress of Cases, including in Courts

Reduce manual and redundant Records keeping

QUESTION: 29

Consider the following about the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR).

1. It is a statutory body functioning as a division of the Ministry of Arts and Culture.

2. It gives special emphasis on historical research in areas which have not received adequate attention so far.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: ICHR is an autonomous body of the Union Ministry of Human Resource Development. It was established by an Administrative Order of the then Union Ministry of Education and Social Welfare.

Statement 2: It brings historians together and provide a forum for exchange of views between them and gives a national direction to an objective and scientific writing of history and to have rational presentation and interpretation of history.

It promotes, accelerates and coordinates research in history with special emphasis on areas which have not received adequate attention so far;

ICHR disburses funds for carrying out research to Indian as well as foreign scholars on their applications

for fellowships, grants, and symposia made to ICHR or through HRD Ministry.

It has provided financial assistance to the historians and direction to the research scholars in their multifarious topics of historical research.

Learning: The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is planning to document stories and legends relating to villages and towns across India into an encyclopedia.

This initiative is aimed at to connect people better with the oral and folk traditions.

It would be among the key initiatives to be under taken by ICHR. Other initiatives to be undertaken include study of the princely States of modern India, studies to fill the gaps between the Harappan civilisation (first Indian urbanisation) and the 6th century BC (second urbanisation).

QUESTION: 30

Consider the following about the Office of the Governor.

1. The tenure of his Office is not mentioned in the Constitution.

2. The same person cannot act as Governor for two or more states.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Article 156: Governor is appointed by President and hold office during the pleasure of President. It should be also noted that this article also mentions tenure of Governor. In this regard it says that Governor shall hold office for the term of 5 years from date he enters upon his office.

Statement 2: Article 153: It says that there shall be Governor for each state. But 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.

Learning: ECOLEX is a web-based information service operated jointly by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the UN (FAO), the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the UN
Environmental Program (UNEP).
Effective international and domestic laws and policies are a cornerstone to biodiversity conservation.
ECOLEX is the most comprehensive global source of national and international environmental and natural
resources law and policy.
The ECOLEX user can access legal and policy instruments - international agreements, legislation, judicial decisions, law and policy literature - relating to ecosystems, species and genetic resources as well as other sectors affecting biodiversity such as agriculture, fisheries, forestry, mining and water.

QUESTION: 32

Which of the following purposes is served by a democratic Constitution?

A.

Defining the way power will be exercised in the country’s political system

B.

Guards against the misuse of power by the authorities

C.

Protects the minority against the tyranny of the majority

D.

All of the above

Solution:

Correct Answer : D Answer

Justification & Learning:

An important purpose of a Constitution is to define the nature of a country’s political system. For example, Nepal’s earlier Constitution stated that the country was to be ruled by the King and his council of ministers. So, A is correct.
In democratic societies, the Constitution often lays down rules that guard against this misuse of power by our political leaders. In the case of the Indian Constitution many of these laws are contained in the section on Fundamental Rights. So, B is correct.
Another important function that a Constitution plays in a democracy is to ensure that a dominant group does not use its power against other, less powerful people or groups.

Every society is prone to this tyranny of the majority. The Constitution usually contains rules that ensure that minorities are not excluded from anything that is routinely available to the majority. So, C is correct.

QUESTION: 33

Consider the following matches of tribes and the states they are found predominantly.

1. Gaddis : Uttar Pradesh

2. Koya : Odisha

3. Mala Irular : Andhra Pradesh

4. Baigas : Madhya Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

2 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

Justification: We will be covering more such questions on tribes and their unique features in the coming tests. As of now, you should familiarize yourself with as many major tribes as possible.

Q Source: Page 6: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I
34.

QUESTION: 34

The climatic or soil condition beneficial to the growth of both Rice and Wheat is?

A.

High rainfall and a soil that can retain water

B.

Moderate temperatures and a soil that is well-drained

C.

Low rainfall and a sandy loam soil

D.

None of the above

Solution:

Justification: Rice needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall. It grows best in alluvial clayey soil, which can retain water.
Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest. It thrives best in well drained loamy soil. So, none of the above options A, B or C is correct.
Learning: China leads in the production of rice followed by India, Japan, Sri Lanka and Egypt. In favourable climatic conditions as in West Bengal and Bangladesh two to three crops a year are grown.
Wheat is grown extensively in USA, Canada, Argentina, Russia, Ukraine, Australia and India. In India it is grown in winter.
Q Source: Page 44: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following about Strategic Forces Command (SFC)

1. It forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA).

2. It is headed by the Prime Minister.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: It is a tri-Service command that forms part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA).
It was created in 2003 by an executive order of Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS).
It is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons stockpile.
Statement 2: It is headed by a Commander-in-Chief of the rank of Air Marshal. So, 2 is wrong.
Learning:Nuclear Command Authority (NCA):
NCA is India’s nodal authority responsible for command, control and operational decisions regarding India’s nuclear weapons programme.
It has Executive Council and Political Council.
The NCA’s directives are executed by the Strategic Forces Command The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Adviser (NSA). It gives inputs to the Political Council, which authorises a nuclear attack if need be.
The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister and is advised by the Executive Council.
This separation of power mechanism is meant to ensure that the nuclear weapons are under civilian control (elected government). Besides it act as a Command and Control (C2) mechanism prevents their accidental or unauthorised use.

QUESTION: 36

The Right to Equality provided in the Constitution covers which of the following fundamental rights?

1. All persons are equal before the law.

2. The State cannot discriminate arbitrarily in matters of employment.

3. All citizens are entitled to move freely anywhere in the Indian Territory.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

justification: Statement 3 comes under the Right to Freedom (Article 19).

The Right to Equality (Articles 14-18) covers several fundamental rights.
This right means that all persons shall be equally protected by the laws of the country.
It also states that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, caste or sex. Every person has access to all public places including playgrounds, hotels, shops etc.
The practice of untouchability has also been abolished by the Right to Equality.
The State cannot discriminate against anyone in matters of employment. But there are exceptions to this and we will be covering them in later tests once we begin with Indian Polity by M Laxmikanth.

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following about the Mansabdari system instituted in Mughal India.

1. It was a grading system used by the Mughals to fix rank, salary and military responsibilities.

2. Mansabdars received their salaries as revenue assignments called jagirs.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: As the empire expanded to encompass different regions the Mughals recruited diverse bodies of people. From a small nucleus of Turkish nobles (Turanis) they expanded to include Iranians, Indian Muslims, Afghans, Rajputs, Marathas and other groups.
Those who joined Mughal service were enrolled as mansabdars.
The term mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a mansab, meaning a position or rank.
Statement 2: Mansabdars received their salaries as revenue assignments called jagirs which were somewhat like iqtas.
But unlike muqtis, most mansabdars did not actually reside in or administer their jagirs. They only had rights to the revenue of their assignments which was collected for them by their servants.
The Right to Equality (Articles 14-18) covers several fundamental rights.
This right means that all persons shall be equally protected by the laws of the country.
It also states that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, caste or sex. Every person has access to all public places including playgrounds, hotels, shops etc.
The practice of untouchability has also been abolished by the Right to Equality.
The State cannot discriminate against anyone in matters of employment. But there are exceptions to this and
Learning: Rank and salary were determined by a numerical value called zat. The higher the zat, the more prestigious was the noble’s position in court and the larger his salary.
The mansabdar’s military responsibilities required him to maintain a specified number of sawar or cavalrymen. The mansabdar brought his cavalrymen for review, got them registered, their horses branded and then received money to pay them as salary.
Q Source: Chapter 5: NCERT 7th History: Our Pasts -II

QUESTION: 38

“Global Financial Development Report” is published by

A.

International Monetary Fund

B.

World Economic Forum

C.

United Nations Economic and Social Council (UNECOSOC)

D.

World Bank

Solution:

Learning: The recently published report suggests a key role for long-term finance:
Use of long-term finance is more limited in developing countries, particularly among smaller firms and poorer individuals.
Where it exists, the bulk of long-term finance is provided by banks; use of equity, including private equity, is limited for firms of all sizes.
The global financial crisis of 2008 has also led to a reduction in leverage and use of long-term debt for developing country firms.
Market failures and policy distortions have a disproportionate effect on long-term finance, suggesting an important role for policies that address these failures and distortions.
Sustainably extending the maturity structure of finance is a key policy challenge since long-term finance can be an important contributor to economic growth and shared prosperity.

QUESTION: 39

Which of the following is/are the advantages of using the “Blockchain technology”?
1. It is distributed across users thus keeping data more secure than centralized systems.
2. It promotes transparency in online transactions.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Concept: The blockchain —conceived in 2008—is the main technical innovation of bitcoin, where it serves as In this case, every user is allowed to connect to the network, send new transactions to it, verify transactions, and create new blocks, making the bitcoin blockchain permissionless.
The bitcoin/blockchain design has been the inspiration for other applications.
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: The big difference is that this ledger isn't stored in one place, it's distributed
across several, hundreds or even thousands of computers around the world.
And everyone in the network can have access to an up-to-date version of the ledger, so it's very transparent.
Well, the distributed nature of a blockchain database means that it's harder for hackers to attack it - they
would have to get access to every copy of the database simultaneously to be successful.
It also keeps data secure and private because the hash cannot be converted back into the original data - it's a
one-way process.

QUESTION: 40

Which of these minerals can be found in Southern India?

1. Iron
2. Iron
3. Mica
4. Bauxite

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

Learning: Iron: India has deposits of high grade iron ore. The mineral is found mainly in Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Bauxite: Major bauxite producing areas are Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
Mica:Mica deposits mainly occur in Jharkhand, Bihar,Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan. India is the largest
producer and exporter of mica in the world.
Copper: It is mainly produced in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

QUESTION: 41

In Medieval India, the duty of Muqtis was

A.

maintain law and order in their iqtas

B.

administering the royal treasury

C.

social welfare among the downtrodden

D.

educating the public of royal developments

Solution:

Learning: Like the earlier Sultans, the Khalji and Tughluq monarchs appointedmilitary commanders as governors
of territories of varying sizes. These lands were called iqta and their holder was called iqtadar or muqti.
Duty of the muqtis was to lead military campaigns andmaintain law and order in their iqtas.
In exchange for their military services, the muqtis collected the revenues of their assignments as salary.
They also paid their soldiers from these revenues.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 39 and later pages including 84: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 42

Under Dalhousie’s “Doctrine of Lapse” policy, a kingdom would become part of the Company territory if

A.

An Indian ruler died without a male heir

B.

The Kingdom did not accept the land revenue systems of the British

C.

The kingdom evicted the British Residents appointed by the Monarch

D.

Good governance practices were not followed by the Kingdom

Solution:

Learning: The final wave of kingdom annexations occurred under Lord Dalhousiewho was the Governor-General
from 1848 to 1856.
He devised a policy that came to be known as the Doctrine of Lapse. The doctrine declared that if an Indian ruler
died without a male heir his kingdom would “lapse”, that is, become part of Company territory.
One kingdom after another was annexed simply by applying this doctrine: Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1850),
Udaipur (1852), Nagpur (1853) and Jhansi (1854).
Finally, in 1856, the Company also took over Awadh. This time the British had an added argument – they
said they were “obliged by duty” to take over Awadh in order to free the people from the “misgovernment”
of the Nawab!
Enraged by the humiliating way in which the Nawab was deposed, the people of Awadh joined the great
revolt that broke out in 1857.
Q Source: Page 6: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I

QUESTION: 43

“Sulh-i kul” of Akbar was associated with

A.

A universally applicable system of ethics

B.

An agreement between Mughal rulers to govern the subasmore efficiently

C.

Distribution of rank and perks between Subadars

D.

Civil and criminal justice of the darbar

Solution:

Learning: While Akbar was at Fatehpur Sikri during the 1570s he started discussions on religion with the ulama, These discussions took place in the ibadat khana.He was interested in the religion and social customs of different people.
It made him realise that religious scholars who emphasised ritual and dogma were often bigots.
Their teachings created divisions and disharmony amongst his subjects. This eventually led Akbar to the idea of sulh-i kul of “universal peace”.
This idea of tolerance did not discriminate between people of different religions in his realm.Instead it focused on a system of ethics – honesty, justice, peace – that was universally applicable.
Abul Fazl helped Akbar in framing a vision of governance around this idea of sulh-i kul. This principle of
governancewas followed by Jahangir and Shah Jahan as well.
Q Source: Page 54: NCERT 7th: Our Pasts - II

QUESTION: 44

With reference to Medieval India, consider the following about Hundis.

1. It was a note recording a deposit made bya person which could be claimed back in another place by presenting
2. There is evidence to show that Hundis were honoured outside Indianmarkets also.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1:Hundi is a note recording a deposit made by a person.
The amount deposited can be claimed in another place by presenting the record of the deposit.
Statement 2:The Kathiawad seths or mahajans (money changers) had huge banking houses at Surat.
It is noteworthy that the Surat hundis were honoured in the far-off markets of Cairo in Egypt, Basra in Iraq and Antwerp in Belgium.
Q Source: Page 84: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 45

According to the “Right to Constitutional Remedies”

1. Aggrieved citizens canmove the court in case of violation of fundamental rights.
2. The Central Government can move the Court if the State government refuses to follow its orders.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: The court issues a writ to address the violation of fundamental rights. Only that we will be covering more on this topic in coming tests.
Statement 2: The government doesn’t approach the court in such cases. It can impose President’s rule in the State
if the a State continuously denies following Centre’s executive directions and subverts the constitutional scheme of
division of powers.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 46

Amir Khusrau, a renowned poet in Medieval India,made which of the following observations about India?
1. A different language could be found in every region of India.
2. Training centres in Sanskrit language have done an excellent work at promoting Sanskrit to the common folks of India.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1:In 1318 the poet Amir Khusrau noted that there was“a different language in every
region of this land: Sindhi, Lahori, Kashmiri, Dvarsamudri (in southern Karnataka),Telangani (in Andhra Pradesh)
etc.
Statement 2:Amir Khusrau went on to explain that in contrast to these languages there was Sanskrit which did not
belong to any region.
It was an old language and “common peopledo not know it, only the Brahmanas do”. So, 2 is incorrect.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 10-11: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 47

If Banks set a high Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) for a client, which of the following inferences can be drawn from it?

1. Banks find it risky to lend to that borrower.
2. Banks will offer teaser loans to the borrower.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: “Marginal Cost of Funds” here means the bank evaluate borrowers based on the credibility and paying ability of the borrower. If banks find that the loan is more likely to be defaulted in future,
they may set high interest rates to deter non-credible borrowers. So, 1 is correct.
Statement 2: There is no such provision. Teaser loans are more attractive as compared to normal loans. In the
former, starting few years are interest free, and then interest rate is adjusted upwards with each passing year.Learning: The MCLR system has simply replaced the Base rate system.
The MCLR should be revised monthly by considering some new factors including the repo rate and other
borrowing rates.

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following about OSIRIS-Rex spacecraft of NASA.
1. The mission will help scientists investigate how planets formed and how life began.
2. It will improve our understanding of asteroids that could impact Earth.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1:NASA is preparing to launch its first mission to return a sample of an asteroid to Earth. The mission will help scientists investigate how planets formed and how life began, as well as improve our
understanding of asteroids that could impact Earth. Statement 2: The Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security-Regolith Explorer (OSIRISREx)
spacecraft will travel to the near-Earth asteroid Bennu and bring a sample back to Earth for intensive study.

QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements.
1. Right to Equality before law is not effective in India as citizens do not have a Fundamental Right to be defended by a lawyer.
2. It is the constitutional duty of the state to provide a lawyer to any citizen who is unable to engage one due to poverty or other disability.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: According to Article 22 of the Constitution, every person has a Fundamental Right to
be defended by a lawyer.

Statement 2: Article 39A of the Constitution places a duty upon the State to provide a lawyer to any citizen who is unable to engage one due to poverty or other disability.

National Legal Services Authority as established to provide legal help to such citizens. We will be covering questions on such bodies in coming tests.
Q Source: Page 68: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 50

The Battle held at Plassey is often mentioned in India’s colonial history. How did the place Plassey get its namefrom?

A.

Palash tree that grow there

B.

The water structures that surrounded large forts

C.

Highly fertile soil found there

D.

Series of battles fought at it

Solution:

Learning: Battle of Plassey was fought between the Company and Sirajuddaulah asked the Company to stop
meddling in the political affairs of his dominion, stop fortification, and pay the revenues.
Plassey is an anglicised pronunciation of Palashi and the place derived its name from the palash tree known for its
beautiful red flowers that yield gulal, the powder used in the festival of Holi.
Q Source: Page 2: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I

QUESTION: 51

Millets can be grown in
1. Less fertile and sandy soils
2. Semi-arid regions with low rainfall
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Millet is a coarse grain and a hardy crop that needs low rainfall and high to moderate temperature and adequate rainfall. Jowar, bajra and ragi are some of the hardy crops grown in India. So, both 1 and 2 are correct.

Vishnu as Narasimha, the man-lion, a work of the Rashtrakuta period, has been shown in

A.

Ajanta caves

B.

Ellora caves

C.

Karla caves

D.

Kailasha caves

Solution:

Learning: The Ellora contains excellent rock-cut sculptures.
The Kailasa Temple at Ellora is a megalith carved out of one single rock and considered as one of the most remarkable cave temples in India because of its size, architecture and sculptural treatment. Ellora also contains Buddhist art masterpieces.

Source: Improvisation:Page 17: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 53

As per the recently published Patents (Amendment) Rules, 2016, consider the following.
1. Patent hearings can be conducted remotely with the help of audio-visual technology.
2. Patent requests for Indian Companies operating outside India will not be entertained by the Indian Patents Office (IPO) and left to the host nations.
3. Patent claims filed by start-ups are left uncovered by the rules due to the lack of experience of Start-ups in
developing credible products.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Justification: The Government announced India’s first National IPR Policy in May and in the same month amended Patent Rules. Some provisions made in the rules:
Statement 1: Remote Hearing, Restriction on adjournments and associated factors: Now hearings can be conducted through video-conferencing or audio-visual communication devices.
Statement 2: In 2002, the foreign filing license requirementwas introduced in the Indian Patents Act of 1970.
This requirement provided that any inventor who is a resident of India should file or cause to be filed a patent application for his/her own invention first in India; and only after a period of six weeks after the date of filing of
the patent application, a filing could be done in a country outside India.
The amended rules do provide for foreign filing request and its quick disposal.
Statement 3: In line with the Indian Government’s ‘Make in India’ and ‘Start Up India’ initiatives, under the rules,
a new definition for a ‘start-up’ has been introduced under which an entity that has been in existence for less than five years and has an annual turnover of less than (approx) USD 4 million qualifies as a ‘start-up’. So, 3 is definitely incorrect.

QUESTION: 54

The East India Company forced many states into a “subsidiary alliance”. According to the terms of this alliance
1. No Indian ruler was allowed to keep armed forces in his kingdom.
2. Half of the land territory of the states was to be transferred to the Company as a debt security instrument.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Indian rulers were not allowed to have their independent armed forces. But, they could keep forces within their Kingdom, so 1 is incorrect.
They were to be protected by the Company, but had to pay for the “subsidiary forces” that the Company was supposed to maintain for the purpose of this protection.
Statement 2: If the Indian rulers failed to make the payment, then part of their territory was taken away as penalty. It was not a mandatory clause. So, 2 is also wrong.
Learning: When Richard Wellesley was GovernorGeneral (1798-1805), the Nawab of Awadh was forced to
give over half of his territory to the Company in 1801, as he failed to pay for the “subsidiary forces”. Hyderabad
was also forced to cede territories on similar grounds.
Q Source: Page 111: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 55

Consider the following about “The Climate and CleanAir Coalition”.
1. It is a joint initiative of IUCN and World Bank.
2. The Coalition addresses short-lived climate pollutants.
3. It is a global effort that unites governments, civil society and private sector.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The Climate and CleanAir Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC) was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and six countries—Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States— in 2012.
The CCAC aims to catalyze rapid reductions in short-lived climate pollutants to protect human health, agriculture and the environment.

Statement 2: The Coalition's objectives are to address this by: Raising awareness of short-lived climate pollutant impacts andmitigation strategies
Enhancing and developing new national and regional actions, including by identifying and overcoming
barriers, increasing capacity, and mobilizing support
Promoting best practices and showcasing successful efforts
Improving scientific understanding of short-lived climate pollutant impacts andmitigation strategies.

Statement 3: The Climate and CleanAir Coalition is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society
and private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few decades by reducing
short-lived climate pollutants across sectors.

QUESTION: 56

The Human Genome Project (HGP) is an international scientific research project with the goal(s) of
1. Determining the sequence of chemical base pairs which make up human DNA
2. Identifying and mapping all of the genes of the human genome
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: The project aims atidentifying andmapping all of the genes of the human genome from both a
physical and a functional standpoint.
The "genome" of any given individual is unique; mapping the "human genome" involves sequencing
multiple variations of each gene.
Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States— in 2012.
The CCAC aims to catalyze rapid reductions in short-lived climate pollutants to protect human health, agriculture
and the environment.
Statement 2: The Coalition's objectives are to address this by:
In May 2016, scientists considered extending the HGP to include creating a synthetic human genome.
In June 2016, scientists formally announced HGP-Write, a plan to synthesize the human genome.

QUESTION: 57

Bhanudatta’s Rasamanjari is associated with

A.

Birth of Shilpkala in India

B.

Its depiction in various schools of painting

C.

The earliest text on music and ragas in India

D.

Civil Disobedience Movement 1930

Solution:

Learning: Rasamanjari was one of the most inspiring texts of ancient India that prompted various schools of Indian painting. For example, in the Basohli miniature paintings and supur schools, the complete text of Rasamanjari has been illustrated with 80 paintings. Rasamanjari literally refers to the cluster of blossoms full of Rasas. In Indianmythology there are 9 Rasas
or sentiments on which the art is based.
This Sanskrit work classifies Nayaks (heros) and Nayikas (heroines) according to their temperament and
behavior.Due to its delicate and vivid delineation of the persons of these nayikas and nayaks, Rasamanjari
has drawn the attention of the artists and painters all over India with the result that today we have
illustrations of Rasamanjari in a number of schools of painting.
Rasamanjari highlights the Sringara Rasa, also called as the Rasaraja or the supreme of all the Rasas.Q Source: Chapter 9 (Near Pahari School paintings): Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 58

Widespread death of IndianVultures had been caused after scavenging on the carcasses of livestock. This was because

A.

The livestock were treated with Diclofenac which was lethal to Vultures.

B.

Vultures were declared vermins by the Central government leading to their massive poaching.

C.

Long flight and ground landing proved lethal for Vultures in Indian summers.

D.

All of the above

Solution:

Justification: Option B can be eliminated as some species of Vultures are protected under the Schedule I of Wildlife Act. Vermin species are unprotected and can be exterminated after obtaining the permission of concerned authorities.
Vultures in the Indian subcontinent were dying of kidney failure shortly after scavenging livestock treated with
diclofenac, a painkiller that is similar to aspirin or ibuprofen. So, only A is correct.
It is now banned in India for veterinary purposes.
Answer Justification :
Learning: Rasamanjari was one of the most inspiring texts of ancient India that prompted various schools of Indian painting.
For example, in the Basohli miniature paintings and supur schools, the complete text of Rasamanjari has
been illustrated with 80 paintings.
Q Source: Page 18: Chapter 2: NCERT 8th Geography: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 59

Chauth and Sardeshmukhi levied by the Marathas were related to

A.

Pottery and crafts

B.

Recovery charges on state led industrial development

C.

Land revenue

D.

Fines on defeated kingdoms

Solution:

Learning: By the 1730s, the Maratha king was recognised as the overlord of the entire Deccan peninsula.
He possessed the right to levy chauth and sardeshmukhi in the entire region.
Chauth was 25 per cent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars. In the Deccan this was collected by the Marathas.
Sardeshmukhi was 9-10 per cent of the land revenue paid to the head revenue collector in the Deccan.
Q Source: Page 150: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following about Federalism in India.

1. The Constitution does not mention the sources of finance for each tier of Government and leaves it for the
executive to decide.
2. The states are not merely agents of the Central government but draw their authority from the Constitution.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification & Learning: While each state in India enjoys autonomy in exercising powers on certain issues, subjects of national concern require that all of these states follow the laws of the central government.
The Constitution contains lists that detail the issues that each tier of government can make laws on.
In addition, the Constitution also specifies where each tier of government can get the money from for the work that it does. So, 1 is wrong.
Under federalism, the states are not merely agents of the federal government but draw their authority from the Constitution as well. All persons in India are governed by laws and policies made by each of these
levels of government.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 61

He was the founding editor of the Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal and is best remembered for decipheringm the Kharosthi and Brahmi scripts of ancient India. He is

A.

Alexander Cook

B.

William Nathan

C.

George Turnour

D.

James Prinsep

Solution:

Learning: As a result of Prinsep's work as an editor of the Asiatic Society's journal, coins and copies of inscriptionswere transmitted to him from all over India, to be deciphered, translated, and published.
In a series of results that he published between 1836–38 he was able to decipher the inscriptions on rock edicts found around India.
The edicts in Brahmi scriptmentioned a King Devanampriya Piyadasi which Prinsep initially assumed was a Sri Lankan king.
He was then able to associate this title with Asoka on the basis of Pali script from Sri Lanka communicated to him by George Turnour.
Q Source: Improvisation:Fig 6:Page 6: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I UPSC CSP 2016

QUESTION: 62

The practice of intercropping comes closest to

A.

Mixed farming

B.

Hydroponics

C.

Jhum agriculture

D.

Mixed cropping

Solution:

Justification: Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from rain wash.
In mixed farming, two ormore crops are sown on the field in the same season. So, D is the most appropriate
answer.
Option A (mixed farming) is about rearing livestock alongwith agriculture.
Option B is about growing plants in nutrient rich water.
Option C is slash and burn agriculture.
Q Source: Soil Conservation practices: 8th NCERT Geography: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements.

1. Judiciary is the final interpreter of the Constitution.
2. Judiciary has the power to strike down laws passed by the Parliament if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Supreme Court is the guardian, custodian and final interpreter of the constitution. This means that if a dispute arises regarding the meaning of specific provisions of the constitution, the court gives the final version of the meaning of those specific provisions, for e.g. the Right to Life under Article 21 of the constitution.
Statement 2: It is the power of judicial review.
Under the powers of judicial review, the judiciary can strike down laws, administrative acts and even constitutional amendments if they violate the constitution or the basic premises of the constitution.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 64

In India,Uranium reserves can be found in which of the following belts?

Justification & Learning: As per official estimates, apart from discoveries in the Singhbhum Thrust Belt, several
uranium occurrences have also been found in Cuddapah basin of Andhra Pradesh.
These include Lambapur-Peddagattu, Chitrial, Kuppunuru, Tumallapalle, Rachakuntapalle which have significantly contributed towards the uranium reserve base of India.
In the Mahadek basin of Meghalaya in NorthEastern part of the country, sandsyone type uranium deposits like Domiasiat,Wahkhyn, Mawsynram provide near-surface flat orebodies amenable to commercial operations.
Other areas in Rajsthan, Karnataka and Chattishgarh hold promise for developing into some major deposits.

QUESTION: 65

Under the Mahalwari settlement

A.

Most villages were made to pay equal land revenue irrespective of village population

B.

Revenue was to be fixed on a permanent basis

C.

The charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company was given to the village headman

D.

Peasants became directly accountable to the Zamindar for payment of land revenue

Solution:

Learning: By the early nineteenth century many of the Companyofficials were convinced that the Permanent
Settlement system of revenue had to be changed. In the North Western Provinces of the Bengal PresidencyHolt Mackenzie devised the new system which came into effect in 1822.
He felt that the village was an important social institution in north Indian society and needed to be preserved.
Under his directions, collectors went from village to village, inspecting the land, measuring the fields, and recording the customs and rights of different groups. Justification: Option A: The estimated revenue of each plot within a village was added up to calculate the revenue
that each village (mahal) had to pay. So, A is incorrect.
Option B: This demand was to be revised periodically, not permanently fixed. So, B is incorrect.
Option C: The charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company was given to the village headman,
rather than the zamindar. This system came to be known as the mahalwari settlement. So, C is correct.
Q Source: Page 29: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I

QUESTION: 66

If you happen to read Ain-i-Akbari, information about which of the following can be obtained from it?

A.

Revenues and geography of Akbar’s empire

B.

Administration of Akbar

C.

Traditions and culture of the people living in India

D.

All of the above

Solution:

Learning: Akbar ordered one of his close friends and courtiers, Abul Fazl, to write a history of his reign. Abul The first volume dealt with Akbar’s ancestors and the second volume recorded the events of Akbar’s reign.
The third volume is the Ain-i-Akbari. It deals with Akbar’s administration, household, army, the revenues and geography of his empire.
It also provides rich details about the traditions and culture of the people living in India. The most interesting aspect about the Ain-i Akbari is its rich statistical details about things as diverse as crops, yields, prices,
wages and revenues.

The Champaran peasant movement aimed to create awakening among the peasants against the European planters. Consider the following about it.

1. Raj Kumar Shukla persuaded MahatmaGandhi to go to Champaran.
2. Local zamindars supported the peasants and participated actively in the Champaran movement.
3. The movement lead to the enactment of the Champaran Agrarian Act.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1:He was an Indigo planter. On his persuasion, Gandhiji arrived at Champaran with a team of eminent lawyers. Gandhiji studied the grievances of the Champaran peasantry.
Statement 2: These planters resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which by no
canons of justice could be called an adequate remuneration for the labour done by the peasants.
The peasants opposed not only the European planters but also the zamindars.
Statement 3: It was launched in 1917-18. One very important outcome of the movement was the enactment of
Champaran Agrarian Act assented by Governor General of India on 1st May, 1918.
Q Source: Chapter 3: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I

Justification: In India Jaisalmer, Krishna Godavari delta, Tripura and some areas off shore in Mumbai have
natural gas resources. Very few countries in the world have sufficient natural gas reserves of their own.
Learning: Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface. Russia, Norway, UK and the Netherlands are the major producers of natural gas.
Q Source: Page 32: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 69

“Bewar” is a term used for

A.

Water channel in uneven fields

B.

Tribal Hagiography

C.

Shifting cultivation

D.

Traders and travellers

Solution:

Learning: It is the shifting cultivation of Madhya Pradesh. In Magh month, shifts are made to new bewars (from old bewars) and tribals rely on hunting-gathering as the main
subsistence activity. The tribals lived in the bewar fields.
Only after a few years, when the land productivity declines, tribals supplement their diets with forest products.
Q Source: Page 6: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I

QUESTION: 70

Project Alloy of Intel Corporation is a

A.

New manufacturing technique for silicon chips

B.

E-waster dismantler

C.

Device that creates merged reality

D.

New game that will train members of Indian Armed forces for real combat situations

Solution:

Learning: Project Alloy is a headset that uses the RealSense technology to enable people to use their hands to interact with elements of the virtual world without using cables to connect computer.
Merged reality is a new way of experiencing virtual reality and real world together, using cutting-edge technology.
It digitises the real world and allows people to experience the virtual world without coming into conflict with the real world.
The merged reality is more dynamic and natural compared to virtual reality.
Unlike virtual reality, merged reality needs the right combination software and hardware.
One example of merged reality is playing two musical instruments at the same time.
It means that person can play a virtual piano with one hand and a cello with the other. Besides, using it one could go right into the centre of a basketball court and watch the match.

QUESTION: 71

The Union Government has constituted a National Committee on Trade Facilitation (NCTF) to develop the pan-
India road map for trade facilitation.

1. It has been constituted in line with the WTO’s Trade Facilitation Agreement (FTA), which has been ratified by India.
2. It will be an inter-ministerial body chaired by the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Learning: Statement 1: It will be a national level body that will facilitate domestic co-ordination and implementation of TFA provisions.
Statement 2: It will have three tier structure with main national committee for monitoring implementation of TFA. It will synergise the various trade facilitation perspectives across the country and focus on an outreach programme for sensitization of stakeholders about it. It will be responsible for identifying the nature of required legislative changes and spearheading the diagnostic tools needed for assessing compliance to TFA.

QUESTION: 72

The practice of surveying became common under the colonial administration. Dedicated surveys on which of the following was NOT conducted by the British?

A.

Flora and Fauna of India

B.

Demography of India

C.

Archaeological surveys

D.

Spiritual Heritage of the Ancient Vedas

Solution:

Learning: The British believed that a country had to be properly known before it could be effectively administered.
By the early nineteenth century detailed surveys were being carried out to map the entire country.
In the villages, revenue surveys were conducted.
The effort was to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the local histories, and the
cropping pattern – all the facts seen as necessary to know about to administer the region.
From the end of the nineteenth century, Census operations were held every ten years. So, B can’t be the answer.
These prepared detailed records of the number of people in all the provinces of India, noting information on castes, religions and occupation.
Learning: Statement 1: It will be a national level body that will facilitate domestic co-ordination and implementation of TFA provisions.
Statement 2: It will have three tier structure with main national committee for monitoring implementation of TFA.
It will synergise the various trade facilitation perspectives across the country and focus on an outreach programme
for sensitization of stakeholders about it.
There were many other surveys – botanical surveys, zoological surveys, archaeological surveys, anthropological surveys, forest surveys. So, A and C can’t be the answer.
Q Source: Page 6: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following about the “Olympic Order Award”.

1. It is awarded to the host nation in recognition of its efforts in successfully organizing the games.
2. It is awarded by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Olympic Order Award is the highest award of the Olympic Movement.
It is awarded in recognition of efforts worthy of merit in the cause of sport.
It was established in May 1975 as a successor to the Olympic Certificate by the International Olympic Committee.
The award is bestowed upon the recipient at the closing ceremony of each respective Olympic Games as per the tradition.

QUESTION: 74

Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource. Which of the following may lead to soil
degradation?

Justification: Statement 1: Plant roots hold the soil together. Deforestation causes a major loss to the soil as it becomes loosened and disintegrated. It also causes loss of valuablemicroorganisms that improve soil productivity.
Statement 2: Heavy rain splashes erode soil and the run-off (water flow) takes the sediments away from the soil.
Statement 3: It leads to loss of weed and plants and thus top soil becomes susceptible to both water and wind erosion.
Statement 4: Recently a NGT committee reported that World Cultural Festival (organized by Art of Living) had
Justification: Olympic Order Award is the highest award of the Olympic Movement.
It is awarded in recognition of efforts worthy of merit in the cause of sport.
It was established in May 1975 as a successor to the Olympic Certificate by the International Olympic Committee.
The award is bestowed upon the recipient at the closing ceremony of each respective Olympic Games as per the led to massive ecological destruction and soil degradation at the Yamuna flood plains.
It generally happens due to mass gathering, flattening of soil for the event, deforestation and shrub loss and heavy uses of surface as well as groundwater in organizing the event.
Q Source: Page 14: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 75

Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is being promoted in place of Diesel and Petrol as a cleaner vehicle fuel in India. Which of the following is/are the properties of CNG?

1. CNG is less likely to ignite on hot surfaces, since it has a high auto-ignition temperature.
2. CNG contains toxic lead.
3. While CNG is a cleaner fuel, it has a lower calorific value than diesel and petrol.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The auto-ignition temperature is over 500 degree Celsius. It also has a narrow range of flammability which makes it safer than petrol and diesel.
CNG mixes well with air and disperses quickly clearing the area of fire.
Statement 2: It does not contain lead which makes it safer than other fuels.
Statement 3: CNG has a higher calorific value than diesel and petrol. So, 3 is wrong.
Learning: CNG is made by compressing natural gas (which is mainly composed of methane, CH4), to less than 1 percent of the volume it occupies at standard atmospheric pressure

The cost and placement of fuel storage tanks is the major barrier to wider/quicker adoption of CNG as a fuel.
It is also why municipal government, public transportation vehicles were the most visible early adopters of it, as they canmore quickly amortize the money invested in the new (and usually cheaper) fuel.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 32: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

1. It reduces water losses on the field that is often caused by seepage and evaporation
2. It is preferred over surface irrigation on steep and unevenly sloping lands as it requires little or no land levelling.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Sprinkler irrigation is a method of providing rainfall-like irrigation to the crops. Water is distributed through a system of pipes usually by pumping. Spray heads at the outlets distribute the water over the
entire soil surface.
Statement 1: If water is left on fields for long time, water seeps into the soil or is dried out by the Sun. So, in dry regions with high rates of evaporation, drip or trickle irrigation is very useful.
Statement 2: In Surface irrigation, water generally flows across the field due to natural gradient of the field. It can’t be used in uneven areas as it requires a lot of land levelling. So, sprinkler irrigation is useful.
Learning: Sandy soils have a low water storage capacity and a high infiltration rate.
They therefore need frequent but small irrigation applications, in particular when the sandy soil is also shallow.
Under these circumstances, sprinkler or drip irrigation are more suitable than surface irrigation. On loam or clay soils all three irrigation methods can be used, but surface irrigation is more commonly found. Clay soils with low infiltration rates are ideally suited to surface irrigation.
Surface irrigation is preferred if the irrigation water containsmuch sediment. The sediments may clog the drip or sprinkler irrigation systems.
If the irrigation water contains dissolved salts, drip irrigation is particularly suitable, as less water is applied to the soil than with surface methods.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 17: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 77

During the Medieval period, which of the following technologies made their appearance in India?

Learning: At different moments in this period new technologies made their way in India— like the Persian wheel in irrigation (Araghatta), the spinning wheel in weaving, and firearms in combat.
Even, new foods and beverages arrived in the subcontinent: potatoes, corn, chillies, tea and coffee.
The medieval periodwas thus a major phase of technological and cultural changes in India.
Q Source: UPSC framed the question on Araghatta in CSP 2016 possibly from here:Improvisation:Page 6-7 (image): Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 78

“CITES” sometimes seen in news is an international treaty related to

A.

Trade in Endangered Species

B.

Human Organ transplants

C.

Hazardous wastes

D.

Cutting down greenhouse gas emissions

Solution:

Learning: It is the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
It is an inter-governmental agreement.
It aims to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
Roughly 5,000 species of animals and 28,000 species of plants are protected. Bears, dolphins, cacti, corals, orchids and aloes are some examples.
Although CITES is legally binding on party states, it does not take the place of national laws.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 21: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 79

Which of the following is/are the desirable characteristics of a secular society in India?

1. One religious community does not dominate another.
2. Some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community.
3. The State does not interfere at all in religious activities.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: If religionX is privileged, when compared to religion Y, in gaining access to public offices, paying taxes, enjoying public services etc, it cannot be called a secular society.
Moreover, if all the wealth and political power is amassed by religion X, it certainly is not a desirable characteristic of a secular society.
Statement 2: For e.g. if a particular section of Hindu society is ostracized, either due to their backward caste status or based on customs, it goes against the ideal of secularism.
Statement 3: India is a secular state, and the State interferes in religious activities for reasons of public welfare and reducing exploitation. For e.g. it may ban religious practices that promote superstition, black magic etc. At the same time, the state maintains a “principled distance” from all the religions.
Q Source: Chapter 2: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 80

Consider the following about the policy of “paramountcy”.

1. East India Company was abolished and India began to be governed directly by the British Monarch
2. The British assured the Indian states that their territory would not be annexed in the future.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1:Under Lord Hastings (GovernorGeneral from 1813 to 1823) a new policy of “paramountcy” was initiated. Now the Company claimed that its authoritywas paramount or supreme, hence its power was greater than that of Indian states. So, 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: In order to protect its interests it was justified in annexing or threatening to annex any Indian kingdom. This view continued to guide later British policies as well. So, 2 is incorrect.
This process, however, did not go unchallenged. For example, when the British tried to annex the small state of Kitoor (in Karnataka today), Rani Channamma took to arms and led an anti-British resistance movement.
Q Source: Page 18: Class 8th NCERT History: Our Pasts-III – Part I

QUESTION: 81

The judgment of the “Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation” by the Supreme Court established which of
the following as a part of the Right to Life?

A.

Right to Clean Environment

B.

Right to free public spaces

C.

Right to Livelihood

D.

Right to speedy trial

Solution:

Learning: The Court expressed, “The sweep of the Right to Life, conferred by Article 21 is wide and far reaching.
‘Life’ means something more than mere animal existence.
It does not mean merely that life cannot be extinguished or taken away by a law.
That the eviction of a person from a pavement or slum will inevitably lead to the deprivation of his means of livelihood, is a propositionwhich does not have to be established in each individual case. They choose a pavement or a slum in the vicinity of their place of work and to loose the pavement or the slum is to loose the job.
The conclusion therefore is that the eviction of the petitionerswill lead to deprivation of their livelihood and consequently to the deprivation of life.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following about Al-Biruni.

1. He translated several Sanskrit works like Patanjali’s work on grammar into Arabic.
2. He wrote Kitab-al Hind for which he consulted Sanskrit scholars.
3. He rejected the Western mathematical systems.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

2 only

D.

1 only

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Al-Biruni’s expertise in several languages allowed him to compare languages and translate texts. He translated several Sanskrit works, including Patanjali’s work on grammar, into Arabic. For his Brahmana friends, he translated the works of Euclid (a Greek mathematician) into Sanskrit. So, clearly 3 is wrong and 1 is correct.
Statement 2: It is an account of the Indian subcontinent in Arabic and an important source for historians.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 21: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

1. This Act is meant to undo the historical injustices meted out to forest dwelling populations in not recognising their rights to land and resources.
2. This Act recognises tribal’s right to homestead, cultivable and grazing land and to non-timber forest produce.
3. The Act prohibits diversion of forest land falling in the areas specified under the Act for any public utility facilities.
4. The forest right related to conversion of forest villages into revenue villages is to be adjudicated by the Gram Sabha and other sub- divisional and district committees.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1, 2 and 4 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 3 and 4 only

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The adverse living condition of many tribal families living in forests was on account of non-recognition and vesting of pre-existing rights.
Thus, Forest Rights Act, 2006, was enacted to recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation of forest land in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers, who have been residing in such forests for generations, but whose rights could not be recorded.
Statement 2: This Act not only recognizes the rights to hold and live in the forest land under the individual or common occupation for habitation or for self-cultivation for livelihood, but also grants several other rights to ensure their control over forest resources.
This, inter-alia, includes right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce, community rights such as nistar; habitat rights for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities; right to protect, regenerate or conserve or manage any community forest resource which they have been traditionally protecting and conserving for sustainable use.
Statement 3: The Act also provides for diversion of forest land for public utility facilities managed by the Government, such as schools, dispensaries, fair price shops, electricity and telecommunication lines, water tanks,etc. with the recommendation of Gram Sabhas. So, 3 is incorrect. Statement 4: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has issued guidelines impressing upon all the State/ UT Governments to convert all such erstwhile forest villages, un-recorded settlements and old habitations into revenue villages with
a sense of urgency in a time bound manner.
The conversion would include the actual land use of the village in its entirety, including land required for current or future community uses, like, schools, health facilities, public spaces etc.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 102: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 84

The Addis Ababa Action Agenda provides a foundation for implementing the

A.

United Nations FrameworkConvention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

B.

Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)

C.

WTO Trade Facilitation

D.

TRIPS Agreement of WTO

Solution:

Learning: United Nations Third International Conference on Financing for Development was held in Addis Ababa. The groundbreaking agreement, the Addis Ababa Action Agenda, provided a foundation for implementing
the global sustainable development agenda (SDGs). Financing is considered the linchpin for the success of the new sustainable development agenda, which will be driven by the implementation of 17 sustainable development goals.
In support of implementation of the sustainable development goals, the Addis Ababa Action Agenda containsmore than 100 concretemeasures. It addresses all sources of finance, and covers cooperation on a
range of issues including technology, science, innovation, trade and capacity building.

QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements.

1. The Earth's magnetic field is attributed to a dynamo effect of circulating electric current within earth.
2. Interaction of the terrestrial magnetic field with particles from the solar wind sets up the conditions for the aurora phenomena near the poles.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: The Earth's magnetic field is similar to that of a bar magnet tilted 11 degrees from the spin axis of the Earth. The problem with that picture is that the Curie temperature of iron is about 770 C . The Earth's core is hotter than that and therefore not magnetic.
Statement 1: The Earth's magnetic field is attributed to a dynamo effect of circulating electric current, but it is not constant in direction. Rock specimens of different age in similar locations have different directions of permanent magnetization.
Although the details of the dynamo effect are not known in detail, the rotation of the Earth plays a part in generating the currents which are presumed to be the source of the magnetic field.
The groundbreaking agreement, the Addis Ababa Action Agenda, provided a foundation for implementing the global sustainable development agenda (SDGs).
Financing is considered the linchpin for the success of the new sustainable development agenda, which will be driven by the implementation of 17 sustainable development goals.
In support of implementation of the sustainable development goals, the Addis Ababa Action Agenda contains more than 100 concretemeasures. It addresses all sources of finance, and covers cooperation on a range of issues including technology, science, innovation, trade and capacity building.
Statement 2: The Aurora is an incredible light show caused by collisions between electrically charged particles released from the sun that enter the earth's atmosphere and collide with gases such as oxygen and nitrogen.
The lights are seen around the magnetic poles of the northern and southern hemispheres.
Q Source: Improvisation: SETA: Q44: UPSC CAPF 2016

QUESTION: 86

India has the unique distinction of being the only country producing all the five known commercial silks. Among them, the largest production is of

A.

Muga Silk

B.

Tropical tasar

C.

Mulberry Silk

D.

Eri Silk

Solution:

Learning: The varieties are mulberry, tropical tasar, oak tasar, eri andmuga, of which muga with its golden yellow glitter is unique and prerogative of India. India is the Second largest producer of silk in the World.
Among the four varieties of silk produced in 2015-16, Mulberry accounts for 71.8% (20,434 MT), Tasar 9.9% (2,818 MT), Eri 17.8% (5,054 MT) andMuga 0.6% (166 MT) of the total raw silk production of 28,472 MT.

QUESTION: 87

“Operation Decisive Storm” and “Operation Restoring Hope” were

1. Started with the Arab Spring in Tunisia
2. Led by the NATO to tackle extremist forces in Syria and Tunisia

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: The Saudi Arabian-ledmilitary intervention in Yemen is known as “Operation Decisive Storm”.
The new Operation Restoring Hope of the Saudi Arabia in Yemen begins with the following goals: continuing
to protect civilians, continuing to fight terrorism and continuing to facilitate the evacuation of foreign nationals and
to intensify relief andmedical assistance to the Yemeni people. So, both statements are wrong.

QUESTION: 88

The importance of the decennial Indian Census rests on the facts that

1. It provides information to policymakers on Economic activity, Urbanization and Housing & Household Amenities of Indian citizens.
2. The delimitation of Parliamentary, Assembly as well as local body constituencies is done based on the Census demographic data.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: Itis the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education,Housing & Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, Language, Religion, Migration,Disability and
many other socio-cultural and demographic data since 1872.
Census is the basis for reviewing the country's progress in the past decade,monitoring the ongoing Schemes
of the Government and most importantly, plan for the future. This is the only source of primary data in the village, town and ward level. Statement 2: The extent of constituencies is revised based on the population size. Also, certain constituencies are reserved for SC/ST/Women candidates only in local bodies. So, the Delimitation/reservation of Constituencies Parliamentary /Assembly /Panchayats and other Local Bodies is done on the basis of the demographic data thrown up by the Census.Census 2011 will be the 15th National Census of the Country.

QUESTION: 89

If a group of minorities is denied permission for opening a minority-based educational institution in Kerala, it
violates which of the following Fundamental Rights?

A.

Right to Life

B.

Rights given under Articles 29-30

C.

Right to Freedom of movement

D.

Right against exploitation

Solution:

Learning: Option A is incorrect, because the violation is specific to Articles 29-30 that aim at safeguarding the cultural and educational rights of minorities.
For e.g. tribals can preserve their cultural heritage against the dominance of the majority mainstream culture.
Minorities are also given a right to establish and administer educational institutions and government interferes the least in such institutions. So, clearly B is correct.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Class 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following is the major difference between the Philosophy of Shankara and Ramanuja?

Shankara emphasized on the fact that there are multiple living realities in the world, whereas Ramanujastressed on the restless nature of human mind

D.

None of the above

Solution:

Learning: Shankara
Shankara was an advocate of Advaita or the doctrine of the oneness of the individual soul and the Supreme God which is the Ultimate Reality. He taught that Brahman, the only or Ultimate Reality, was formless and without any attributes.
He considered the world around us to be an illusion ormaya, and preached renunciation of the world and adoption of the path of knowledge to understand the true nature of Brahman and attain salvation.

Ramanuja: Ramanuja, born in Tamil Nadu in the eleventh century, was deeply influenced by the Alvars. According to him the best means of attaining salvationwas through intense devotion to Vishnu.
Vishnu in His grace helps the devotee to attain the bliss of union with Him. He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita or qualified oneness in that the soul even when united with the Supreme God remained distinct.
Ramanuja’s doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of bhakti which developed in north India subsequently.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 107: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 91

The International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) will help achieve which of the following Sustainable
Development Goals, 2030?

Justification: Statement 1: Convention makes provision for the application of measures by governments to protect their plant resources from harmful pests (phytosanitary measures) which may be introduced through international trade.
Statement 2: If Statement 1 and 3 are achieved, 2 will likely be a by-product, since plants are a major economic resource.
Statement 3: Climate change is likely to affect plant growth potential. Entry of new pests, exotic species and higher temperature will further deplete plant productivity.
The convention aims at tackling such problems.
Learning: The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (the "SPS Agreement") of WTO identifies the IPPC as the reference organization developing international standards for plant health (phytosanitary) measures.
IPPC work includes standards on pest risk analysis, requirements for the establishment of pest-free areas, and otherswhich give specific guidance on topics related to the SPS Agreement.

QUESTION: 92

Energy is harnessed from Tides using

A.

Temperature difference between high and low tides

B.

The potential energy of high tides

C.

Flow of Ocean currents during low tides

D.

All of the above

Solution:

Justification: Tidal energy can be harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea. During high tide the energy of the tides is used to turn the turbine installed in the dam to produce electricity.
Russia, France and the Gulf of Kachchh in India have huge tidal mill farms.

Q Source: Chapter 3: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 93

Which of the following is/are the tributaries of Cauvery River?

1. Hemavati
2. Amaravati
3. Brahmagiri
4. Musi

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Solution:

Learning: The Cauvery basin extends over states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Union Territory of Puducherry.
Its important tributaries joining from left are the Harangi, the Hemavati, the Shimsha and the Arkavati whereas the Lakshmantirtha, the Kabbani, the Suvarnavati, the Bhavani, the Noyil and the Amaravati joins from right. The river drains into the Bay of Bengal.
The River Cauvery originates at Talakaveri in CoorgDistrict of Karnataka in Brahmagiri Range of hills in the Western ghats
The Cauvery basin is bounded by Tungabhadra sub-basin of Krishna basin on the Northern side and Palar basin on the Southern side. The Cauvery River is one of the major rivers of the peninsula.

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following is NOT a listed objective of the “National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture” of the
Government of India?

A.

To provide for comprehensive farm insurance especially in coastal and drought affected areas

To optimize utilization of water resources through efficient water management to expand coverage fo rachieving ‘more crop per drop’

Solution:

Learning: NMSA derives its mandate from Sustainable Agriculture Mission which is one of the eight Missions outlined under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
NMSA will have following objectives:
To make agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative and climate resilient by promoting location specific Integrated/Composite Farming Systems;
To conserve natural resources through appropriate soil and moisture conservation measures; To adopt comprehensive soil health management practices based on soil fertility maps, soil test based application of macro& micro nutrients, judicious use of fertilizers etc.;
To optimize utilization of water resources through efficient water management to expand coverage for achieving ‘more crop per drop’; Other objectives connected to schemes are: To develop capacity of farmers & stakeholders, in conjunction with other on-going Missions e.g. National Mission on Agriculture Extension & Technology, National Food Security Mission, National Initiative for Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA) etc., in the domain of climate change adaptation and mitigation measures;
To pilot models in select blocks for improving productivity of rainfed farming by mainstreaming rainfed technologies refined through NICRA and by leveraging resources from other schemes/Missions like MGNREGS, RKVY etc.; and

QUESTION: 95

Mulching is a popular method of soil conservation. This practice helps in

Justification: Under the method the bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw.
Statement 1: Mulches conserve moisture by reducing the amount of soil water lost through evaporation. Mulches help maintain a uniform soil temperature. They act as insulators, keeping the soil warmer during
cool weather and cooler during the warm months of the year. Mulches minimize soil erosion and compaction from heavy rains and aid in water penetration.
Statement 2: Mulches alter the structure of the soil which usually increases root growth due to the increase of organic matter in soil.
Aeration is improved in clay soils, and the water-holding capacity is increased in sandy soils.
Statement 3: This is done in terrace farming where flat steps are cut into hilly farms to reduce soil erosion. So, 3 is incorrect.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 14: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 96

Among the following, the largest percentage of land area use falls in which of these categories in the world?

A.

Forests

B.

Pastures

C.

Manufacturing industries

D.

Degraded land

Solution:

Justification: Forests: In 2010, forests covered about 31 percent of the world’s total land area – about 4 033
million hectares. About 93 percent of the world’s forest cover is natural forest and 7 percent is planted.
Learning: Cropland: Under the FAO's definitions, agricultural land covers 38.4% of the world's land area as of
2011. But, this also includes Permanent pastures which are 68.4% of all agricultural land (26.3% of global land area).
Answer Justification :
Justification: Under the method the bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw.
Statement 1: Mulches conserve moisture by reducing the amount of soil water lost through evaporation.
Other categories are arable land (row crops) is 28.4% of all agricultural land (10.9% of global land area), and permanent crops (e.g. vineyards and orchards) are 3.1% (1.2% of global land area).
If we exclude the FAO’s definition, the area under various land uses as given by NCERT is:

Q Source: Page 10: Class 8th NCERT: Resource and Development

QUESTION: 97

Nathpanthis, Siddhacharas and Yogis

1. Criticised the ritual and other aspects of conventional religion and the prevailing social order
2. Advocated renunciation of the world by meditating on the formless reality

Which of the above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: They gave logical arguments for the same and believed that such rituals and practices were trivial when compared to the ultimate goal of attaining salvation.
These groups became particularly popular among “low” castes. Their criticism of conventional religion created the
ground for devotional religion to become a popular force in northern India.
Statement 2: To them the path to salvation lay in meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality and the realisation of oneness with it. To achieve this they advocated intense training of the mind and body through practices like yogasanas, breathing practices etc.
Q Source: Page 110: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 98

The inscriptions of the Cholas who ruled in Tamil Nadu refer to many different kinds of taxes. Out of them Vetti and Kadamai taxes were levied respectively on

A.

Forced labour and land

B.

Thatching the house and succession to family property

C.

Road services and security

D.

Performance of arts and house building

Solution:

Learning: There were more than 400 taxes imposed by the Cholas.
The most frequently mentioned tax is vetti, taken not in cash but in the form of forced labour, and kadamai, or land revenue.There were also taxes on thatching the house, the use of a ladder to climb palm trees, a cess on succession to family property, etc.
Q Source: Improvisation:Page 18: Class 7th NCERT History: Our Pasts-II

QUESTION: 99

Consider the following about the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture.

1. It aims at establishing a global system to provide farmers, plant breeders and scientists with access to plant genetic materials.
2. India is a contracting party to the treaty.
3. It provides financial support to governments, civil society organizations and industries for developing new crop and livestock strains.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 only

D.

2 only

Solution:

Justification: Statement 1: The Treaty aims at recognizing the enormous contribution of farmers to the diversity
of crops that feed the world and establishing a global system to provide farmers, plant breeders and scientists with access to plant genetic materials.
It also aims to ensure that recipients share benefits they derive from the use of these genetic materials.Statement 2: List of parties can be found here : http://www.planttreaty.org/map/index.html
The Governing Body is the highest organ of the Treaty
Statement 3: There is no such provision.

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following developments related to the Brahmo Samaj.

1. Debendranath Tagore started the Tattwabodhini Sabha
2. Establishment of the Calcutta Unitarian Committee
3. The title of Brahmanand was conferred on Keshub Chandra Sen by Debendranath Nath Tagore
4. Visva Bharati University was founded at Shantineketan

The correct chronological order of the above events is?

A.

1234

B.

2314

C.

1432

D.

4321

Solution:

Justification: Use elimination to solve such questions. Debendra Nath Tagore was the father of Rabindra Nath Tagore, so 4 must come after 1. With this, options B and
D become incorrect.
Also, connect statements to eliminate more
effectively.
From option 3 it is clear that Keshub Chandra Sen was a contemporary of Debendra Nath Tagore. If that is the case, and given that Debendra Nath Tagore was the father of Rabindra Nath Tagore, 4 must come after 3. This makes option C also wrong.
The only left out option is A, which is the correct answer.
Learning: The actual sequence of events:
1839 : Tattwabodhini Sabha, or truth-teaching society, started by Debendranath Tagore to arrest Trinitarian Christian conversions in Bengal.
1823 : Establishment of the Calcutta Unitarian Committee by Rammohun Roy, Dwarkanath Tagore, and William Adam
1862: Debendranath elevated Keshub Chandra Sen to the post of Minister or Acharya of the Samaj on 13th
April and confers upon him the tite of Brahmanand.
1911 : Rabindranath Tagore assumes leadership of the Adi Brahmo Samaj, and becomes charismatic hero of younger generation of Brahmos. His action arrests growing tendency of Brahmos to defect to
revolutionary nationalism.
1913: Rabindranath honouredwith Nobel Prize in Literature for his work Gitanjali (Song Offerings).
1921: Rabindranath Tagore formally inaugurates Visva Bharati University at Shantineketan as an expression of Brahmo universalism.