No - I'm talking about Class I inscribed stones. They aren't Anglo-Saxon at all. The point is that the stones are seen as demonstrating the existence of literate Christian elite across post-Roman western Britain. There's 250 or so of them, divided into roughly three time periods. The commentator who queried why there were none in supposedly Christian British Elmet did not engage further with the issue. As I mentioned last week, I think these are the questions we should be asking.

You are trying to make a circular argument, though. Or, at least, you are trying to make an argument based on the absence of evidence, which is a curious way to go about things. The existence of hanging bowls in furnished graves does not prove that they must also have existed in places where there are no furnished graves.

You are trying to make a circular argument, though. Or, at least, you are trying to make an argument based on the absence of evidence, which is a curious way to go about things. The existence of hanging bowls in furnished graves does not prove that they must also have existed in places where there are no furnished graves.

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