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Re: Should people on welfare be allowed to vote?[W:504]

Since welfare payments are already inherently unconstitutional, under any paradigm in which we are assuming they continue to exist, we can place any stipulations we want on accepting such payments.

Preventing voting is a reasonable stipulation on being on the public dole, since it can be assumed that those on the public dole will probably vote for giving themselves a raise.

“A democracy cannot exist as a permanent form of government. It can only exist until the people discover they can vote themselves largess out of the public treasury. From that moment on, the majority always votes for the canidate promising the most benefits from the public treasury, with the result that democracy always collapses over a loose fiscal policy--to be followed by a dictatorship.”
― Alexander Fraser Tytler

Re: Should people on welfare be allowed to vote?[W:504]

so in other words you cannot show me saying "the constitution prohibits government from spending money".

so you give up your quest on finding me wrong and move on to something else.

as I said, it was a complete waste of time to explain to you how it is that I (or any sentient being) understood that when you respond to complaints about Congressional spending (on welfare) with:

the constitution does not permit giving money to people.

...that you are in fact arguing that Congress is PROHIBITED from spending (on welfare).

But then, after all, you are not required to keep the context of the debate or what anyone has posted, in mind. When you are challenged, DIRECTLY, on your claims, you can't keep them straight, understand the counter or acknowledge the very obvious progression of argument.

All you do is "get confused"....and the debate gets diverted. It is a wonderful ploy...and question become:

How's that going?

Originally Posted by trouble13

If you wanna know why Trumpsters are ignoring you its for the same reason you ignored the KKKs complaints about Obama.

Re: Should people on welfare be allowed to vote?[W:504]

as I said, it was a complete waste of time to explain to you how it is that I (or any sentient being) understood that when you respond to complaints about Congressional spending (on welfare) with:

the constitution does not permit giving money to people.

...that you are in fact arguing that Congress is PROHIBITED from spending (on welfare).

But then, after all, you are not required to keep the context of the debate or what anyone has posted, in mind. When you are challenged, DIRECTLY, on your claims, you can't keep them straight, understand the counter or acknowledge the very obvious progression of argument.

All you do is "get confused"....and the debate gets diverted. It is a wonderful ploy...and question become:

How's that going?

as has been posted before your complete lack of constitutional knowledge is terrible, and you do not make yourself look good, trying to use it.

Re: Should people on welfare be allowed to vote?[W:504]

Originally Posted by ernst barkmann

“A democracy cannot exist as a permanent form of government. It can only exist until the people discover they can vote themselves largess out of the public treasury. From that moment on, the majority always votes for the canidate promising the most benefits from the public treasury, with the result that democracy always collapses over a loose fiscal policy--to be followed by a dictatorship.”
― Alexander Fraser Tytler

"There is no reliable record of Alexander Tytler's having written any part of the text.[10] In fact, it actually comprises two parts which didn't begin to appear together until the 1970s."

But hey, who cares, it is all rhetoric, it sounds authentic, and gosh darn it, simple minded folks need stuff like this to make it sound like they understand foundations of US ideology.....even when it supposedly (not) comes from a 18th century Scot.

Originally Posted by trouble13

If you wanna know why Trumpsters are ignoring you its for the same reason you ignored the KKKs complaints about Obama.

Re: Should people on welfare be allowed to vote?[W:504]

"There is no reliable record of Alexander Tytler's having written any part of the text.[10] In fact, it actually comprises two parts which didn't begin to appear together until the 1970s."

But hey, who cares, it is all rhetoric, it sounds authentic, and gosh darn it, simple minded folks need stuff like this to make sound like they understand foundations of US ideology.....even when it supposedly (not) comes from a 18th century Scot.

it is however true...

“To compel a man to furnish funds for the propagation of ideas he disbelieves and abhors is sinful and tyrannical.”