from where do we derive that her offspring is like her? The Gemara answers: As the verse states with regard to a Hebrew slave who marries a Canaanite maidservant: “The wife and her children shall be her master’s” (Exodus 21:4). This indicates that the offspring of a Canaanite maidservant and a Hebrew slave are slaves, as she is.

§ The Gemara asks: From where do we derive that betrothal with a gentile woman is ineffective? The verse states: “Neither shall you make marriages with them” (Deuteronomy 7:3), which teaches that marrying gentile women is halakhically meaningless. The Gemara asks: We have found that betrothal is ineffective with her; from where do we derive that her offspring is like her?

Rabbi Yoḥanan says in the name of Rabbi Shimon ben Yoḥai: As the verse states with regard to the same issue: “Your daughter you shall not give to his son…for he will turn away your son from following Me” (Deuteronomy 7:3–4). Since the verse is concerned that after one’s daughter marries a gentile, the father will lead his children away from the service of God, this indicates that your son, i.e., your grandson, from a Jewish woman is called “your son” by the Torah, but your son from a gentile woman is not called your son, but her son.

Ravina said: Learn from it that the son of your daughter, born to a gentile, is called your son in all regards. The Gemara asks: Shall we say that Ravina holds that with regard to a gentile or a Canaanite slave who engaged in sexual intercourse with a Jewish woman, the offspring is a mamzer? One can infer from the fact that the offspring of this union is called “your son” that he is a Jew, and therefore the principle stated in the mishna should apply: If a woman cannot join in betrothal with someone, their child is a mamzer.

נהי דכשר לא הוי ממזר לא הוי פסול מיקרי

The Gemara rejects this suggestion: Although he is not a fit offspring, he is also not a mamzer. Rather, he is merely called disqualified. Since betrothal is inapplicable to a gentile, a gentile is not included in the category of someone with whom a Jewish woman cannot personally join in betrothal, as no Jewish women can be betrothed to him. Nevertheless, as their child’s birth is the result of a transgression, he is considered disqualified.

The Gemara asks a question with regard to Rabbi Yoḥanan’s statement. That verse: “Neither shall you make marriages with them” (Deuteronomy 7:3), is written with regard to the seven nations of Canaan. From where do we derive that betrothal does not take effect with the other nations? The Gemara answers: The verse states as a reason for prohibiting intermarriages: “For he will turn away your son from following Me,” which serves to include all those who might turn a child away, no matter from which nation.

הניחא לר"ש דדריש טעמא דקרא אלא לרבנן מ"ט

The Gemara asks: This works out well according to the opinion of Rabbi Shimon, who expounds the reason for the mitzvot of the verse and rules accordingly. Since the reason is that the gentile might turn away the son’s heart, there should be no distinction between the Canaanite nations and other gentiles. But according to the opinion of the Rabbis, who do not expound the reason for the mitzvot of the verse and rule accordingly, since the verse mentions only the Canaanite nations, what is the reason, the source for the prohibition, with regard to the other nations?

The Gemara answers: The verse states with regard to a beautiful captive woman: “And after that you may go in to her and be her husband, and she shall be your wife” (Deuteronomy 21:13). One can derive from here by inference that at the outset, before she became a Jew, betrothal would not take effect with her, despite the fact that he had already brought her into his house, and according to some opinions, had even engaged in sexual intercourse with her.

The Gemara asks another question: We found a source for the halakha that betrothal is ineffective with her; from where do we derive that her child is like her? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “If a man has two wives, the one beloved and the one hated, and they have borne him children” (Deuteronomy 21:15), from which it is derived: Anywhere that we read: “If he has,” i.e., that a woman can be betrothed, we also read: “And they have borne him,” meaning that their children follow his lineage. And anywhere that we do not read: “If he has,” we likewise do not read: “And they have borne him,” as the offspring inherit their mother’s status.

The Gemara asks: If so, one should learn from here with regard to a Canaanite maidservant too, that her child is like her, which means that the earlier proof from the verse: “The wife and her children” (Exodus 21:4), is not necessary. The Gemara answers: Yes, it is indeed so; this source also teaches the halakha that the offspring of a maidservant is like her. The Gemara asks: But if so, why do I need the verse “The wife and her children shall be her master’s”? This verse apparently teaches nothing new with regard to the halakhot of lineage. The Gemara answers: It is required for that which is taught in a baraita: