"So I understand from your posts you think 1John1:8 speaks to Christians as being under the law and transgressing it. Is this correct?" Haz

That's YOUR UNDERSTANDING of Romans 3:20,23,6:23, not mine.

EVERYONE, even the sinner before he becomes a Christian, is ALL under the law. God cannot demonstrate His Grace and Mercy if you're not under the law, comprehend?

It's only through God's Grace that the Christian now knows that he's still sinful and only by the blood of Christ has he been cleansed through FAITH. As long as he's still on earth, he will never deny that he still sin against God but because of Faith, he repents knowing that God is merciful and forgiving till he returns to dust. Do you believe?

Haz, I have been car racing in Dijon and just saw your reply. I am suspicious of your beliefs as you refuse to answer my questions. Certainly the main message is spiritual but we, nonetheless, live physical lives.

Did Jesus die and rise again physically or was that just some spiritual happening?

Did God actually create as He says, and in 6 days, or is that also some spiritual thing?

Romans 3:25 "... to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God"

The sacrifice of death by the Lord taking on all past sins of Believers. Going forward it is a Believers responsibility to confess sins to our mediator, the Lord Jesus our high priest, as described in 1 John 1, where John is writing about true fellowship, and the necessity of confessing our sins to the Lord, otherwise we will be walking in darkness.

1 John 1:9,10 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

christan: So I understand from your posts you think 1John1:8 speaks to Christians as being under the law and transgressing it. Is this correct?

BUT, we're NOT under the law, Rom 8:2, Rom 10:4, Gal 5:18, 1Tim 1:9. And where NO LAW is there is NO TRANSGRESSION/SIN, Rom 4:15.

What the law says it says to those UNDER IT, "that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin" Rom 3:19,20

Rom 8:33 "Who shall bring a charge against Gods elect? It is God who justifies"Why do you then say we can be charged with sin/transgressing the law we're NOT under?

Haz, what happens is that you are been deceived. "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the Truth is not in us" You are deceived. again in (1 John 3:7) before (v.9) says,"Let no one deceive you" reminding you again, "He who practice righteousness is righteous, just as He who is righteous" Believers practice righteousness. then he says'" Whoever is been born of God does not sin," here the topic again is about practicing something, righteousness or sin. The seed that remains in him cannot sin. The seed is the new birth, which refers to the principles of the life of God. Do not call God a liar. After the resurrection you will be sinless.

The ONLY definition of sin according to the Bible is simple, "...for by the law is the knowledge of sin. For ALL HAVE SINNED, and come short of the glory of God. For the wages of sin is death..." Romans 3:20,23,6:23

Is there another definition in your understanding of sin? Or are you going to tell us that the believer's sin is different from the unbeliever's?

Scott: Regarding James 3 note it's context. It refers to 'teachers'. Matt 23:8,10 also speaks of this: "you are not to be called Rabbi, for you have ONE Teacher, and you are all brothers....Nor are you to be called instructors, for you have ONE Instructor, the Messiah"As I said before, it's the annointing (Christ) within us that teaches us, 1John 2:27. Christians have the mind of Christ, 1Cor 2:16.James 3 warns against those who teach works of the law.

BTW, nobody here claims we're perfect in the physical.

And can you please answer my questions. What extent of 'sin' determines 'habitual'. Is it 7x70? And can you explain what 'sin' 1John 1:8 refers to, if you think it applies to Christans?

Your "doctrine" is a house of cards if it can only be supported by translations that fail to represent (and distort) the implicit meaning of the original biblical text. I can see why it's imperative for you to stay as far away from the actual biblical languages as possible.

"No one born of God makes a practice of sinning...and he cannot...keep on sinning because he has been born of God." English Standard Version

James writes, "For we all stumble in many things. If anyone does not stumble in word, he is a perfect man, able also to bridle the whole body" (James 3:2).

But wait for it...

Six verses later (vs 8) "But no man can tame the tongue. It is an unruly evil, full of deadly poison".

1. James clearly states that no man can tame even the tongue to the point of perfection, let alone his whole body.

2. James uses the example of a man being perfect as a ridiculous impossibility. Since all men stumble in their words, anyone who claims otherwise is claiming something as ridiculous as personal sinless perfection.

only God reveals law and sin, believing lie you are sinless in the flesh, flesh the Lord stated is corrupt and flesh dies, then you have another spirit, same one who spoke to Eve it is the same lie. God reveals his law to Believers, if you deny Romans 7:7 you are not in the spirit. To be in the spirit requires Gods holy spirit to be working in your mind, seeing flesh is not spirit. Lord stated flesh and blood do not inherit Kingdom of God. Yet the wicked who profess the Lord reject his words then lie claiming their corrupt flesh is spirit.

Romans 7:7What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.

Mary the mother of the Lord Jesus knew she needed a Savior, if you do not know you're sinner you sure can't need a Savior ask any athiest if they need the Lord!!

And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour. Luke 1:47

yet today's Christians are aabove the Lord, and are worse than an athiest because they believe they are sinless in their corrupt flesh that will die, at least an athiest doesn't understand who Jesus is and has no knowledge.

Believers have their eyes opened to understand they are sinners understanding they need a savior

Those who believe they are without sin are also without the Lord and certainly would not need a high priest in heaven as a mediator on their part for when they slip and fall and stumble.

Duane, James_L, I am curious as to how those who claim they are still sinners after receiving Christ will respond to your inquires on 10/6. I am also looking forward to any logical, biblical answers to Haz's questions to scott on 10/6. Anyone?:o)

Has anyone here gone before God?What I mean is, have you been found guilty before God?

Sounds like some of you are saying, you have gone before God and been found not guilty!Or at lease saying you have gone before God. But, if this was true!These words would not be in the Word of God, written!

As it is written, there is none righteous, no, not one: There is none that understands there is none that seeks after God. They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable, there is none that doeth good, no, not one.

Being sinless is not saying I have no sin!Being sinless is, understanding!Your sins are forgiven because of God!Peace

James_L. Here's another contradiction to add to that list you started.How are we holy in Christ (Rom 11:16) and yet a sinner?

Christan: You referred to Rom 7 in answer to what sin 1John 1:8 speaks of. Rom 7:11 shows how it speaks of transgressing the law. Is this the defintion of sin you apply in 1John 1:8?

BUT, how can Paul, as a Christian, be saying he's under the law, sinning, as you suggest of Rom 7? We're NOT under it, Rom 8:2, Rom 10:4, Gal 5:18, 1Tim 1:9.And where NO LAW is, there's NO TRANSGRESSION/SIN, Rom 4:15 CLEARLY this can't be the sin 1John 1:8 speaks of if it refers to Christians.

impossible to be perfect sinless in flesh because it would mean you were elevated above the Lord and a diety, it would also mean that 24 hours a day you were perfect example of love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, Meekness, temperance (aka you were not over indulging in food, drink, sex, or any other physical pleasure) further it would mean you never lusted after (even by looking at the opposite sex), or ever coveted someone or something, you never cheated, or stole, among many other things, and especially never lied. By responses of the I'm living a sin-free existence they clearly have missed the mark. I just understand I am a sinner, like Mary, who said she needed the Lord.

Haz, what sin do I have with reference to 1 John 1:8, are you serious? Even Paul never taught what you seem to be teaching here.

Here's Paul's teaching: "For the good that I would I do not: but the evil which I would not, that I do. I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me." Romans 7:19,21

Mind you, Paul at this point was writing as a Christian and tells us what he's going through for our (the Christians) benefit. What was Paul struggling with? Committing sins!

Now, you say you struggle. I ask, what are you struggling with since you claim you're sinless? Why would you struggle if you're sinless? You're confused with the tripartite man and you have another gospel.

Duane, contrary to your understanding you posted 10/6/12 - only the Christian has the knowledge and believe that he's a sinner (read Romans 7) and that why he believe in the works of Jesus Christ death at the cross.

It's only through regeneration that the Christian will see the light of how sinful he is before God and that he's only saved by God's grace 100% through the faith He freely gave to the sinner that he can believe in the works of Christ, making him a Christian. This can only happen if God has elected you.

And you believe in "the work of the Cross" and at the same breathe say you're sinless? Well, Christ never died for you then, since you're sinless.

Scott. Your focus on discarding the many Bible translations that contradict your doctrine is only distracting from the topic. And as it's the annointing within us that teaches us, 1John 2:27, then we can trust in God for revealing scripture to us. So, back to topic.

Can you please answer my questions. You claim 1John 3:9 speaks of 'habitual' sin. What extent of 'sin' determines 'habitual'. Is it 7x70? This is important as your doctrine claims this determines salvation. And can you explain what 'sin' 1John 1:8 refers to, if you think it applies to Christans? Thanks.

Warwick. Please read my posts again to clarify what I did say to you. Although we see physical parallels, the SPIRITUAL is the MAIN message.

Jerry. "do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death?" Rom 6:3We walk by faith, not by sight. So as we're crucified with Christ, Rom 6:6, then this is dead, by faith.And he that is DEAD is FREED from sin, Rom 6:7As for the law, Christ is the END of it, for righteousness, Rom 10:4If your under the law then you make yourself a trangsressor, Gal 2:18, and guilty of ALL of it, James 2:10. This is unbelief in Jesus.

Haz, your confusion lies in your wrong concept that because Scripture is spiritually discerned everything therein is spiritual. You would therefore have us believe Christians can ignore the physical plight of their brothers as long as they have spiritual thoughts towards them-as James says...I wish you well.. No,Jesus' good deeds,spiritual and physical set the standard for Christian spiritual and physical behaviour.

As you know Scripture your comments about what I haven't shown are foolish-you know scripture is replete with physical good deeds of all kinds.

Did Jesus die and rise again or was that just some spiritual happening?

Did God actually create as He says, and in 6 days, or is that also some spiritual thing?

Haz: "The body is dead ..... what sin can we possibly be charged with?"

You are not dead. Your typing of this post proves that. The "body" that Paul refers to is a spiritual metaphor for the fleshly nature - the desire for that which is sinful. Have you lost all desire for anything sinful?

Christan: Can you explain what 'sin' you think 1John 1:8 speaks of if you think it refers to Christians. This will help clarify our different understandings.

Yes, we are in a struggle, as James 1:2 speaks of. We are in the wilderness (like the Israelites experienced) and those who continue to believe will enter into God's rest.

The body is dead, Rom 8:10, it's crucified with Christ, Rom 6:6. Our life is hid with Christ in God, Col 3:3. I no longer live but Christ lives in me. As no sin abides in Christ (1John 3:5) and we are righteous in him, what sin can we possibly be charged with?

Saying "you're sinless because you're a new creation" must be expounded. The "new creation" specifically happens only to God's elect and never the reprobate. Pointing to being one born of the Holy Spirit because his spirit was dead to God - hence, "new creation". At this point, the flesh still looks and behave the same.

For "our body is dead", that's without a question because it's cursed by God. Only the Christian soul is sanctified through the flesh after regeneration, that's why we suffer but James admonished, "count it all joy". This struggle will only stop the day we return to the Lord in Paradise.

Scott: The anointing within us teaches us (1John 2:27). We have the mind of Christ (1Cor 2:16). We don't need to learn Greek/Hebrew which offers nothing more than what English Bible offer. Anyway, back to topic.

You have only offered one disputable scriptural reference to support your view that Christians 'sin'. And what sin does 1John1:8 refer to?And can you explain what determines 'habitual' in your doctrine on sin. Is it 7x70?

Christan: Consider Rev 2 & 3 where many of these churches are told to repent or perish. Clearly there are unbelievers in churches hence the epistles like 1John 1 are addressing them too. BTW, what 'sin' does 1John 1:8 speak of if it speaks to Christians, as you claim?

Mark V. I'm speaking of the new creation being sinless. And our body is dead because of sin, Rom 8:10. We have discussed this often so you should know this. I have never said the physical is perfect.

Warwick. I have shown you how scripture is SPIRITUALLY discerned, 1Cor 2:12-16, and our works are to believe on Jesus, John 6:29. I have shown how we feed and clothe the lost with the gospel. But you have not been able to support your physical acts view. And, whilst Jesus healed physically too, it was the SPIRITUAL healing that was most important. "By his stripes we are healed".As scripture is SPIRITUALLY discerned why do you focus on the physical instead?

I do not deny that, just as there are believers and unbelievers in this blog. But that's not the issue. The issue is: was Paul instructing the believers in his epistles or unbelievers?

For example, "For such are false apostles, deceitful workers, transforming themselves into the apostles of Christ. And no marvel, for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light." 2 Corinthians 11:13,14

Is this admonition specifically to the believers or unbelievers? See the point?

"God...able to give His word in English. No need to study Greek." Haz27

But he didn't give his word in English but rather in Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic. To suggest that any translation, including English, carries every nuance of the original languages reveals the superficial knowledge that you have of God's word.

If any translation fails to reflect the implicit meaning of the Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic, the inspired message had been altered. "Essentially Literal" translations attempt to avoid this but unquestionably the original language is always the final authority not the other way around.

Basing your theology (in part) on translations that don't reflect the Greek or Hebrew is a slippery slope.

Haz, you have it backwards. James addresses he who "claim to have faith but has no deeds." If James meant good deeds did not include physical acts he would have written so. Theorize all you like but he writes of physical deeds.

Likewise I asked you were Jesus' healings physical or not? Likewise His ultimate good deed, dying for us, was that physical? Answer please.

You say our works are to believe on Jesus, but belief is not a work but a gift. The very faith we use to ask for forgiveness is a gift.

Ephesians 2:8-10 contrasts this God-given faith for salvation with works so they are not one and the same.

Love your neighbour as yourself-is that spiritual or must it express itself in acts?

Haz, I don't understand why you insist in being sinless if you do have the Truth. (1 John 1:8) you say,"So you claim Christians are still under the law in spite of scripture saying otherwise?"Many believers in Paul's time were still practicing the Law, even today, many still do, which is the reason Paul and others rebuke those who did. Paul in (Gal. 3) called those people foolish, they had begun in the Spirit and they were thinking they could be made perfect by the flesh, works. The notion that sinful, weak (Matt. 26:41: Rom. 6:19) fallen human nature could improve on the saving work of the Holy Spirit was ludicrous to Paul. Almost the whole New Testament is about teaching, to who? to believers.

Follower of Christ. So you claim Christians are still under the law in spite of scripture saying otherwise? Rom 8:2, Gal 5:18, 1Tim 1:9, Rom 3:19, Rom 10:4, etc.

Where there is NO LAW there is NO TRANSGRESSION (SIN), Rom 4:15.

BUT, if you are under the law you make yourself a transgressor/sinner, Gal 2:18. You are guilty of all the law, James 2:10. You are seeking to establish righteousness by works and not faith. Such are not submitting to the righteousness of God, rom 10:3. This is SIN of unbelief, John 16:9

Most of scripture is written to unbelievers. For instance...believe on Jesus and you will be saved. Believers already know this.Believers dont NEED scripture, We already have what scripture proclaims.We already have the way the truth and His life.

Christan: Churches have always been a mix of believers and non-believers. Consider Gal 3, believers turning back to works. Consider churches in Rev. Epistles address such mixed groups, so context is important. Note 1John 1:2 "Bear witness, show unto you that eternal life". v3: "declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship...with the Father, and His Son"Note v6 speaking of they who say they're in fellowship, but are in darkness (without Christ).These show a context of declaring eternal life/salvation to non-believers.

You've seen many scriptures confirming each other that Christians have ceased from sin. If you believe 1John1:8 refers to Christians please explain what "sin" this is.

I asked you specifically, "who do you think the EPISTLES were written to and for? Believers or unbelievers?" and that's your answer?

You telling us that the Epistles are also for the unbelievers? Do your unbeliever family members or friends read the Epistles or the Holy Bible with you? And love every word that's written in there? Do they tell you they love Jesus Christ? Read the introductions of the Epistles and tell us they were addressed to unbelievers. Better still, show us the verses that say so.

There are even those in here professing to be Christians find it so hard to believe the Epistles written about the revelation of the OT.

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,

Hebrews 4:15,16 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities, but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.

Hebrews 4:15 states the Lord Jesus was without sin, it does not say Believers are without sin. To make that point clear verse 16 states to go boldly before our high priest the Lord to obtain mercy which is evident we will slip and fall in our walk. we would not need mercy if we were already sinless.

Warwick. The physical help people provide for the needy is seen amongst NON-Christians too. Thus it's hardly evidence/works that one is Christian.BUT, our works are to believe on Jesus, John 6:29. Believing on Jesus you will feed and clothe the lost with the gospel. By these works we shine forth as lights in the world, sharing the gospel, Phil 2:16.How beautiful are the feet of those who preach the gospel, Rom 10:15

Christan. Scripture is written to mankind. Context is to be considered in determining who it refers to. Consider the 'churches' in Rev. They were a mixed bunch, most of whom were warned to turn back from their path or perish. If you believe 1John 1:8 is to Christians, what 'sin' does it speak of?

1 Timothy 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,

Hebrews 4:15,16 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities, but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need.

Hebrews 4:15 states the Lord Jesus was without sin, it does not say Believers are without sin. To make that point clear verse 16 states to go boldly before our high priest the Lord to obtain mercy which is evident we will slip and fall in our walk. we would not need mercy if we were already sinless.

Haz, James (2:8) writes of loving neighbours. Do you claim this love is only spiritual, not also practical? This love is why Christians began hospitals. Christ died for us: was this was only spiritual death?

Are we not to care for our neighbours physical wellbeing, or only spiritual? James says words are cheap but servanthood costs and can be seen to be done. This is true Christian love, not idle, philosophical or just spiritual, but expressing itself in deeds of kindness and generosity to those in spiritual and physical need. Do you imagine Jesus' good deeds of healing, restoring sight to the blind and raising the dead were not physical deeds born of love. Surely the feeding of the 5,000 did involve actual food?

Haz, who do you think the epistles were written to and for? Believers or unbelievers?

The answer is simple isn't it? Believers! So, all that were written are teachings by the Holy Spirit to remind us that we were chosen by God to fellowship with His Son Jesus Christ, we are told that we were once "dead in sins and trespasses".

Do you agree with Paul that he's talking about your state before conversion?

The relationship of the epistles is personal. Between God and His sons, not the whole world or as Bible calls them, unbelievers. So, as Paul wrote, "...is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness", not to an unbeliever but a believer.

Christan, Mark V. The context of those verses speaks of mankind's position without Christ. Jesus took away the sin of the world John 1:29. He set us FREE from sin, John 8:36, Rom 6:7. We're baptized into Christ and IN HIM is NO SIN, 1John 3:6.We're a new creation, righteous, IN CHRIST. What sin can we be judged/accused of when we're in Christ?

Warwick. Scripture is SPIRITUALLY discerned, 1Cor 2:12-14. What does 'naked' and 'destitute of food' mean? 1Cor 10:2-4 tells us of the 'spiritual food' that is in Christ. The 'naked' are those without Christ's covering. In other words we should preach the gospel (feed and clothe) those who are without Christ. This is good works showing our faith.

Haz, you are way off target there. James illustrates what a good deed is i.e. providing food and clothes for someone in need. He describes this as faith in action, proof that a person's claims to have faith are real. He says we show our faith by how we live, as servants of God, and our fellow man. Or whether we serve ourselves. No one can see a man's heart, they cannot therefore know if his claimed faith is real unless his good works testify to the truth.

Please do not pervert my words as you have before, falsely claiming I am promoting salvation by our own deeds. I am not, I have read and understood Ephesians 2:8-10. Note that verse 10 says we were created in Christ Jesus to do good works, as James says.

Haz, you still don't understand. You said:"Our righteousness is of God by faith of Jesus Christ, Rom 3:22. Being righteous in Christ we have CEASED from sin (1Pet 4:1, 1John 3:9)."The passages that I gave concerns all people. Believers and unbelievers.

In and of themselves, "there is none righteous, no not one, there is none who understands, there is none who seeks after God" What you are doing is saying, this is who you are, righteous, you seeked God, you understood and you are sinless. But you are not sinless, Christ is sinless, you take the credit that belongs to Christ. It's Christ righteousness, His righteousness, not yours. If you were sinless, you could stand before God without Christ.

Haz, you are all over the shop with your use and understanding of Scripture.

The context of the Bible when God declares that mankind has "fallen short of the glory of God" is without exception! No one is excluded, and so too Romans 3:9-20.

Before the sinner is called by God into the fellowship of Jesus Christ, the declaration in Romans 3:9-20 and anything in the Bible, applies to ALL. Or how else will the Christian know that he was saved by the grace of God, especially when he was once "dead in sins and trespasses".

The sinner became alive in Christ is simply because, "And you hath He quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins"

joseph, blessings, The Holy Spirit was showing...the way into the Most Holy Place had not yet been disclosed as long as the first tabernacle was still functioning... an illustration for the present time, indicating that the gifts and sacrifices being offered were not able to clear the conscience of the worshiper. They are only a matter of food and drink and various ceremonial washings -external regulations applying until the time of the new order.But when Christ came as high priestHe did not enter by means of the blood of goats and calves, but He entered the Most Holy Place once for all by His own blood, thus obtaining eternal redemption. Indeed, impossible with man only possible with God

Jerry: The sin of unbelief in Jesus is not 'nebulous'.In Christ our old man is crucified. Righteousness is imputed, by faith. And as unrighteousness is sin (1John 5:17) then in Christ we have CEASED from sin, 1Pet 4:1.Hence Christ is the END of the law for righteousness, Rom 10:4. We're NOT under the law, (Rom 8:2, Gal 5:18). And where there's NO LAW there's NO TRANSGRESSION (SIN), Rom 4:15

BUT, if you're under the law you make yourself a transgressor (sinner), Gal 2:18, Rom 3:19, James 2:10. To be under the law is seeking righteousness BY WORKS, which is unbelief.

Believing on Jesus is righteousness BY FAITH, Rom 4:5.

Definitions of 'sin' are important in understanding why God says we've CEASED from sin.

Mark V. You use Rom 3:9 out of context. Note the verses after it. "There is none righteous....There is none that seeketh after God. They are all gone out of the way...Destruction and misery are in their ways...There is no fear of God before their eyes".

Rom 3:9-20 is NOT speaking of Christians as we have repented of DEAD WORKS (Heb 6:1), believing on Jesus/turning back to God.

Our righteousness is of God by faith of Jesus Christ, Rom 3:22. Being righteous in Christ we have CEASED from sin (1Pet 4:1, 1John 3:9).

If [humans] say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar, and His word is not in us. [But] If we confess our sin, He is faithful and just to forgive us [our] sin, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in 'darkness', (or ignorance concerning our cleansing in Him) we lie [about our fellowship], and do not [acknowledge] the truth: But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and [know that] the blood of Jesus Christ his Son, cleansed us from all sin. [And] the worshipper once purged should have had no more conscience of sin. He that has an ear, let them hear.

"is it possible, by God's power, to stop sinning?""With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible." Mat 19:26 For "The things which are impossible with men are possible with God. Luk 18:27

Definitions of sin like "unbelief", like the definition of obedience as "love" are much too nebulous for serious scriptural discussion. One person's concept of these may be totally different than another's. That's why I prefer:

1Jn 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

"is it possible, by God's power, to stop sinning?""With men this is impossible, but with God all things are possible." Mat 19:26 For "The things which are impossible with men are possible with God. Luk 18:27

By God's power all could stop sinning, if God did away with sin. But He hasn't done away with sin just yet. Sin has a purpose right now in the plan of God. He permits it to go on, for He is Almighty God who could stop sin with one Word of His mouth. In this life, Scripture tells us,"When they sin against you-for there is no one who does not sin-..." (1 Kings 8:46)."There is not a righteous man on earth who does what is right and never sins" (Ecclesiastes 7:20)."What should we conclude then? Are we any better? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin" (Rom. 3:9).

Scott. God is all powerful, able to give His word in English. There's no need to study Greek. And even amongst those who do study Greek I've found them disagreeing over your rendering of 1John.

Scripture confirms scripture and I've shown that scripture confirms that we have CEASED from sin. If you disagree then I suggest offering scripture to support your claim instead of implying we should discard Bible versions that don't support that 'habitual' sin doctrine you follow.

BTW, how is 'habitual' sin determined? This is important. The 'habitual' sin doctrine adds a new aspect to salvation beyond the gospel of believing on Jesus. If it's as you claim then it's important we know what it is.And what is your definition of sin?

it is by the power of Gods holy spirit to overcome sin, and we can do all things with the strength of the Lord Jesus. Paul speaks of warring against sin. He clearly states he does the sin (physical) even though in his mind (spiritual) he knows it is wrong. Paul repents, as all Believers do each time we sin. It is through Gods holy spirit and prayer we learn to overcome. Because we have the influence of the god of this world (Satan) and the flesh which will still sin. It is by learning to overcome we can learn to overcome sin and Satan, however none will ever be perfect in the flesh in a world ruled by Satan and sin.

Yes, by the power of God we can cease from sinning. Unfortunately, we are living in the end times, love has waxed cold, and people have the knowledge of God, but deny his power. People are bombarded daily of thousands of sinful messages that it is difficult for most people to stop thinking about sin thoughts. Our thoughts betray us.

is it possible, by God's power, to stop sinning? ---jerry6593 on 9/29/12 2 Peter 1:3 According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that [pertain] unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue:

2 Peter 1:4 Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.

Jerry those who are Christ's, have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires. For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit, Likewise you also, reckon yourselves to be dead indeed to sin, but alive to God in Christ Jesus, our Lord. For you died, and your life is hidden with Christ in God. Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin, He who sins is of the devil,... For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that He might destroy the works of the devil.1Pe 3:18>Gal 5:24>Rom 6:11>Col 3:3>1Pe 4:1>1Jo 3:8

This is what Paul wrote: "For the good that I will to do, I do not do, but the evil I will not to do, that I practice. Now if I do what I will not to do, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me." Romans 7:19,20

Does Paul deny that "sin still dwells in the flesh"? Well, some very foolish people seem to think so. Because if that was so, Paul wouldn't have wrote: "O wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death?" Romans 7:24

Paul was already a Christian when He wrote the epistles. He was not in unbelief! See the difference between Paul's attitude to some of the foolish here?