> I suspect there's a theorem about entire complex functions f which have the > property that the absolute value of f(z) tends to infinity as the absolute > value of z tends to infinity. What does this theorem say? I don't know of > any such functions besides polynomials of degree >= 1. Is it the case that > the set of functions which have this property is just the set of polynomials > of degree >= 1. Thank you.> > Paul Epstein