a. To shape foreign political and military environments by working through and with host nations, regional partners and indigenous population.

b. Designated Active Army and United State Army Reserve (USAR) forces and units organized, trained, and equipped specifically to conduct Civil Affairs Operation (CAO) and to support the commander in planning and conducting Civil Military Operations (CMO)

24. What assets do we use to gather CA Data

a. Staff Assets

b. Tactical Assets

c. Civilian Assets

25. What are the two types of CA Assessments?

a. Preliminary

b. Deliberate

26. CA Activities

a. Populace and resources control (PRC)

b. Foreign humanitarian assistance (FHA)

c. Nation assistance (NA)

d. Civil information management (CIM)

e. Support to civil administration (SCA)

27. What form do we use to request CAS?

a. DD Form 1972

28. How many types of CAS requests are there?

a. Immediate

b. Preplanned

29. ASOC is at what level of TACS?

a. Division

30. Who is the senior army Liaison to the TACS?

a. Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD)

31. What are the different types of CAS? (restrictions and limitations)

a. Tactical Air Control Party provides air liaison to the land forces and the control of aircraft.

33. What is CEP? What is TLE?

a. Circular Error Probability � Weapon Accuracy Measurement

b. Target Location Error � Difference between the actual location of target and the expected location

34. What is requested with a DD Form 1972?

a. Effects on Target

35. Classifications of Bombs; nomenclature M82, M83, M84

a. Mk82 = 500 lb (BLU111)

b. Mk83 = 1000 lb (BLU110)

c. Mk84 = 2000 lb (BLU117)

36. How do we mark targets for aircraft?

a. Laser

b. IR

c. Smoke

37. What is another name for Mk82

a. GBU = Guided Bomb Unit

38. What are the three different types of targets acquired by Radar?

a. Normal � Mortar, Artillery, Rocket

b. False � Information that causes the radar to report when there is no actual target

c. Unwanted � Targets other than Mortar, Artillery, or Rocket that the radar reports to the operator

39. Capabilities of Q-36

a. Short Range, High Angle, Low Velocity Indirect Fire

40. Capabilities of Q-37

a. Long Range, Low Angle, High Velocity Indirect Fire

41. What are the three different Beam types?

a. Search

b. Verify

c. Track

42. What are the Flat masks of the Q36 and Q37

a. Q36 = 20 mils

b. Q37 = 8 mils

43. FSCMs

a. CFL � Coordinated Fire Line

b. FSCL � Fire Support Coordination Line

c. RFL � Restricted Fire Line

d. RFA � Restricted Fire Area

e. NFA � No Fire Area

f. FFA � Free Fire Area

g. ACA � Airspace Coordination Area

44. What are the different Radar Zones?

a. CFZ � Critical Friendly Zone

b. CFFZ � Call For Fire Zone

c. ATI � Artillery Target Intelligence

d. CZ � Censor Zone

45. What type of message is generated from Radar Zones?

a. FM:CFF from CFZ and CFFZ

b. ATI:CDR from ATI Zone

46. Target Location Errors for Q-36?

The maximum 50% TLEs (TLE 50)

Mortar – 40m or .4% of range whichever is greater

Cannon – 65m or .65% of range whichever is greater

Long-Range Rocket – 120m or 1% of range whichever is greater

The maximum 90% TLEs (TLE 90)

Mortar – 100m or 1% of range whichever is greater

Cannon – 150m or 1.5% of range whichever is greater

Rocket – 300m or 2.5% of range whichever is greater

47. What does the Radar Acronym mean?

a. Radio Detection and Ranging

48. How does a Firefinder Radar Operate?

a. Beam sent out, hits object, and returns. System generates a location based on return.

49. Define ULO

a. Unified Land Operations � How the Army seizes, retains and exploits initiative to gain and maintain a position of relative advantage in sustained land operations through simultaneous offensive, defensive, and stability operations.