Compared to Type B personalities, Type A personalities are more likely to experience all of the following except __________.

C

A person who constantly does work for other people and does not receive credit may begin to feel __________.

A

Frustration occurs in any situation where the pursuit of a goal is thwarted.

T

One difference between approach-avoidance conflicts and avoidance-avoidance conflicts is that approach-approach conflicts deal with making a choice between two __________ goals, and avoidance-avoidance conflicts deal with making a choice between two __________ goals.

B

The fight-or-flight response can best be describe as a(n) ___________.

C

Parker is grounded and not allowed to go to a concert with her friends tonight. She screams at her brother when he asks her for help with his homework and slams her bedroom door.

Her behavior is an example of ___________.

A

Which of the following statements concerning coping strategies is not true?

A

Harley’s thoughts would be an example of ___________.

C

Larry is doing poorly in his science class, and if something doesn’t change, he will fail. Which of the following would qualify as a defense mechanism in this situation?

C

All of the following are common physical changes that accompany a fight-or-flight response except __________.

C

Theorist Albert Ellis claimed that one’s emotional reaction to stress can be controlled by ___________.

B

Nate didn’t do as well on his SAT as he and his family had hoped he would do. He knew it was because he wasn’t smart enough. He was sure that if he had tried harder on the test, he would have had a much higher score. He felt like everything was all his fault.

This shows an example of __________.

C

According to the lecture, all of the following are defense mechanisms except __________.

B

The purpose of a defense mechanism is to get uncomfortable feelings out into the open so they can be dealt with in a healthy manner.

F

Research has shown that men are more likely than women to develop Parkinson’s if they are exposed to some environmental factors like pesticides and industrial chemicals.

T

Susan has made some friends at her new high school who offer her cigarettes during their lunch break. She does not want to smoke but does so in order to fit in.

Susan is most likely being influenced by __________.

B

If the ability to roll one’s tongue is dominant (R) and the inability to roll one’s tongue is recessive (r), what would the genotype be for someone who can not roll their tongue?

D

Which theorist conducted an experiment in which a rat was conditioned to press a bar in order to receive a reward, illustrating how nurture influences behavior?

D

Environmental influences begin at birth and continue throughout life.

F

A Punnett square is used to determine the __________.

A

Researchers use all of the following to study the impact of heredity on behavior except __________ studies.

B

If having dimples is dominant (D) and not having dimples is recessive (d), which of the following correctly describes the phenotypes in the table?

C

The Human Genome Project was an international project aimed at mapping and sequencing all of the genes in human DNA.

T

Which of the following best explains how music influences behavior?

B

Research indicates that stage theories are more accurate than developmental theories when it comes to assessing developmental changes.

F

If development does not occur in stages, then it is likely that development can be described as __________.

A

Temperament is an aspect of personality that often changes throughout someone’s life.

F

Stage theories and continuity theories of development can be used together to adequately assess changes in growth that occur throughout life.

T

Which personality trait appears to be stable over the course of a person’s life?

A

Since Brooke believes in continuous human development, which of the following statements would she agree with?

A

When a psychologist claims that experience and learning are key elements in initiating developmental changes, the psychologist most likely supports which theories of development?

C

Which of the following statements concerning personality stability is not correct?

D

Which of the following is not an assumption of stage theories?

A

Over the course of an individual’s life, personality is __________.

D

The organ that provides oxygen and nutrition to the fetus and filters out bodily wastes is the __________.

D

Which prenatal stage begins when a zygote is created through fertilization?

D

__________ occurs when the mother’s body begins to fight off foreign blood protein produced by the fetus.

A woman should gain an average of 25-35 pounds during pregnancy in order for healthy development of the fetus.

T

During weeks 17-20, quickening occurs, which is when the __________.

D

The __________ is the age at which a fetus can survive in the event that it is born early.

B

When an infant progresses from crawling to walking an advancement in the infant’s __________ has occurred.

A

Developmental norms are used as a benchmark to determine where one should be developmentally.

T

Nerve cells do not begin to develop until after a child is born.

F

Sometimes an infant will seem startled and will fling their arms out and possibly cry. This is known as the __________ reflex.

A

Brain development leads an infant to undergo ____________, which occurs as unused neural connections weaken and disappear.

B

The images above demonstrate a progression in __________ motor skills in regard to drawing.

A

Mark and Sansa are playing hopskotch outside on the sidewalk. What type of motor skill is being illustrated through this game?

A

The average age at which an infant can sit unattended is approximately __________ months.

D

Which of the following statements concerning childhood brain development is not true?

C

The reflex that causes an infant to suck when the roof of the mouth is touched is called the ___________ reflex.

B

Authoritative parents expect obedience without question from their children.

F

Which of the following is not a parenting style?

B

When Marc was an infant, he did not adapt well to change, but as a preadolescent, he will eventually accept changes if they are introduced gradually. Marc is most likely __________.

C

Anxious-ambivalent children tend to be disorganized when exploring their surroundings.

F

Babies who are considered slow-to-warm-up tend react to stimulation with negative emotions.

F

Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development emphasizes that development occurs by overcoming an emotional crisis in each of the eight stages of one’s lifetime.

T

Harry Harlow’s experiment concluded that contact comfort was an important factor in determining attachment.

T

Children of permissive parenting have a tendency to be __________.

D

The crisis in Erikson’s identity versus role confusion stage of psychosocial development is that the individual must __________.

C

According to Erikson’s __________ stage of psychosocial development, children learn to trust and eventually form a close attachment to those who fills their needs.

A

In which of Piaget’s stages would a child be if the child has just developed object permanence?

B

When it comes to the development of the ability to think and reason, individuals in __________ tend to be less self-centered and begin to think about decisions that have an effect on the world around them.

A

Which of the following is not one of the four basic principles underlying the Vygotskian framework?

B

Adolescents in the formal operational stage typically have unrealistic or impractical solutions to solving world issues.

T

Due to the brain’s plasticity, experiences during childhood have a strong impact on who we become.

T

Concept formation is the ability to categorize information that aids in cognitive development.

T

Vygotsky believed that scaffolding limited communication between the teacher and the learner.

F

Hereditary factors that influence cognitive development consist of __________.

B

Schemas are mental pictures that are formed as a result of one’s experiences.

T

Object permanence is formed near the end of the preoperational stage of development.

F

Which of the following statments does not represent the relationship between culture and one’s moral reasoning?

B

Which of the following is a criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning?

C

The __________ stage of Kohlberg’s postconventional level focuses on making judgments based on what best protects individuals.

B

Individuals in the postconventional level emphasize behaving in a manner that will not cause them to be criticized by authority figures.

F

Lawrence Kohlberg’s research involved __________ of different ages and basing his theory on their reactions and responses.

C

Lawrence Kohlberg theory of moral reasoning consists of __________ levels of moral development and __________ stages.

A

Lawrence Kohlberg believed an individual’s moral behavior was an outcome of one’s current stage of cognitive development.

T

One who believes that wrong behavior is the behaviors that are punished is in the ___________ of moral reasoning.

C

Which stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning is based on one’s personal code of ethics?

D

Kohlberg believed people shift back and forth between the six schemas in his three levels of moral reasoning, depending on the circumstance and the person’s current level of cognitive development.

F

Research indicates that individuals experience less moratorium and achievement as age increases.

F

With the onset of puberty, boys and girls are able to __________.

C

Girls are usually completely physically mature by _____ years old.

A

Identity achievement has been associated with all of the following except _________.

C

A critical part of adolescence is identity formation.

T

Which of the following individuals would be best classified as being in identity diffusion?

A

Every person will eventually reach identity achievement in all aspects of their identity.

F

According to James Marcia, one aspect of identity development involves the adoption of a set of ideals and values.

T

Which hormones are released in girls during puberty?

D

What event is considered the physical start of adolescence in females?

A

The value put on timeliness in the United States is actually a cultural universal in every culture.

F

Some individuals have difficulty accepting cultures other than their own.

T

One historical reason that people in the Indian subcontinent have been reluctant to use livestock for food has been that __________.

C

Which of the following statements about cultural variations is true?

D

One frequent sign of gender inequality in the United States is that women do not ___________.

B

In most cultures, the difference between the majority viewpoint and the minority viewpoint is that the majority group is made to feel __________ and the minority group is made to feel __________.

D

Gender roles dictate a society’s view on applying makeup.

T

Which of the following statements would best express cultural relativism?

C

In comparison to some other cultures, direct confrontation is considered acceptable in the United States.

T

Individuals will generally have an easier time establishing a positive ethnic identity if they are from an ethnic group that has much in common with the dominant culture.

T

Successful marriages have all of the following characteristics except __________.

B

Successful resolution of the integrity versus despair stage of adulthood should result in ___________.

D

Some research indicates that all of the following personality traits tend to decrease with age except __________.

D

One of the characteristics of middle adulthood is peak physical health.

F

Dave is 38 years old and realizes that he hasn’t accomplished many things he has wanted to do in his life. He was recently fired from his job because of cutbacks and often notices that his physical abilities appear to be changing in a bothersome way. He feels regretful about his choices in life and often feels depressed.

Dave may be experiencing __________.

B

According to Erik Erikson, if individuals do not create significant relationships as a young adult, __________ may develop as a result.

A

An individual in middle adulthood often begins to experience which of the following changes?

C

Which of the following is considered a stressor in a marriage?

A

During the generativity versus stagnation phase, adults feel a need to give back to society, often by raising children.

T

According to Erik Erikson, if individuals do not create significant relationships as a young adult, _________ may develop as a result.

A

Researchers focusing on cultural influences on personality have discovered that __________.

A

People who view themselves independently of others represent the idea of __________.

C

Kevin has his mother’s blue eyes and her shyness, which can both be attributed to __________.

B

The parenting style that can be described as lenient or inconsistent is called __________.

C

An example of collectivism is an individual defining oneself as an obedient son.

T

Research on personality began in the 1940s in order to __________.

A

The term parenting style can be described as the way in which one interacts with, sets limits for, and provides guidance to children.

T

The authoritarian parent can be described as __________ and __________.

D

Twin studies conducted to assess the impact of environment on personality revealed all of the following except __________.

A

Twin studies research indicates that two-thirds of personality can be attributed to __________.

C

Projective tests are personality tests wherein individuals respond to vague stimuli in a way that may reveal their needs, feelings, and personality traits.

T

Psychologists vary in agreement on the validity of __________.

D

A study conducted on __________ found issues such as consistent low reliability and poor validity.

B

Raymond Cattell created the 16PF self-inventory assessment by first taking 4,504 personality traits and removing all of the __________.

C

__________ are designed so that the objective of the test is not apparent to the test taker.

A

Roger read the question on the assessment, and although he knew how he would really act in the given scenario, he purposely picked the answer that reflected the opposite of his true behavior. This type of source error is called __________.

B

After reading the scenario and the choice answers, Brad answered that he would be the kind of person that would stop and help an elderly woman carry her groceries home because it was the answer that made him look the best. The error that could arise from Brad’s answer on a personality test is called __________.

C

A category of personality tests in which individuals answer a series of questions about personal behavior is called a _________.

C

MMPI self-inventory tests were originally used to diagnose disorders.

T

Business and industry hiring is one use for personality assessments.

T

According to Gordon Allport, __________ traits are common personality traits found in most people.

B

Robert McCrae and Paul Costa are known for their contribution to the Big Five in explaining dominant traits.

T

According to the article “The Geography of Personality,” places that have more artists and entertainers are low in __________ and high in __________.

C

According to the Big Five, a person who can be described as disciplined, punctual, and organized most likely scored high in __________.

D

Neuroticism, psychoticism, and extraversion are the three dominant personality traits according to __________.

B

According to the Big Five, a person who can be described as independent, imaginative, and flexible most likely scored high in __________.

A

Jonathan was usually energetic and loud when playing a game of basketball, but at home his family would describe him as reserved and calm. The best possible explanation for the difference in behavior is __________.

C

Some critics of the Big Five model for personality have proposed __________ as a sixth fundamental personality trait, after claiming that the Big Five does not adequately represent one’s personality.

B

Research on the Big Five has indicated that approximately _____ percent of traits appear to be inherited.

D

Gordon Allport categorized personality traits in all of the following categories except __________.

B

One criticism of the psychodynamic perspective is that there is inadequate evidence. This criticism developed from the idea that psychodynamic theories rely heavily on _________ in their research, which can often lead clinicians to make biased claims regarding one’s behavior.

C

__________ is considered to be logical, rational, and realistic.

B

__________ and __________ both heavily relied on dream analysis in their treatment of patients.

C

The id personality structure is influenced by the __________ principle, which is the instinctual drive to reduce tension through immediate gratification of urges.

B

Alfred Adler established ___________ after disagreeing with Sigmund Freud on a number of issues regarding the psychodynamic perspective on personality.

D

Alfred Adler claimed all of the following influenced one’s personality except __________.

C

Freud believed that women formed weaker superegos, leaving them more vulnerable to psychological disorders.

T

__________ and __________ both agreed that childhood experiences play an important role in the development of oneself.

A

_________ is the universal urge to strive for perfection in order to overcome feelings of inferiority.

B

The decision-making component of personality that mediates between desires of the id and societal norm is the __________.

C

The behavioral perspective is criticized for all of the following except ___________.

C

Jan walked into her friend Emily’s room for the very first time and immediately noticed that the print and color on the walls was similar to the style and color of clothing Emily usually wore to school. Which part of the social cognitive theory could address the reason Emily’s style and room are similar?

B

According to B. F. Skinner’s view on personality, behavior is __________.

A

Albert Bandura emphasized the idea of __________, which is the belief one has in one’s own ability to succeed.

C

One support of the behavioral perspective is how B. F. Skinner’s ideas have brought to light how the __________ and __________ influence personality.

B

Which of the following is not reflective of Albert Bandura’s view on personality?

A

Ramona and her family agree that what got Ramona through law school is what got her through obstacles all her life: her belief in her ability to succeed even when things are tough. Which part of the social cognitive theory addresses this view on Ramona’s successes in life?

C

B. F. Skinner claimed that response tendencies are aquired through any of the following except __________.

D

After Alison saw her sister knock an earring down the drain after setting them next to the sink, Alison began putting her earrings in her jewelry box when she took them off. Which part of the social cognitive theory addresses Alison’s new behavior?

D

In the article “Who Shaped our Behaviors? Peers or Parents?”, Judy Rich Harris suggests that __________ are the most influential in forming children’s personalities.

C

A caregiver’s love, affection, and acceptance are unconditional if they’re given regardless of the child’s behavior or expectations the child has met.

T

According to Carl Rogers, anxiety stems from incongruence, where one experiences differences between self-perceptions and reality.

T

A caregiver’s love, affection, and acceptance are considered conditional if they’re given only when the child is well-behaved or meets set expectations.

T

Evidence supporting the humanistic perspective is easily measured.

F

According to the article “Self-Concept,” those who do not have self-worth also tend to have high self-esteem.

F

The optimistic view of human nature held by supporters of the humanistic perspective led to more positive views of human nature throughout the field of psychology.

T

According to Maslow, which of the following would not be an example of the behaviors of someone seeking to meet physiological needs?

C

Maslow associated some traits, such as dependency, unfriendliness, and a lack of appreciation for the world around oneself, with self-actualizing persons.

F

Formation of the humanistic perspective resulted because the psychodynamic and behavioral perspectives received positive support within the field of psychology.

F

A psychologist claiming that a client’s personal experiences and viewpoint influence behavior more than events in reality is using ___________ to explain personality.

Since George Engel’s introduction of the biopsychosocial model, some medical schools now focus on teaching __________.

B

The medical model of abnormality states that psychological disorders are __________.

B

Katherine has begun to experience attacks consisting of intense fear, heart palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath whenever she thinks of or attempts to leave her apartment. Katherine may be experiencing a certain amount of __________ when it comes to leaving her home.

D

The biopsychosocial model of abnormality states that behavior is influenced by all of the following except __________ factors.

C

Professor George Engel believed mental illness was a disease that should be cured.

F

Which of the following is not considered a criterion that suggests the presence of a psychological disorder under the category of “maladaptiveness”?

A

The medical model of abnormality states that psychological disorders should be viewed and treated in the same manner as physical illnesses.

T

Some clinicians are able to develop a clearer understanding of a future patient if the patient already has a prior diagnosis.

T

Robert has a history of depression but worries that if he seeks treatment he will judged by his family and friends and viewed as weak. Robert’s apprehension to get help is an example of __________.

A

The current manual for classifying mental disorders is the __________.

C

Individuals with a psychological disorder are extremely different from individuals without a psychological disorder.

F

All of the following are stereotypes associated with mental illness except __________.

B

Patients A, B, C, and D all have similar symptoms and situational stressors. The major difference is that patient A’s Axis V rating scale is 77, patient B’s is 92, patient C’s is 15, and patient D’s rating scale is 32.

Which of the patients would be given a more severe diagnosis?

C

Someone who displays symptoms of an anxiety disorder would be given an Axis I classification of mental disorders.

T

DSM stands for the __________.

B

Which of the following statements would not be considered a clinical benefit to labeling an individual with a mental illness?

D

Which of the following axes and terms are not correctly associated according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

D

Collaboration between the therapist and the patient known as __________ is important to achieve in order for treatment to be successful.

A

Which of the following choices is not a reason why some minorities do not seek therapy?

B

Minority groups make the most use of psychotherapeutic services.

F

A __________ earns a doctoral degree in medicine, provides therapy for those with severe disorders, and is able to prescribe medication for various disorders.

D

Insurance companies will usually only cover psychotherapy if it is considered medically necessary.

T

Men often seek therapy more than women.

F

All of the following are possible reasons why families may choose to seek therapy except __________.

C

Which of the following choices would be an important reason why individuals are more likely to seek treatment if they have medical insurance?

D

Which of the following statements does not refer to how psychotherapy is helpful to an individual who seeks treatment?

D

In order for an individual to seek psychotherapy, it is not necessary for there to be a __________.

A

Many forms of biomedical therapy come with side effects, but the most serious form of brain damage could be from __________.

A

Which of the following is not one of the four basic elements of client-centered therapy?

Any form of biomedical therapy can be used in conjunction with other forms of psychotherapy.

T

The practice of associating negative responses with a behavior that is problematic or undesirable is known as _________.

A

Insight therapies involve verbal interactions between a therapist and a client that are used to promote positive changes in one’s life.

T

The substance known as Antabuse may be combined with alcohol as a form of __________ to help curtail alcohol addiction.

A

Making a list of situations or objects that cause anxiety is part one of the process in aversion therapy.

F

Electroconvulsive therapy was developed as a way to prevent the seizures experienced by schizophrenic patients.

F

Medications have proven to be unhelpful in treating anxiety disorders.

F

The disorder where one is fearful of public spaces and leaving the comfort of one’s own home is __________.

D

After witnessing a vicious crime, Charlie began having nightmares, started distancing himself from his friends and family, and feels immense guilt over not doing more to help. Charlie should see a therapist who specializes in __________.

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder is marked by unwanted behaviors that are repeated excessively and are uncontrollable.

T

A victim of a serious traffic accident will always develop posttraumatic stress disorder.

F

Gilbert cannot leave his house without flushing the toilet three times. He is worried not flushing will cause a back-up and flood his house. Gilbert is most likely suffering from __________.

C

Etiology is the process of dignosing a specific disorder, and may include observations and additional research.

F

Anxiety sensitivity is the apparent cause, origin, and development of a particular disease.

F

Despite his fear of germs, Howard Hughes neglected his own hygiene despite having those around him follow strict cleanliness practices. Hughes had these odd behaviors because __________.

C

Aaron may have a phobic disorder if he had his first panic attack on his first day at a new high school.

F

The type of somatoform disorder involving an individual developing or imagining symptoms of a disease or sickness is __________.

A

An individual with a somatoform disorder usually avoids seeking medical attention.

F

Conversion disorder can affect motor and sensory skills in all of the following ways except __________.

D

Individuals suffering from somatoform disorders often see several doctors about their symptoms because __________.

D

Individuals with a neurotic personality tend to have negative views of themselves and their emotions.

T

Somatization disorders occur more often in men than in women.

F

Conversion disorders are more common in people who are __________.

C

Hypochondriacs seek out medical care in order to verify that they do not have an illness.

F

Symptoms involved with somatoform disorders feel very real to the patient but are often imagined, especially when they are unable to be diagnosed.

T

Conversion disorders are more common in rural populations or in areas of lower socioeconomic status.

T

Katherine, a 30-year-old woman, has had difficulty recalling certain time frames from her childhood, and she becomes anxious when returning to her grandparents’ home to visit. Katherine is most likely suffering from __________.

A

Emotional avoidance is a way to ignore feelings, such as guilt or shame.

T

Individuals in a dissociative fugue state may not attract attention or receive immediate medical care because __________.

D

__________ is a way for individuals to talk about and safely express their thoughts and feelings with a trained medical professional.

A

Dissociative identity disorder is the feeling of becoming separated from prior memories after wandering away from home.

F

In order to avoid negative effects of trauma, individuals with dissociative disorders may engage in all of the following except __________ .

D

Of the following, which is not a helpful way to use hypnosis in treating dissociative disorders?

C

__________ may develop a dissociative disorder if they have experienced severe physical, sexual, or emotional abuse __________.

B

There is controversy that some therapists may influence patients into developing certain personalities in order to issue a diagnosis.

T

Upon returning to the pre-fugue state, an individual will most likely __________.

C

Depression appears to occur more in men than in women.

F

Of the following statements, which describes what pessimistic individuals tend to do?

D

All of the following are factors that may increase the risk of teen suicide except _________.

B

Which of the following statements concerning depression is not correct?

D

__________ is a form of learned helplessness used as a way to avoid unpleasant outcomes to uncomfortable or painful situations.

C

An increase in a form of “giving up” behavior or thinking is linked to individuals with an optimistic outlook on life.

F

Major depressive disorder only affects adults after the age of 25.

F

The tendency for individuals to minimize any positive events that they may be experiencing is part of having dysfunctional or negative thoughts.

T

A mood disorder is characterized by an inability to recall important information, usually traumatic or stressful in nature, that is too extensive to be normal forgetfulness.

F

Attempting suicide may be a symptom of depression.

T

All men in their late teens to mid-20s are at risk for developing a schizophrenic disorder.

F

Undifferentiated schizophrenia differs from other schizophrenic disorders in that symptoms are __________.

C

__________ can involve false beliefs that often involve the individual being harassed or manipulated by others.

D

An individual who exhibits a mixture of schizophrenic symptoms most likely has undifferentiated schizophrenia.

T

Enlarged brain ventricles are presumed to signify __________.

D

Disorganized schizophrenia is the most common type of schizophrenia.

F

Delusions of grandeur is the false belief that __________.

B

Research indicates that being exposed to high stress situations may create a relapse in individuals who have progressed in recovering from schizophrenia.

T

A symptom of schizophrenia could be having unusual beliefs that have no factual basis.

T

Daniel has been describing situations about being stalked by a government agency that is trying to recover information implanted in his brain. He will also babble incoherently, soil his clothing with excrement, and hold a statue-like pose for hours at a time.

Some research supports the claim that individuals with antisocial personality disorder may not exhibit the same increase in stress hormone levels when under stress as those without the disorder.

T

According to some research, why might individuals who are emotionally unresponsive to threatening situations be more likely to develop personality disorders?

D

Which of the following statements regarding obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is not correct?

C

All of the following are found to have a strong association with individuals who have a personality disorder except __________.

A

An individual with avoidant personality disorder will display all of the following symptoms except __________.

D

Adoption studies have shown that individuals raised by parents who do not have a personality disorder are not vulnerable to developing a personality disorder even if they have a biological relative diagnosed with one.

F

It is common for an individual with antisocial personality disorder to be called a sociopath.

T

All of the following are examples of environmental influences on the development of personality disorders except __________.

C

An individual with a personality disorder is usually too trustful of other people.

F

Symptoms associated with dementia usually develop within a few hours or days.

F

Which of the following statements is not considered a common symptom of both anorexia and bulimia?

D

Someone who has been continuously teased about one’s appearance may develop an eating disorder.

T

Which of the following statements is one of the main differences between Alzheimer’s disease and dementia?

A

A reduction of the oxygen supply to the brain due to a heart attack or stroke can result in an organic disorder.

T

Individuals suffering from an eating disorder may experience several medical problems caused by their eating habits.

T

An individual suffering from Alzheimer’s disease does not have an appropriate amount of __________ to allow the brain to send and receive signals necessary for communication.

C

Anorexics are often hungry but refuse to eat, which is misleading because the literal meaning of anorexia is “__________.”

D

A person suffering from bulimia will most likely have dental problems due to the __________.

A

Someone who has anorexia nervosa may hide weight loss by wearing loose clothing.

T

When individuals go through the process of acculturation, they are likely to shed all the customs of their past culture.

F

Appropriation is best described as the process by which __________.

D

It is possible to practice the customs of many different cultures at once.

T

Which of the following statements reflect the difference between a subculture and a counterculture?

C

If Culture A appropriates one of the customs of Culture B, what is the most likely outcome?

B

Which of the following is an example of cultural diffusion?

A

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between culture and the environment?

B

Which of the following statements correctly represents the difference between diffusion and appropriation?

D

The average pace of life lived by Americans is considered slow paced.

F

The dominant culture may or may not be aware of the different beliefs existing in a member of the subculture.

T

A collectivist society usually contains individuals who have strong group identification.

T

Individualist societies are less likely than collectivist societies to put an emphasis on working hard.

F

Social schemas are useful because they allow people to __________.

A

Sam is going to be introduced to a person whom he will be working with for a long time. When meeting that person for the first time, it is likely that Sam’s initial impression will be __________.

B

Role schema can affect the way people perceive themselves.

T

A self schema determines how a person sees oneself in relation to one’s culture and society.

T

What is the effect of attractiveness on social perceptions of friendliness?

A

In general, a social schema could most accurately be described as __________.

D

Those who have positive qualities are often judged more positively on their other qualities.

T

Impressions of others are based upon their self schema.

F

According to the principle of fundamental attribution error, what are other theater-goers likely to think of Katherine’s behavior?

C

“He only helped because he wanted to impress Susan” is an example of internal attribution.

F

Based on the information above, what type of attribution will Percy likely make?

D

Which of the following is the best demonstration of the fundamental attribution error?

A

If one is acting according to the principle of defensive attribution, what is the most likely attribution of a person who sees a homeless man?

D

Attributions have little effect on behaviors.

F

“You make lots of money because you’re intelligent” is an example of external attribution.

F

Once assigned, attribution is a permanent status.

F

In self-serving bias, individuals are more likely to attribute their successes to __________.

C

Overcoming the fundamental attribution error requires making an effort to shift an external attribution into an internal attribution.

F

The theory stating that we form attitudes through observing another’s behavior or through conditioning is the __________ theory.

B

Research indicates that attitudes are generally very good predictors of behavior.

F

One’s cognitive dissonance can increase as the number of conflicting beliefs increases.

T

An attitude that is considered strong is likely to __________.

A

Brady is a student in a math course. She has a lot of homework, but it seems like she is also learning a lot. When someone asks her whether she likes her math course, she claims to have mixed feelings.

Which of the following statements would best describe Brady’s attitude?

C

According to self-perception theory, which of the following is the best indicator of a person’s reported attitude?

A

The affective component of an attitude usually describes the subject’s __________ the attitudinal object.

B

The elaboration likelihood model emphasizes the use of __________ persuasion and __________ persuasion methods.

C

A person may have two conflicting attitudes.

T

Once formed, attitudes are generally permanent.

F

Which of the following is an example of kin selection?

D

Some researchers believe there is no such thing as true altruistic behavior because they believe that helping behavior__________.

B

According to kin selection, one will demonstrate altruism only to immediate family members.

F

Emotional elevation only occurs in animal kin groups.

F

Experiencing empathy can motivate altruistic behavior.

T

Emotional elevation generally decreases acts of altruism.

F

What is the observed effect of altruistic tendencies among female vampire bats?

A

What is the most likely explanation for the altruistic behavior of the worker ants?

A

Which of the following factors is most likely responsible for Kenneth’s altruistic behavior?

A

The emotion of elevation generally occurs when __________ helpful behaviors.

B

Some researchers claim that video games reward violent behavior.

T

High self-esteem has not been linked to aggressive behavior.

F

The social interaction theory explains that the purpose of aggression is to control another person’s behavior.

T

Research indicates that social isolation tends to decrease aggressive behaviors.

F

Based on the above reading, why is Timothy likely to respond to this insult with aggressive behavior?

A

Which of the following factors is not linked to increased levels of aggression?

C

Some media reinforce violence as a method for solving problems.

T

Which of the following effects is most likely responsible for Kathy’s behavior?

C

Research indicates that genetics does not influence levels of aggression.

F

Social learning theory predicts that those who witness aggressive behavior being punished may be __________.

A

Which of the following relationships is most likely to be classified as an example of companionate love?

C

Cultures and societies define norms and standards for what constitutes a socially acceptable relationship.

T

Which of the following is not an advantage that attractive people enjoy in interpersonal relationships?

C

Which of the following features is not universally accepted as a sign of physical attractiveness?

B

Companionate love usually lasts longer than passionate love.

T

According to the evolutionary perspective of mate selection, why do men and women exhibit different preferences in mate selection?

B

In interpersonal attraction, the phrase “Birds of a feather flock together” is more accurate than “Opposites attract.”

T

Which of the following statements about arranged marriages is not true?

D

In a relationship with low amounts of equity, both individuals equally contribute to making important decisions.

F

Researchers agree that love is one of the easiest constructs to define and measure.

F

According to Solomon Asch’s and other research results concerning conformity, all of the following increases an individual’s tendency to conform except __________.

C

Which of the following researchers conducted obedience studies to test the influence of authority commands on behavior?

A

Which of the following psychological effects of groups likely led to John’s uninhibited behavior?

A

Based on the concept of groupthink, what is the most likely response of Ralph’s group to the new member’s proposal?

B

In the Stanford prison experiment, students with a predisposition to mental disorders and sociopathy were assigned as prison guards.

F

Which of the following situations reflect the effects of deindividuation?

C

Which of the following factors is responsible for decreased compliance and obedience in groups?

B

The Stanford prison experiment was terminated early due to pyschological abuse suffered by the prisoners at the hands of the guards.

T

Groupthink tends to stimulate rational discussion within groups.

F

Which of the following researchers conducted the Stanford prison experiment in order to test the effects of social roles on behavior?

B

Role-playing can be used to help people with prejudiced views understand their effect on the affected group.