I'm reading an article that refers to the tenant numbers per square mile
in a given area of Devon based on information in the Domesday Book.
Would tenant numbers reflect numbers of households, the population per
square mile therefore being roughly number of tenants times average
number of household members?
In the approximate period of the 6th and 7th centuries, who (among the
Anglo-Saxons) would have had slaves? Anyone who could afford to feed
one, or just the elite? (I am thinking of India, where I was surprised
to see that even households that to me were poor still had servants to
do the menial work.)
Eve
Toronto