I much appreciated Dr. Hobbs' posting on the confusion of gender with sex. I
archived it under the heading "wish I could have said that." IMHO the attempt
to achieve goals for the sexes by destoying gramatical gender has had and will
continue to have devastating effect on the English language and our ability to
communicate with it. My opinions are, of course, off toppic and for that I
apologize.
Dr. Hobbs' point about the gender of pronouns in one language having nothing
to do with the choice of which gender should be used in the receptor language,
is well taken and a helpful reminder to us all that gender is a system within a
language and not an objective reality. However, I have this question about the
choice of gender WHITHIN the Gr. of John's Gospel.
At John 15:26 and 16:13 TO PNUMA TH ALHQEION is in apposition the
demonstrative pronoun EKEINOS. Is the only effect of the masculine pronoun to
indicate that the Spirit of truth is a person? Is the translatior required to
determine the proper gender in the receptor language? Or does the masculine
here indicate that the Spirit of truth should be He in any language?
John M. Moe

It's Greek to me.

p.s. I have Dr. Hobbs' posting arcived on my computer at home so don't have it
here in my study. If he coverd this and I forgot please accept my apology