Out of curiosity:
Wheelock says that the student has learned to conjugate a verb in all of its finite forms after learning the subjunctive. What does he mean by finite forms? Since there are finite forms of verbs, are there also infinite forms?

Most texts I have encountered consider the infinitive a separate mood. Wheelock, however, states that there are three moods, and leaves the infinitive out. Wheelock also, however, claims that passive imperatives only exist in deponent verbs, a statement I am unwilling to accept.

What fun would passive imperatives be if they only existed in deponents? Not much. Also, Allen & Greenough's New Latin Grammar uses amo, amare as it's example for the passive imperatives.