support for the basic Daniel Wallace argument that Spirit is not grammatically personalized in the New Testament

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"Now it will be found, upon a careful examination of the three chapters I have mentioned, that in every instance where the masculine article and pronoun are used, the Paraclete is either the expressed or obviously implied antecedent."

Beyond that, look up Naselli and Gons (2011). They confirm the Wallace position that many interpreters, and some grammarians, have made a false argument claiming personality on various verses by a supposed constructio ad sensum. They add a ton of helpful historical material.

And I have not checked the doctrinal positions of those who get this wrong.

What is amazing is that 110 Biblical scholars, including many grammarians, are listed as having this wrong.

An impressive number of Greek grammarians, exegetes, commentators, and theologians have made this argument from at least the 1500s to the present.3 They span all the main branches and denominations of the church (e.g., Reformed, Presbyterian, Lutheran, Baptist, Pentecostal, Roman Catholic), many languages (e.g., English, French, German, Dutch), and several continents (e.g., North America, Europe, Australia).

Here is a chronological sampling of about 110 notable adherents—some more nuanced than others:4

ca. 1591—Martin Chemnitz (1522–86): John 15:26, when Christ speaks of the Holy Spirit in the neuter gender, “The Spirit (to pneuma) of truth which proceeds from the Father,” He then changes the gender and adds “He (ekeinos) will bear witness of Me,” signifying that He is not speaking of some created emotion which occurs in the believers, but of a person. For it is frequent and common in the sacred writings that when there is mention of persons, a term may vary in respect to the related and antecedent words by the change of the genders, for example, in Matt. 28:19, “Teach all nations (ta ethnē—neuter), baptizing them (autous—masc.)......etc...