constitutional law essay

LEGAL GK 3

1. the East India Company was established by the British Crown in the year

a) 1857 ad
b) 1600 ad
c) 1605 ad
d) 1757 ad

Ans. b

1. the East India Company commenced its company business in 1612 at
a) satara
b) surat
c) mysore
d) awadh

Ans. b

1. under the charter of 1687, a mayor’s court was established at madras. The mayor had to be
a) elected by the Alderman and the Burgesses every year
b) nominated by the company
c) senior-most Alderman
d) nominated by the company on the recommendation of the outgoing mayor

Ans. a

1. the main objective of the regulation act, 1773 were to
a) bring the management of the company under the control of the British Parliament & the British Crown
b) introduce reforms in the company’s government in India
c) provide remedies against illegalities and anarchy committed by the company’s servants in India
d) all of the above

ans. d

1. for the 1st time the system of appeals from India to Privy Council in England was introduced by the charter of
a) 1608
b) 1683
c) 1726
d) 1833

Ans. c

1. under which plan separation between revenue and judicial function was maintained
a) plan of 1772
b) plan of 1774
c) plan of 1780
d) plan of 1782

Ans. c

1. in Raja Nand Kumar trial, nand kumar was charged for the crime of forgery and was hanged in the year 1775. he was sentenced to death under the act of
a) 1726
b) 1724
c) 1728
d) 1753

Ans. c

1. the regulation act empowered the british crown to establish a supreme court at calcutta by issuing a charter in 1774. it also led
a) the abolition of mayor’s court n Calcutta
b) to confer civil, criminal, admiralty, ecclesiastical jurisdiction on the supreme court
c) both a & b
d) to establish court of record at other two Presidency towns viz., Bombay & Madras

Ans. c

1. what is the meaning of ‘lex loci’
a) law of land
b) sovereignty is essential for enacting laws
c) law of the land is supreme
d) crown has supreme authority

Ans. a

1. lord Cornwallis introduced the ‘ Cornwallis code’ in 1793. what are the true effects of this code
a) the collector was to collect the revenue only
b) the magesterial powers of the collection of revenue were taken away
c) the court fees were abolished
d) all of the above

Ans. d

1. the plan of 1772 under the territories of Bihar, Bengal and Orissa were divided in districts and in each district a collector was appointed. Such plan was drafted under the chairmanship of
a) lord clive
b) lord Cornwallis
c) warren hastings
d) lord William betick

Ans. c

1. the charter of 1753 was introduced to reform some of the provisions of the charter of 1726. one of the most important provisions was
a) establishment of the court of admirality
b) establishment of the court of revenue
c) establishment of the mayor’s court
d) none of the above

Ans. b

1. the transfer of the company’s government to the british crown was proclaimed by Queen Victoria just after the ‘sepoy mutiny’. It was declared on
a) 1st oct, 1857
b) 1st oct, 1858
c) 1st oct, 1859
d) 1st dec, 1859

Ans. b

1. one of the following was not one of the main objectives of the Indian Council Act, 1909
a) increase the size of legislative council
b) enlarge the functions of the legislative council
c) secure the support of the moderate section in the Indian national congress
d) decrease in proportion of the elected members

Ans. d

1. the simon commission placed the recommendation regarding diarchy which had to be abolished in the provinces and also proposed enlargement of the provincial legislature. It was appointed in the year
a) 1927
b) 1929
c) 1928
d) 1931

Ans. a

1. which one of the following act made the central legislature a bicameral i.e, the council of states and the legislative assembly
a) government of India Act, 1909
b) government of India Act, 1919
c) government of India Act, 1935
d) none of the above

Ans. b

1. under the government of India act, 1935, the federal court had
a) original jurisdiction only
b) appellate jurisdiction only
c) original, appellate & advisory jurisdictions
d) advisory jurisdiction only

Ans. c

1. quit India revolution was declared by the indian national congress after the failure of the
a) cripps mission
b) august offer
c) Wavell plan
d) None of the above

Ans. a

1. one of the following statements was not made among the simon commission’s recommendation
a) dyarchy to be abolished in the provinces
b) reconstitution of central legislature
c) establishment of the provincial public service commission for all provinces
d) Indian council is not needed to advice the secretary of state for India

Ans. b

Ans. a

1. the plan of lord mountbatten was accepted by the congress and the muslim league. The british parliament enacted the Indian independence act, 1947. it got royal assent on
a) 3 june, 1947
b) 4 july, 1947
c) 15 july, 1947
d) 18 july, 1947

Ans. d

1. the cabinet mission (1946) did not propose that
a) the union constitution be jointly settled by the entire constituent assembly including representatives of the states
b) there were to be three groups- hindu majority provinces, muslim majority provinces, Bengal & assam
c) the union of india would comprise british india & states
d) the provinces couldnot opt out of their respective groups

ans. d

1. which one of the following made the Indian legislature bicameral
a) Indian councils act, 1909
b) Government of india act, 1919
c) Government of india act, 1935
d) Indian independence act, 1947

Ans. b

1. the first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by
a) Indian councils act, 1900
b) Indian councils act, 1909
c) Government of india act, 1935
d) Indian councils act, 1919

Ans. b

1. the government of india act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the
a) british parliament
b) federal legislature
c) state legislature
d) governor-general

ans. d

1. which of the following was not one of the features of the government of india act, 1935
a) provincial autonomy
b) dyarchy of centre & the provinces
c) bicameral legislature
d) all india federation

ans. b

Ans. a

1. which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for india
a) Indian council act, 1909
b) Montague-chelmsford reforms act, 1919
c) Charter act, 1831
d) Government of india act, 1935

Ans. d

1. what was the main stipulation of government of india act, 1935
a) a federation was suggested
b) unitary reform of government was recommended
c) complete independence was guaranteed
d) dyarchy was made applicable in provincial level

ans. c

1. for the first time a bid to bring about centralization in the legislative field was made under
a) act of 1900
b) act of 1919
c) Indian councils acts, 1861
d) Charter act of 1833

Ans. d

1. the amendment procedure laid down in the constitution of India is on the pattern of
a) government of india act, 1935
b) government of india act, 1947
c) constitution of USA
d) constitution of UK

ans. a

1. the system of the ‘double government’ system was declared by the
a) charter act of 1813
b) charter act of 1833
c) act of 1858
d) act of 1909

ans. c

Ans. c

1. the India constitution has borrowed the ideas of preamble from the
a) Italian constitution
b) Canadian constitution
c) French constitution
d) Constitution of USA

Ans. d

1. which of the following sought to change the character of the Indian government from unitary to federal
a) government of india act, 1935
b) government of india act, 1919
c) Indian council act, 1909
d) Indian independence act, 1947

Ans. a

1. the main recommendation of the cabinet commission include
a) formation of federal union consisting of british Indian provinces and Indian states
b) a constituent assembly to frame a constitution for India
c) an interim government consisting of representatives of various political parties
d) all of the above

ans. d

1. which of the following acts provided for setting up of a board of control in which the british government could fully control the british east india company’s civil, military & revnue affairs in India
a) regulating act of 1773
b) pitt’s india act, 1784
c) charter act of 1833
d) government of india act, 1858

ans. b

1. the plan of Stafford crips envisaged that after the 2nd world war
a) india should be granted complete independence
b) india should be partitioned into two before granting independence
c) india should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the commonwealth
d) india should be given dominion status

ans. d

1. the act in which for the 1st time statutory rules were framed to separate provincial subjects from the central subjects was the
a) government of india act, 1935
b) government of india act, 1919
c) Indian council act, 1909
d) Indian council act, 1892

Ans. c

1. under which one of the following acts was the communal electorate system introduced by the british in india for the 1st time
a) government of india act, 1919
b) government of india act, 1909
c) Indian council act, 1861
d) Indian council act, 1892

Ans. b

1. in the federation established by the act of 1935, residuary powers were given to
a) federation legislature
b) provincial legislature
c) governor general
d) provincial governors

ans. c

1. which of the following are the principal features of government of India act, 1919
1. introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. introduction of separate communal electorate for muslims
3. devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
4. expansion & reconstruction of central and provincial legislature
codes.
a) 1,2 & 3
b) 1,2 & 4
c) 2, 3 & 4
d) 1, 3 & 4

Ans. d

1. 1st attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through
a) Indian council act, 1861
b) Indian council act, 1892
c) Indian council act, 1909
d) Government india act, 1919

Ans. c

1. which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the british constitutional experiments in India
a) government of india acts, 1919
b) Indian councils act, 1909
c) Pitt’s india act, 1784
d) Government of india act, 1935

Ans. b

1. which one of the following acts formally introduced the principles of election for the first time
a) Indian council act, 1909
b) Government of india act, 1919
c) Government of india act, 1935
d) Indian independence act, 1947

Ans. a

1. Which of the following acts gave representation to Indians for the 1st time in the legislature
a) Indian council act, 1909
b) Indian councils act, 1919
c) Government of india act, 1935
d) None of the above

Ans.c

1. the crown took the government of india into its own hands by
a) charter act,1833
b) government of india act, 1858
c) Indian council act, 1861
d) Government of india act, 1935

Ans. b

Part b ( preamble)
1. in which case it was held by the supreme court that ‘ preamble is the basic feature of the constitution’ ?
a) in re: golaknath case
b) in re: maneka Gandhi
c) in re: swarn singh
d) in re: keshwananda bharti

ans. d

1. in which case the supreme court held that the preamble is not the part of the constitution?
a) A.k gopalan case
b) Berubari case
c) Minerva mills case
d) A.k anotony case

Ans. b

1. preambleless statute is a rare occurrence. But there are some statutes which do not have a preamble. Which of the following statutes has no preamble
a) government of india act,1935
b) government of india act, 1919
c) the british north America act
d) constitution of Switzerland

ans. a

1. sovereignty under constitution belongs to
a) the president
b) the parliament
c) the people
d) the executant, judiciary & legislature

ans. c

Ans. b

1. the preamble of the constitution of India envisages that
a) it shall stand part of the constitution
b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the constitution
c) it does not acknowledge, recognize or proclaim anything about the constitution
d) it has separate entity in the constitution

ans. a

1. in preamble of the constitution equality of status and opportunity refers to
a) public services & public matters only
b) social, political and economic affairs
c) social & economic affairs
d) both a & b

ans. d

Ans. b

1. which of the following statement is correct
a) preamble is a key to the understanding of the minds of founding fathers
b) preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith & aspirations of the people
c) preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers & objectives of th constitution
d) preamble of the constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to constitution

ans. d

1. the word socialist secular & unity and integrity of the nation were made to our constitution by
a) 42nd amendment of the constitution
b) 44th amendment of the constitution
c) 46th amendment of the constitution
d) None of the above

Ans. a

1. which one of the following statements is correct
a) preamble of the constitution is the part of the constitution and can be amended under the art 368
b) preamble of the constitution is not a part of the constitution & cannot be amended
c) preamble of the constitution is the part of the constitution & can be amended only if a no change in the basic structure is made
d) preamble can be amended by a parliament simply by an objective resolution

ans. a

1. which one of the following is correct
a) the preamble enumerates the purpose and the objectives that the legislation intended to achieve
b) preamble reflects the intention of the members of the constituent assembly
c) the preamble codifies the regular measures to the citizens
d) envisages only liberty in all spheres

ans. a

1. the word socialist I preamble, aims to
a) eliminate inequality in economic & political status
b) eliminate inequality in political & religious affairs
c) eliminate inequality in income & status & standards of life
d) eliminate class based society

ans. c

1. which one of the following statements is correct
a) the constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole
b) the constitution is the individual centric or individual oriented
c) the constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the individual
d) the constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise the individual interest with permanent interest of the community

ans.d

1. in the case of Golak Nath v. stae of Punjab, it was remarked that our ‘preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’. Who was the judge
a) Mathew, j.
b) Krishna iyer, j
c) Subba rao, j
d) H.r khanna, j

Ans. d

Ans. a

1. faternity mans a sense of common brotherhood to all Indians and is the principle which gives unity & solidarity to social life. It was said by
a) DR RAJENDRA PRASAD
b) DR. B.R AMBEDKAR
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) C. rajgopalachari

Ans. b

1. the words social justice in the preamble of the constitution, aims the primary duty of the state
a) to make sure that justice was not based on caste , community, race or religion
b) to work for creating a fruitful environment where a reasonable attitude towards social relations strengthened
c) both a & b
d) none of the above

ans. c

1. the words socialist & secular were inserted in the preamble by
a) 15th amendment of the constitution
b) 39th amendment of the constitution
c) 42nd amendment of the constitution
d) 44th amendment of the constitution

Ans. c

1. which of the pairs is correctly matched
a) republic head of the state is hereditary monarch
b) sovereign constitution rests on people’s will
c) democratic constitution does not recognize legal supremacy of another
country
d) secular state is without any religion of its own

ans. d

1. though the major part of the constitution of india came into force on Jan 26, 1950, the provision relating to citizenship, elections, provincial parliament and temporary and transitional provisions came into force with immediate effect, from
a) 15 AUG, 1949
b) 30 JUNE, 1948
c) 26 NOV, 1949
d) 26 JUNE, 1950

Ans. c

1. preamble of our constitution is of extreme importance and the constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the preamble. Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in the case of
a) in re: beru bari union
b) keshavananda bharti v. state of kerela
c) a.k gopalan v. state of madras
d) in re: kerela education bill

ans. b

1. in accordance with the text of the constitution a reasonable restriction in the interest of the sovereignty & integrity of india can b imposed on the right to
a) freedom of speech & expression
b) move freely throughout the territory of India
c) reside and settle in any part of territory of India
d) carry on any occupation, trade or business

Ans. b

1. democracy and federalism are essential features of our constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S.R Bommai case by
a) J.A.M AHMADI
b) J.J.S VERMA
c) J.P.B. SAWANT
d) J.S.R PANDIAN

Ans. c

1. the text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure
a) fundamental rights to all individuals
b) fundamental duties to citizen of India
c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation
d) security of service to government servant

ans. c

1. in tinsukia electricity company v. state of assam , the supreme court pointed out the term socialist used in the preamble to the constitution of india, means state whose basic policy is to
a) prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute equitability the natural resources
b) prohibit equitability the natural resources
c) distribute equitability the natural resources
d) prohibit concentration of wealth & uplift the living standard of the people

ans. c

1. the preamble to the constitution of india secures ‘ justice , liberty, equality & faternity’ to
a) all persons
b) those who reside within the territory of india
c) al citizens
d) those citizens who reside within the territory of india

ans. c

1. ‘justice, social, economic and political’ is:
a) guaranteed by fundamental rights in the constitution of india
b) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the supreme court of india
c) an idea enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of india
d) a directive principle of state policy taken into account making enactments

ans. c

1. consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘secularism’
1. secularism mans the state has no recognized religion of state
2. secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally
3. secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with god
which of these statements are correct?
a) 1,2 & 3
b) 1 & 2
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 3

Ans. b

1. the concept of directive principle of state policy is borrowed from
a) germany
b) france
c) Ireland
d) Usa

Ans. c

Ans. d

1. which of the following said that “ in any event, whatever system of government we may establish here must fit in with the temper of the people and be acceptable to them”
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dr. B. r ambedkar
c) D.D Basu
d) M.V Pylee

Ans. a

1. by which amendment act ‘ unity of the nation’ was substituted by the ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ in the preamble of the constitution
a) 42nd amendment act, 1976
b) 45th amendment act, 1980
c) 44th amendment act, 1979
d) None of the above

Ans. a

1. who among the following said that ‘ the new constitution establishes, indeed a system of government which is at the most quasi-federal, almost devolutionary in character: a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary feature’.
a) DR KC WHEARE
b) SUBASH KASHYAP
c) DR B.R AMBEDKAR
d) DR RAJENDRA PRASAD

Ans. a

1. is the preamble a part of the constitution?
a) it is the part of the constitution
b) it is not the part of constitution
c) still this qstn is to be decided by the court
d) none of the above

ans. a

1. which of the following feature is not borrowed from the united kingdom?
a) the cabinet system of government
b) the parliamentary type of government
c) bicameral parliament
d) written constitution

ans. d

1. the feature power of judicial review borrowed from which of the following country?
a) UK
b) USA
c) IRELAND
d) CANADA

Ans. b

1. which of the following articles describe about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens
a) art 5
b) art 8
c) art 7
d) art 9

ans. d

1. under the Indian constitution it was held in the case pradeep v. union of india
a) there is only one domicile of the country
b) there are 2 domicile of the union as well as the state
c) in case of jammu & Kashmir, there are two domiciles, one of the union & other of the state
d) both a & c

ans. a

part d ( fundamental rights & the state)
1. the fundamental right secured to the individual are
a) limited to the state action only
b) meant to protect against the conduct of private persons
c) meant to protect persons against police action
d) all of the above are correct

ans. a

1. in the light of the definition of ‘state’ which are not states
a) Indian statistical institute
b) Institute of constitution & parliamentary affair
c) Council of scientific & industrial affair
d) Prathama bank

Ans. b

1. for the purpose of fundamental rights an authority must come within the definition of ‘state’. Which of the following are not state
a) ongc
b) industrial & finance corporation
c) ncert
d) kerela legislative assembly

ans. c

1. in the light of the definition of the ‘state’ as including other authorities, which of the following are not states
a) consumer protection society
b) gram panchayat, phoolpur
c) town area committee, ambala
d) Punjab legislative assembly

Ans. a

1. an electricity board terminated services of certain employees arbitrarily without giving notice. Which one of the following alternative remedies can be best adopted by the concerned employees
a) the employees can move to the high court by a writ as electricity board is included within the definition of the state
b) the employees can make an appeal to the state government
c) the employees can move to the high court after getting the permission of electricity board only
d) the employees can directly approach supreme court for violation of a fundamental right

ans. d

1. which of the following is not State for the purpose of the art 12 of the constitution?
a) NCERT
b) A Nationalised Bank
c) Institute of Medical Research
d) Griha Kalyan Kendra

Ans. a

1. in which Indian case it is quoted “ a man’s liberty of movement is regarded so highly by the law of England that it is not to be hindered or prevented except on the surest grounds” ( art 12)
a) maneka Gandhi v. union of india
b) joginder kumar case
c) amarawati case
d) none of the above

ans. a

1. in which of the following cases did the supreme court hold that an amendment of the constitution under art 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of art 13
a) golaknath v. state of Punjab
b) sajjan singh v. state of rajasthan
c) shankari Prasad v. union of india
d) keshavanath bharti v. state of kerela

ans. a

1. the fundamental rights have
a) retrospective affect
b) have no retrospective affect under art 13(1) or 13(3) b
c) have only future effect
d) none of the above

ans. b

1. in keshavananda bharti v. state of kerelait was held that
a) under the amended art 368, all provisions of the constitution including those enshrined fundamental rights could be amended
b) fundamental rights cannot be amended
c) fundamental rights have the primacy and supremacy than any of the provisions of the constitution
d) none of the above

ans. a

1. art 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law
a) all persons living within the territory of India
b) all persons domiciled in India
c) all Indian citizens living in India
d) all persons natural as well as artificial

ans. a

1. give response to the statements Equality before law under art 14 of the constitution with reference to
a) laws enacted by legislature
b) orders passed by the executive
c) notifications issued by the government
d) laws enacted by legislature, executive order,etc.

Ans. b

1. art 15(1) prohibits the state to discriminate against citizens on the grounds
a) religion
b) race
c) caste and place of birth
d) all of the above

ans. d

1. the expression “equality before law and equal protection of law” means
a) equality before law is a negative concept implying the absence of any special privilege in favour of individuals & equal subject of all classes to the ordinary law
b) equality means, socio-economic balance
c) these two expressions are not applicable to our democratic republic
d) violation of these laws will lead to soci-economi imbalance

ans. a

1. which one is not correctly matched
a) freedom of speech & expression – include freedom of press
b) freedom conscience - include right to carry and wear kirpans by Sikhs
c) right to personal liberty – include right to carry on any trade or business
d) right to equality- includes principles of natural justice

ans. d

1. right to work in India is
a) fundamental right
b) directive principle
c) is not a fundamental right but it can b claimed after employment
d) constitutional duty

ans. c

1. which one of the following statements is correct in respect of state power of reservation in admission to educational institutions
a) caste can be sole criterion
b) poverty can be sole criterion
c) both poverty & caste are relevant criteria
d) residence in rural areas ad lack of educational facilities can be exclusive criteria

ans. c

1. the press has no fundamental right to publish the proceedings of the legislature because
a) the freedom of press is not fundamental right
b) the press publishes for project
c) each house of the legislature is exclusive master of its proceedings
d) a house of legislature is a court and can regulate access to its proceedings

ans. c

1. right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of
a) public order
b) security of state
c) health
d) morality

ans. b

1. on which of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the state
a) speech & expression
b) peaceful assembly
c) association or union
d) movement

ans. a

1. under Indian constitution which is not a specific ground on which the state can place restriction on freedom of religion
a) public order
b) morality
c) social justice
d) health

ans. c

1. which one of the following pairs is correctly matched
a) writ of habeas corpus- available against private individual as well
b) writ of quo warranto- available against subordinate courts only
c) writ of certiorari- available against autonomous bodies only
d) writ of prohibition- available against public servants only

ans. d

1. when a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on ground of exceeding the jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of justice, it is called a writ of
a) certiorari
b) mandamus
c) quo warranto
d) habeas corpus

ans. a

1. the appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the appointment of a person to public office is that of
a) prohibition
b) quo warranto
c) certiorari
d) mandamus

ans. b

1. which of the following is not a fundamental right
a) right to strike
b) right against exploitation
c) right to equality
d) right to freedom of religion

ans. a

1. which one of the following fundamental rights have been a subject of maximum controversy & litigation
a) right to freedom of speech
b) right to property
c) right to constitutional remedies
d) right to religion

ans. b

1. which one of the following is not a fundamental right?
a) right to property
b) right to assemble
c) right to move freely throught out the country
d) right to constitutional remedies

ans. a

1. which one of the following fundamental rights was described by dr. b.r. ambedkar as the ‘ heart and soul of constitution’.
a) right to property
b) right to religion
c) right to constitutional remedies
d) all of the above

ans. c

1. which one of the following is bulwark of personal remedies
a) mandamus
b) habeas corpus
c) quo warranto
d) certiorari

ans. b

1. which one of the following fundamental rights are restrained by the preventive detention act
a) right to religion
b) right to constitutional remdies
c) right to freedom
d) right to equality

ans. c

1. the right against exploitation prohibits:
a) traffic in human beings
b) beggar
c) employment of children below 14 yrs in factories, mines, etc
d) all of the above

ans. d

Miscellaneous
1. the members of union public service commission ( UPSC) are appointed by
a) president
b) prime minister
c) chief justice of india
d) the cabinet

ans. a

1. the term of members of UPSC is ordinarily of
a) 5 yrs
b) 10 yrs
c) 6 yrs
d) None of the above

Ans. c

1. the UPSC has advisory power in the following matters
a) methods of recruitment to civil service
b) disciplinary matters affecting a public servant
c) in a only
d) in both a & b

ans. d

1. the main functions of UPSC are
a) to conduct the examinations for appointment to the services of the union & state as the case may be
b) to hold interviews for the public posts
c) both a & b
d) only a

ans. d

1. the president in case of union commission & governors in case of State public service commission may remove a member where
a) he is adjudged as insolvent
b) he becomes insane
c) both a & b
d) none of the above

ans. c

1. the members of the state commission public service hold office till they attain the age of
a) 65
b) 62
c) 58
d) 60

Ans. b

1. the term of members of the state public service commission is of
a) 5 yrs
b) 10 yrs
c) 6 yrs
d) None of the above

Ans. c

1. its is necessary that the no. of members of public service commission of union as well as of states consists of
a) 15 members
b) 5 members
c) Nothing is prescribed
d) At least 10 members

Ans. c

1. on retirement a member of the state public service commission can hold no office under the state government or union government except that of
a) chief justice of India
b) election commissioner
c) member of UPSC
d) speaker of lok sabha

Ans. c

Ans. a

Ans.b

1. the panchayats are authorized
a) to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropriate the same
b) the panchayats have no power to levy taxes
c) the panchayats are entitled to only grants from the government
d) to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls & fees as they are authorized by the government

ans.d

1. election to the gram panchayat are
a) to be direct on the basis of adult franchisee
b) by indirect method
c) by legislatures of the states
d) none of the above

ans. a

1. it is obligatory for all states to hav
a) three –tier system
b) two-tier system
c) some states are exempted from establishing three-tier system
d) it is optional for the states

ans. d

1. a union territory is administered by
a) president of india directly
b) by the governor of the territory
c) by the chief minister & his council of ministers
d) by the president of India through an administrator appointed by him called the lieutenant governor

ans.d

1. chairman & other members of the union & state public service commissions are appointed by
a) the president
b) the president & governor of respective states
c) the prime minister & chief minister of respective states
d) both a & c

ans. b

1. the UPSC has to serve only
a) selected states
b) union territories
c) entire nation
d) depends on the president’s will

ans. c

1. the president can remove the chairman or any other member of the UPSC in accordance with
a) the inquiry held by the supreme court
b) the misbehaviour proved by the supreme court & it has recommended to the president
c) mental condition, who has been adjudged insolvent
d) all of the above

ans. d

1. the UPSC or state public service commission shall be consulted on
a) all matters regarding procedure of recruitment to civil service & for civil posts
b) on all disciplinary matters affecting persons serving under the government of India or government of state in a civil service capacity
c) on any claim for the award of a person in respect of injuries sustained by person while serving under the government of india
d) all of the above

ans. d

1. a member of the state public service commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after the enquiry has been held by
a) joint parliamentary committee
b) supreme court of india
c) high court of the concerned state
d) committee constituted by the governor of the state

ans. b

1. which one of the following is not a function of the UPSC
a) it conducts examination for the appointment to the services of the union
b) it shall be consulted on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services & posts
c) it shall be consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the government of India
d) it shall be consulted as regards the reservation of posts for backward classes, scheduled castes & tribes

ans. d

1. a member of the state public service commission can be removed only by
1. governor on the ground of misbehaviour
2. president on the ground of misbehaviour
3. governor when such member becomes insolvent
a) 1& 2
b) 2
c) 1& 3
d) None of the above

Ans. b

1. regional election commissioner can be appointed by
a) chief election commissioner
b) president, in consultation with the election commission
c) election commission
d) president, with the consent of the rajya sabha

ans. b

1. the largest committee of parliament of india is
a) public accounts committee
b) estimates committee
c) committee on public undertaking
d) joint parliamentary committee

ans. b

ans.d

1. the central government gives grants-in-aid to the states out of consolidated fund of india on the basis of the recommendation of the
a) planning commission
b) finance commission
c) public accounts committee
d) estimates committee

ans. b

1. the area of lok sabha constituency for the purpose of general election is determined by the
a) delimitation commission
b) election commission
c) census commission
d) president

ans. b

1. finance commission is constituted by the president every year
a) two yrs
b) three yrs
c) five yrs
d) four yrs

ans. c

1. finances are distributed between the centre & the states on the basis of recommendation of
a) planning commission
b) public accounts committee
c) finance commission
d) national development centre

ans. c

1. the composition of UPSC
a) has been laid down in the constitution
b) is determined by the parliament
c) is determined by the president
d) is determined by the home ministry

ans.c

1. UPSC submits its annual report on its work to
a) the parliament
b) the union home minister
c) the president
d) the chief justice of india

ans. c

1. additional duties can be assigned to UPSC on the recommendation of the
a) home minister
b) parliament
c) council of ministers
d) president

ans. b

1. the members of the UPSC hold the office
a) during the pleasure of the president
b) as long as they enjoy confidence in parliament
c) for life or till they attain the age of 70 yrs
d) for the term of the six yrs or till they attain the age of 65 yrs

ans. d

1. the members of all india services are appointed under the signature of
a) president
b) home minister
c) vice president
d) chairman of UPSC

ans. a

1. the members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by the
a) prime minister
b) chairman of upsc
c) president on recommendations of the supreme court
d) prime minister on the recommendation of the supreme court

ans.c

1. the election commission is responsible for the conduct of election to
a) parliament
b) state legislature
c) offices of the president & vice- president
d) all of these

ans. d

1. the chief election commissioner is
a) elected by the parliament
b) appointed by home minister
c) appointed by prime minister
d) appointed by the president

ans. d

1. the special status of jammu & Kashmir implies the state has
a) a separate defence force
b) a separate constitution
c) a separate judiciary
d) all of the above

ans. b

1. which of the following committees of parliament is concerned with the regularity & economy of expenditure of the government
a) public accounts committee
b) estimates committee
c) committee on public undertakings
d) all of the above

ans. b

Ans. c

1. from 1st oct, 2006 pondicherry is known as
a) puducherry
b) pundicherry
c) new colony
d) French Riviera of the east

Ans. a

Parliament & state legislature
1. the power to legislate with respect to the collection of rent includes the power to legislate with respect to remission of rent, is based on the theory of
a) ancillary legislation
b) colourable legislation
c) pith & substance
d) none of the above

ans. a

Ans.d

1. which one of the following language was not included by the 92nd amendment act, 2003?
a) bodo
b) nepali
c) dogri
d) santhali

ans. b

1. ‘concurrent list’ includes how many items?
a) 32
b) 45
c) 47
d) 52

Ans. c

1. when both the seats of the speaker and deputy are vacant, who chooses another member to be speaker or deputy speaker?
a) governor
b) chief minister
c) council of ministers
d) assembly

ans. d

1. what is the minimum age for a person to become member of legislative council?
a) 25 yrs
b) 30 yrs
c) 35 yrs
d) Not prescribed in the constitution

Ans. b

1. the legislative council of a state should not exceed the total number of members in the legislative assembly of that state:
a) ½
b) 1/3
c) ¼
d) 1/5

Ans. b

1. who has the power to abolish or crate the legislative councils in states?
a) the state assembly
b) the president
c) the governor
d) the parliament

ans. d

1. which one of the following statements is not true?
a) conduct of the supreme court judge cannot be discussed in the parliament
b) validity of any proceedings of the parliament cannot be questioned in the court
c) no permission is required for a member of a parliament to address the house in his mother-tongue
d) the business in parliament shall be transacted in hindi or English

ans. c

1. how many members in the house of the people are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state?
a) 520
b) 530
c) 540
d) 550

Ans. b

1. the parliament of the union consists of
a) the president
b) the house of people the council of states & house of the people
c) the house of the people
d) both a & b

ans. d

1. the council of minister is collectively responsible to the
a) president
b) prime minister
c) house of the people
d) parliament

ans.c

1. what can be the maximum interval between the 2 sessions of the each house of parliament?
a) 3 mnths
b) 6 mnths
c) 9 mnths
d) 1 yr

Ans. b

1. the minimum age to become member of the council of states is
a) 25
b) 30
c) 35
d) None of the above

Ans. b

1. which of the following statement is not true?
a) readjustment to be made after the completion of each census
b) readjustment shall affect the existing house
c) readjustment to be made by the order of the president
d) none of the above

ans. b

1. maximum how many people can represent the union territories in the house of the people
a) 12
b) 13
c) 20
d) 24

Ans. c

1. who becomes the chairman of the council of states, when vice president of india, discharging the functions of the president of india
a) deputy chairman
b) vice president of india
c) speaker of the rajya sabha
d) leader of the opposition

ans. a

1. minimum how many days notice is required to move the resolution to remove the Deputy Chairman of the Council Of States?
a) 10 days
b) 14 days
c) 20 days
d) 30 days

Ans. b

1. who has the power to dissolve the house of the people?
a) the speaker of the lok sabha
b) the president
c) the prime minister
d) the council of ministers

ans. b

1. every member of either House of Parliament, before taking his seat, makes and subscribes an oath or affirmation according to the form set out in which schedule?
a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th

Ans. b

1. when the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker is vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the apeaker?
a) the president
b) the prime minister
c) the council of ministers
d) the chief justice of india

ans. a

1. if the speaker of the lok sabha has to resign then, whom will he address his letter of resignaton to?
a) the prime minister
b) the president
c) the deputy speaker
d) leader of the opposition

ans. c

1. whose decision is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of parliament?
a) the election commission
b) the president
c) the speaker of the lok sabha
d) the prime minister

ans. b

1. a person shall not be disqualified for being chosen as a member of either house of parliament, on which one of the following grounds?
a) he holds office to profit under the government
b) he is of sound mind
c) he is not a citizen of india
d) he is a law breaker

ans. d

1. after what time period, the house may declare the seat vacant of any member, when he absents from all meetings without permission of the house?
a) 30 days
b) 45 days
c) 60 days
d) There is no time period

Ans. c

1. any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal shall be charged on:
a) prime minister’s relief fund
b) consolidated fund of India
c) fund of ministry of law & justice
d) fund of ministry of home affairs

ans. b

1. ‘ budget’ is known as:
a) annual financial statement
b) annual budget
c) financial statement of the year
d) it has no other name

ans. a

1. after a money bill has been passed by he house of the people, it is transmitted to the council of states foe its recommendation within how many days?
a) 12 days
b) 14 days
c) 20 days
d) 30 days

Ans. b

1. money bill can be introduced in:
a) the house of the people
b) the council of states
c) either of the 2 houses
d) none of the above

ans. a

1. which among the following states has only one House i.e, Legislative Assembly?
a) west Bengal
b) bihar
c) Maharashtra
d) Karnataka

Ans. a

1. decisions regarding disqualification of members of lok sabha are taken by
a) speaker
b) prime minister
c) minister for parliamentary affairs
d) the parliamentary secretary

ans. a

1. who the following is considered as the custodian of Lok Sabha
a) prime minister
b) leader of the opposition
c) chief whip of the ruling party
d) speaker

ans. d

1. the term of loksabha is?
a) 5 yrs unless it is dissolved
b) Four yrs from the date of its 1st session
c) 5 yrs from the date of oath taken by the members
d) It is a permanent body of cyclic filing of MP’s

Ans. a

1. members of lok sabha are elected by the way of?
a) people’s representation
b) by the state legislature
c) nominations
d) by electoral college

ans. a

1. rajya sabha has a term of ?
a) 6 yrs
b) It is a permanent body in which 1/3rd of the members retire after every 2nd yr
c) 5 yrs from the date of oath taken by the members
d) 10 yrs

Ans. b

1. total strength of council of states consists of
a) 300 members representing states & union territories
b) 260 members
c) 238 members representing states & union territories and 12 nominated by the president
d) 305 members

Ans. c

1. total strength of lok sabha members is
a) 542
b) 525 from the state & 20 from union territories
c) 525 from the state & 20 from union territories & 2 nominated by the president fro union territory
d) 555

Ans. c

1. representation of house of people is based on
a) area of the state
b) population
c) community
d) literacy rate

ans. b

1. a member of parliament can claim immunity
a) both from civil as well as criminal cases
b) from civil cases only
c) from criminal cases only
d) cannot claim immunity either from criminal or civil cases

ans. a

1. after the house is dissolved the speaker is,
a) removed from the office
b) remains as speaker until the first meeting of the house of the people after the dissolution
c) he has to submit his resignation to the president of india within 24 hrs
d) he can continue as speaker for the period of 30 days only

ans. b

1. council of ministers can be suspended during session
a) by prime minister of india
b) by speaker of lok sabha
c) by chairman of rajya sabha
d) none of the aboce

ans.b

1. the council of ministers are selected by the
a) speaker of lok sabha
b) prime minister
c) president
d) vice president

ans. b

1. give correct response to:
a) council of ministers are collectively responsible to the lok sabha so that the censure of one will become the censure of all
b) they are individually responsible for the acts done by them
c) it is the responsibility of the leader of the house
d) prime minister & home minister are only responsible

ans. a

1. the oath of the office is administered to the council of ministers by
a) president of india
b) chief justice of india
c) prime minister of india
d) speaker of lok sabha

ans. a

1. the rajya sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by the President from among the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in
a) literature, science, arts & social sciences
b) literature, science, art & law
c) literature, science, art, law & social work
d) literature, science, art, philosophy, law & social work

ans. a

1. the Indian parliament consists of
a) lok sabha, rajya sabha & the president
b) lok sabha & rajya sabha
c) house of the people & council of states
d) lok sabha

ans. a

1. which of the following is incorrect
a) a person who is a minister in the union government or the state government, is not qualified to be returned to the parliament
b) a person who has declared to be of unsound mind by the competent court, cannot seek election to parliament
c) a person who is an undischarged insolvent , is disqualified from seeking election to either house of parliament or state legislature
d) a person who holds an office of profit under the government is not entitled to seek election to any house of parliament or state legislature

ans. a

1. a member of parliament has immunity from arrest
a) a member of parliament cannot be arrested and put in prison in a civil,action within a period of 40 days before the commencement of the session and 40 days after the termination of the session
b) a member of parliament cannot be prosecuted in criminal proceedings
c) an MP cannot be detained preventively
d) an MP cannot be arrested for the contempt of court

ans. a

1. parliamentary privileges are not available to
a) attorney general when he participates in the proceeding of the house of the people
b) minister’s speech made in a house of which he is not member of
c) an individual who is called upon to testify before the house
d) the citizen who distributes pamphlet in the house

ans. d

1. in case of conflict between fundamental rights of citizens and privileges of parliament
a) parliamentary privilege with true supremacy
b) fundamental rights will prevail over privilege
c) some of the fundamental rights are sacrosanct over which privileges will not prevail
d) generally, parliamentary privileges will prevail but parliament while acting against the fundamental rights of citizens should not violate due process of law

ans. d

1. which of the following is incorrect
a) newspaper can publish parliamentary proceedings
b) newspapers can publish any part of proceedings with the permission of the speaker
c) newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged proportions of the speech of an MP
d) parliament has freedom to publish its proceedings

ans. c

1. which of the following statements is correct
a) no member of parliament can be proceeded with in a court of law for any disclosure he makes in parliament
b) a member of the parliament is protected from any defamatory speech he makes in the parliament & then circulates its copies to the public
c) a member of the parliament has absolute freedom of speech
d) a member of the parliament is protected for any speech he make sin the parliament

ans. a

1. the speaker may be removed
a) by a resolution of a house passed by the majority of total membership of the house
b) by a resolution of the house passed by 2/3rd majority of members present & voting
c) by a resolution of the house moved after 14 days clear notice & passed by majority of all the then members of the house
d) none of the above

ans. c

1. which one is the correct statement
a) the chairman of rajya sabha is the vice president
b) the position & powers and in all other matters, the position of chairman of the rajya sabha is the same as that of the speaker
c) both a & b
d) neither a nor b

ans. c

1. the speaker is the presiding officer of the lok sabha
a) he is master of the HOUSE & not its servant
b) he can exercise all & every powers of the house
c) he is not above party politics
d) he occupies a position of an umpire & must see that all sctions of the house are given proper opportunity to participate in the proceedings of the house

ans. d

1. an ordinary bill can originate in either house. It becomes law
a) when it is passed by both the houses & gets the assent of the president
b) as soon as it is passed by both the houses
c) as soon as it is passed by the house in which it originated
d) none of the above

ans. a

1. give correct response to:
a) a money bill deals with imposition, remission, alteration & regulation of tax
b) a money bill deals with regulation of borrowing money & giving of any guarantee by the government
c) a money bill deals with the money of the consolidated fund
d) a money bill is one which provides for the imposition of fines & fees. The lok sabha’s decision is final

ans. d

1. whenever there are differences between the two houses, a joint sitting can be called by the president on which of the following matters
a) money bill
b) a bill seeking constitutional amendment
c) a bill seeking tax imposition
d) a bill which deals with social legislation

Ans. c

ans. a

1. the vidhan parishad
a) has a term of 6 yrs
b) is a permanent body not subjected to dissolution, 1/3rd of its members retire every second year.
c) Is a body representing certain interests in the share whose members have a term of 6 yrs
d) Is a permanent body

Ans. b

1. elections to the vidhan parishad are held by
a) direct elections
b) indirect election
c) the system of proportional representation
d) the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote

ans. d

1. the no. of seats in vidhan is
a) to be not more than 500 & not less than 60
b) to be more than 500 and not less than 60 but an exception is recognized in the case of one state which has only 32 seats
c) to be more than 400 & not less than 500
d) varies from vidhan sabha to vidhan sabha

ans. b

1. which of the following statements is incorrect
a) no person can be returned to vidhan sabha unless he has attained the age of 25 yrs
b) no person can be returned to vidhan parishad unless he is of 35yrs of age
c) no person can be returned to vidhan sabha unless his name is registered in the constituency from which he seeks election
d) none of the above
1. the power of allocation of seats in the house of people to the states and the constituencies is vested with
a) parliament
b) election commission
c) administrative tribunals
d) state legislature

ans. a

1. money bill can be
a) invalid by rajya sabha
b) invalid by both the houses
c) rajya sabha can reject the money bills
d) none of the above

ans. d

1. who have the right to speak or otherwise take part in the proceedings of either house in any joint sitting of the parliament without voting right
a) attorney general of india
b) auditor & comptroller general of india
c) chief justice of india
d) election commissioner

ans. a

1. give correct response to
the advice given by the council of ministers to the president & its rejection by him may be
a) questioned by the supreme court
b) it may not be questioned by any court of law
c) the rejection of the advice by the president is unconstitutional
d) it may be questioned by the prime minister

ans. b

1. the union parliament is composed of
a) the house of people, the council of states & the president
b) the president, vice-president & the prime minister
c) the legislative assemblies, the legislative council & the governor
d) the house of people, the state legislative assemblies & the legislative councils

ans. a

1. the quorum to constitute a meeting of the house of parliament shall be
a) 1/10th of total no. of members
b) 2/3rd of total no. of members
c) 1/3rd of total no. of members
d) None of the above

Ans. a

1. prorogation of the house means
a) a house has been brought in session
b) the session of the house has been terminated
c) the house itself stands terminated
d) none of the above

ans. b

1. if a person gets elected to both the houses of parliament or state legislature or is a member of house of parliament as well as house of state legislature
a) he may enjoy membership of bothe the house
b) he may give up one of the seats
c) he must give up one of the seats
d) he must vacate both the seats

ans. c

ans. a

1. a member of either house of parliament shall be disqualified if
a) he is an undischarged insolvent
b) he is disqualified by any law made by parliament
c) he disqualified under any law made by parliament
d) all the above

ans. d

1. the system of representation of elections to lok sabha & state assemblies is
a) proportional representation
b) territorial representation
c) functional representation
d) different from one another

ans. a

1. the attorney general of india holds office during the pleasure of
a) president
b) prime minister
c) parliament
d) chief justice

ans. a

1. in the event of death or resignation of the prime minister
a) the ministry is dissolved
b) fresh general election must take place
c) the cabinet may choose another leader
d) president’s decision

ans. a

ans. d

1. rajya sabha has the exclusive authority to
a) impeach the vice-president
b) intimate the impeachment proceedings against the chief election commissioner
c) recommend the creation of new ALL INDIA SERVICES
d) all of the above

ans. c

1. law made by the parliament having extra-territorial operation shall
a) not be deemed invalid
b) be deemed invalid
c) be deemed ultra vires
d) be deemed constitutional

ans. a

1. what is the minimum gap permissible between two sessions of parliament
a) 6 mnths
b) 4 mnths
c) 6 mnths, 10 days
d) 90 days

Ans. d

1. which of the following is a continuing body?
a) lok sabha
b) legislative assemble
c) legislative council
d) none of the above

ans. c

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