Why did modern “Romania” remain the most “Roman” part of the Balkans?@Duncan This answer does not convince me either. The term Byzantine is a historiographical one, granted, and the Byzantine called themselves Romans. But the language of the Empire was much more related to Greek than to Latin. This was evident already during the late Roman Empire (V cen.), but became more and more obvious under Justinian (VI cen.) and finally Heraclius (VII cen.) Although they could have been influenced by the Byzantine, I doubt that the weak and short-lived Latin Empire of Constantinople could had exerted such a deep and long lasting influence. How do you address these?

Oct3

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Why did Christianity disappear in North-Western Africa?@Semaphore Because I wrote from Morocco to Lybia, when you wrote "in both those countries" I interpreted it as Egypt and Syria being the two countries, which is what T.E.D. said at the beginning. Besides that, the numbers you give must be compared to the populations of these countries. Egypt has ~10% of Christians, whereas the countries you listed have percentages up to 1%. Besides that, most of these Christians have been "reintroduced" after Western colonisation, whereas in Egypt and Syria, and in Lebanon and Iraq, they are the heirs of the first Christians. I hope this helps to clarify.