Headquarters Department of the Army Washington, DC 30 January 2012

*Department of the Army Pamphlet 38563

Safety

Range Safetyoperations and are advisory for actual combat operations. Except for airspace and water traffic safety requirements, these provisions do not apply to development, proof, and function test ranges, or laboratories. However, Army commands, Army service component commands, direct reporting units, and Marine Corps installations having such ranges and laboratories are required to develop and apply alternate standards that are appropriate to the mission and that ensure the preservation of life and property. Proponent and exception authority. The proponent of this pamphlet is the Director of the Army Staff. The proponent has the authority to approve exceptions or waivers to this pamphlet that are consistent with controlling law and regulations. The proponent may delegate this approval authority, in writing, to a division chief within the proponent agency or its direct reporting unit or field operating agency, in the grade of colonel or the civilian equivalent. Activities may request a waiver to this pamphlet by providing justification that includes a full analysis of the expected benefits and must include formal review by the activitys senior legal officer. All waiver requests will be endorsed by the commander or senior leader of the requesting activity and forwarded through their higher headquarters to the policy proponent. Refer to AR 2530 for specific guidance. Suggested improvements. Users are invited to send comments and suggested improvements on DA Form 2028 (Recommended Changes to Publications and Blank Forms) directly to Headquarters, Department of the Army, Director of Army Safety Office (DACSSF), 9351 Hall Road, Building 1456, Fort Belvoir, VA 220605860. Marine Corps users are invited to submit comments and suggested improvements to the Commanding General, Marine Corps Combat Development Command (C465), 2079 Barnett Avenue, Quantico, VA 221345001. Distribution. This publication is available in electronic media only and is intended for command levels A, B, C, D, and E for the active Army, the Army National Guard/Army National Guard of the United States, and the U.S. Army Reserve. Publication and distribution to authorized users for Marine Corps commands are indicated in the table of allowance for publications.

History. This publication is a major revision. Summary. The Army and the Marine Corps will use this pamphlet in conjunction with AR 38563 and MCO 3570.1C to establish and maintain a comprehensive range safety program. Applicability. This pamphlet applies to the active Army, the Army National Guard/Army National Guard of the United States, and the U.S. Army Reserve, unless otherwise stated. It also applies to all personnel and range operations and activities on Army or Marine Corps controlled property or within Army or Marine Corps jurisdiction. The provisions of this pamphlet apply in peacetime and contingency

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Chapter 1 Introduction11. Purpose This pamphlet provides minimum requirements for the U.S. Army and Marine Corps Range Safety Programs prescribed in AR 38563 and Marine Corps Order (MCO) 3570.1C. It also establishes standards and procedures for the safe firing of ammunition, demolitions, lasers, guided missiles, and rockets, and the delivery of bombs for training, target practice, and to the extent practicable, combat. 12. References Required and related publications and prescribed and referenced forms are listed in appendix A. 13. Explanation of abbreviations and terms Abbreviations and special terms used in this pamphlet are explained in the glossary. 14. Deviations a. Deviations from range standards or procedures contained in AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C and this document may be granted based on critical mission requirements. Risk management will be integrated into the deviation process. Deviations are limited to (1) Reducing surface danger zone (SDZ), laser surface danger zone, and weapon danger zone dimensions when terrain, artificial barriers, or other compensating factors make smaller danger zones safe. (a) Deviations applied to danger zones extending beyond authorized range impact area(s)/installation boundaries must be based on the ability to sufficiently contain projectiles, hazardous fragments, laser beams, and both vertical and horizontal ricochets within the authorized range impact area(s)/installation boundaries and areas under military control (for example, leased land or training areas acquired through memorandum of agreement or memorandum of understanding). (b) For the Marine Corps, deviations for danger zones extending beyond the installation boundaries must be validated by Commanding General (CG), Marine Corps Combat Development Command (MCCDC), Range and Training Area Management (RTAM) Division (C465), 2079 Barnett Avenue, Quantico, VA 221345001 using the Probabilistic Surface Danger Zone Tool. (2) Modifying prescribed firing procedures appropriate for a state of training of participating personnel to increase training realism. (3) Allowing personnel not authorized by chapter 3 of this pamphlet within the danger zone, unless prohibited. b. At a minimum, all deviation authorizations will contain the following, as appropriate: (1) Statement citing chapter, paragraph, and subparagraph of the specific condition requiring deviation, and the name and number of the firing range, training facility, or maneuver area involved. (2) Description of the existing condition and anticipated hazards, subsequent hazard analysis, and risk analysis. (3) Statement as to why a deviation is necessary and impact on training if not granted. (4) Control measures taken to eliminate hazards and/or minimize risk and residual risk level. (5) Installation and unit standard operating procedures (SOPs) governing the specific firing range, training facility, or maneuver area for which the deviation applies. (6) Scaled topographical map depicting SDZ and requested deviation. (7) Map coordinates of the firing position, target location, and quadrant or elevation of fire, if required. The firing position, direction of fire, and danger zones will be plotted on the scaled map with distances shown in meters (m). (8) Computer-generated danger zones and terrain profiles created using the Range Managers Toolkit (RMTK) may be submitted with deviation requests in lieu of developing them through manual means, if deemed appropriate by the senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps). These computer-generated danger zones and terrain profiles must be developed using the current approved version of the RMTK. Danger zones and terrain profiles must depict the gun target line (GTL), the left and right limits of fire, the relative elevation of the weapon system being fired, the target, and the natural terrain backstop or artificial barrier, as appropriate. Risk-management principles will be applied in determining if alternate danger zones are applicable. c. Requests for deviation shall originate from the unit or activity conducting the event or the installation range control officer (RCO). The installation RCO makes the initial judgment regarding the suitability of a proposed deviation prior to submission to the approving authority. Requests will be coordinated through the appropriate chain of command. For the Army, coordination will include both garrison and mission safety offices, legal review, environmental, and public affairs offices, as appropriate. d. Deviations are valid for 1 year or less. e. Deviations shall not be applied to other Federal agency directives, such as airspace or water traffic requirements. f. Army commands (ACOMs), Army service component commands (ASCCs), and direct reporting units (DRUs) communicate directly with Army Training and Doctrine Command (TRADOC) Capability Manager - Live (TCML)DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012 1

for technical information and guidance on risk management. Marine Corps organizations may communicate directly with Training and Education Command (TECOM), RTAM Division (C465) for technical information and guidance. 15. Requirements for range safety certification programs a. Range safety certification programs will be used to train and qualify personnel in the duties of officer-in-charge (OIC) and range safety officer (RSO) for firing exercises and maneuver operations. Army certification programs are normally conducted at the unit level in accordance with established range safety certification program. Marine Corps OIC and RSO certifications will be conducted at the installation level only. Prior to attendance, Marine Corps personnel must complete the Range Safety (Basic) Distance Learning Course. The Marine Corps certificate is valid for 3 years. Government civilian personnel may serve as OIC or RSO per the guidance in table 11. b. Range safety certification programs will be integrated into organizational training. c. Once satisfied through training and testing that individuals are qualified to perform the duties of OIC and RSO of the firing unit, battalion/squadron commanders will forward their names to range control for appropriate action. d. The RCO will provide personnel designated as OICs and RSOs a range safety briefing on the use of the training complex as part of certification. e. The installation RCO (Army and Marine Corps) and the garrison/mission safety officers (Army) will monitor the effectiveness of range safety certification programs for OICs and RSOs. f. For the Army, except for field artillery, a locally devised Range Safety Card program may be employed in lieu of unit-generated rosters of certified personnel if approved by the senior commander. g. The senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) may reduce the OIC and RSO grade requirements in table 11 by not more than one grade, with the following exceptions: (1) The OIC of battalion or larger combined arms live-fire exercise (CALFEX, Army)/combined arms exercise (CAX, Marine Corps) will be a field grade officer. Exercise RSO of battalion or larger CALFEX/CAX will be an E7 or above. (2) Marine Corps explosive ordnance (EOD) units are exempt from OIC and RSO requirements when conducting EOD proficiency training on a Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB) sited range. However, when EOD units are conducting operational training on any operational training range the OIC/RSO requirements in table 11 apply. EOD units conducting EOD operations will supervise demolition and disposal operations following the guidance contained in NAVSEA OP 5, NAVSEA SWO60AAMMA010, and EODB 60 series publications. Marine Corps EOD units conducting disassembly and inerting will assign a qualified EOD technician as an RSO. Commanding officers may designate in non-emergency SOPs other instances that require EOD units to use an RSO. The RSO may be an E5 or above if they are currently qualified as an EOD officer or technician military occupational specialty (MOS) 2305/2336.

Notes: 1 Civilians in the grade of GS07 and above, or equivalent, may act as OIC; GS05 and above, or equivalent, may act as RSO. 2 For the Marine Corps, OIC and RSO must be E4 and above and be chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) MOS 5702/5711 when conducting CBRN or smoke training. For the Army, OIC and RSO must be CBRN qualified when conducting CBRN or smoke training. 3 Use of E7s as OICs is authorized only when approved by the senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps). Duties of the RSO are normally performed by either the battery executive officer or the platoon leader. 4 RSO for Marine Corps can be an E5 for mortar training activities. 5 SRSO will be a CW3, CW03, or higher or civilian in the grade of GS11 or above. 6 For battalion or larger CALFEX/CAX, OIC will be a field grade officer; exercise RSO will be E7 or above.

Chapter 2 Ranges21. Restricting access to impact areas a. Unauthorized persons are prohibited from entering the installation training complex. When empowered, the installation RCO is the approval authority for entry onto ranges and maneuver areas, and into any impact area temporary, dedicated, or high hazard. b. Unauthorized persons are prohibited from entering impact areas and other areas known or suspected to contain unexploded ordnance (UXO) by use of positive controls to include fencing and/or posting of UXO hazard warning signs. Commanders will ensure appropriate measures are used to restrict access to areas known or suspected to contain UXO. The commander will use risk management to determine the type and extent of marking and/or fencing required. Primary factors to consider in making this risk decision are accessibility of the public to restricted locations and the level of UXO hazards in the area. c. Where practical, positive means of excluding livestock (such as fences or gates) must be established unless a written agreement negating this requirement is in effect with livestock owner(s). d. Personnel who must enter an impact area will be thoroughly briefed on the hazards of UXO by the installation RCO, a designated RCO representative, and/or EOD personnel. e. Access into temporary and/or dedicated impact areas will be strictly controlled. Those portions of temporary and dedicated impact areas authorized for training or other authorized purposes will be surface cleared of dud ammunition before access is permitted. Cleared areas that become contaminated during live-fire exercises will be cleared when the exercise has been completed. Firing munitions into a UXO contaminated area for the purpose of clearing the area of UXO is not authorized. Training events that include firing mine clearing line charges or other similar munitions are not considered UXO clearing activities. Controlled burn activities to reduce ground cover to mitigate risks prior to a surface-clearing operation or contamination survey must be coordinated with appropriate installation staff offices. Fire will not be used to clear UXO. f. Access to high-hazard impact areas will be limited to qualified EOD personnel, range control, range maintenance, and safety personnel designated by the installation RCO. g. High-hazard impact areas that have improved conventional munition (ICM) or sub-munition duds are permanently contaminated and will not be cleared by Army personnel or entered by Army range personnel for range maintenance. Marine Corps EOD personnel and supporting Marine Corps personnel of any MOS are authorized access into ICMcontaminated impact areas to conduct range clearance operations and MOS proficiency training. Marine Corps EOD personnel will accompany supporting personnel at all times while in the ICM contaminated area. h. Entry into high explosive (HE) dud contaminated areas to extinguish fires may be an extremely high-risk operation that requires a thorough risk assessment and approval at the appropriate level of command. i. Digging entrenchments, foxholes, slit trenches, or any other activities that disturbs earth within an impact area is not permitted unless authorized by the installation RCO. Maneuvers within a temporary impact area that include bivouac must prevent disturbing earth by driving poles, pegs, and so forth into the ground, trenching around tents, or any activity that could disturb a dud located just beneath the ground surface. Open fires will not be permitted. j. Unauthorized personnel are prohibited from handling UXO and munitions or removing them from the training complex. Procedures (for example, amnesty boxes) will be established for turn-in of ammunition and explosives items. k. All normal vehicular and foot traffic approaches to ranges and impact areas will be guarded by range guards, properly instructed in their duties, or closed off by appropriate barriers, as determined by the installation RCO. When barriers are used, appropriate signs will be posted. l. Aeronautical charts limit aerial access to ranges within restricted areas.

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22. Posting warning signs, markers, and flags a. Warning signs should comply with Section 200, Part 1926, Title 29, Code of Federal Regulations (29 CFR 1926). Such signage should include a signal word (such as Danger, or Warning), safety symbols that identify the hazard and hazard avoidance (such as a pictogram of an explosion and Do Not Enter symbol), and a text message (such as Explosive Hazard, Keep Out) (refer to American National Standards Institute Z535.2). (Note: New signage, if constructed locally, shall be at least 33 centimeters (cm) by 43.5cm in overall size and of weather-resistant materials.) The sign will state UNEXPLODED ORDNANCE - DO NOT ENTER in two lines of red, sans-serf capital letters in the lower white section of the sign. Lettering will be at least 5cm high and of weather-resistant materials or as dictated by the host nation. Warning signs will be posted around the installation training complex to warn and prohibit entry by unauthorized persons, and to alert authorized personnel entering a hazard area (see fig 21).

Figure 21. Warning sign

b. Signs at entry points to the training complex will prohibit trespassing and removal of items under penalties provided by law. Signs will also emphasize the dangers associated with unlawful entry and handling of dud ammunition. Where appropriate, signs will be in both English and the applicable foreign language. c. Warning signs will be placed to ensure they are visible to individuals attempting to enter training complex livefire areas at any point around its perimeter. They will be placed at 200m intervals or less, if practicable, or in a way that will ensure that a person cannot enter the range without seeing at least one sign within a legible distance. d. Commanders will ensure UXO hazard signs are posted at a minimum of 200m intervals around all UXO locations. e. Warning signs and signals will be used to warn personnel approaching a firing area. Scarlet danger flags supplemented by blinking red lights at night or during reduced visibility will be displayed from a prominent point, normally at the range entrance. f. Signs warning personnel of the danger from projectiles, bombs, lasers, and duds will be posted near the firing area at all times. g. Internal and external limit of fire markers will be placed to denote right and left limits of fire. For the Army, internal and external limit of fire markers will be placed on direct-fire ranges only. See Training Circular 258 for limit-of-fire design requirements. When required, limit-of-fire markers shall be illuminated to ensure proper target area identification at times of limited visibility. Limit-of-fire markers should be thermalized when thermal weapons sights are used. Appropriate hearing protection, eye protection, and laser warning signs will be posted at each range and firing line. h. Individual vehicles, tanks, fighting vehicles, and armored personnel carriers will display flags to show the vehicles weapon status in accordance with the appropriate field manual. The senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) may allow the installation RCO to approve vehicles on a battle run not to display status flags, based on a range control approved risk management plan. 23. Controlling other range usage a. When the installation training complex is authorized for use by non-military organizations such as schools; county, municipal, State, or Federal agencies; organized clubs (including rod and gun clubs) or civic associations, the following requirements apply: (1) The organization or agency will comply with requirements and procedures established by AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C, this pamphlet, and local range regulations and SOPs. (2) Requests for use will be coordinated with the installation RCO, appropriate safety office(s), and the Judge

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Advocate General; and submitted to the senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) for approval. (3) Requests will identify if non-DOD associated minors will be involved in firearms activities. If so, the activity must be an approved course of marksmanship training, unless otherwise approved by the senior commander (Army)/ installation commander (Marine Corps). (4) A written agreement must be completed between the installation and the non-military organization, detailing all rights and responsibilities of each party, liabilities, procedures, and regulatory and procedural requirements. For the Army, this agreement will be incorporated into the report of availability as required by AR 40580. (5) The non-military organization will designate an OIC and RSO. Personnel designated as OICs and RSOs will complete a pistol and rifle course approved by the National Rifle Association, or equivalent (for example, U.S. Pistol Shooters Association). The senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps), based on input from the RCO, garrison safety office, Judge Advocate General, and other staff agencies, as appropriate, will determine the equivalency. For the Marine Corps, OICs and RSOs must complete the Range Safety (Basic) DL Course. (6) The installation RCO will ensure designated OICs and RSOs are briefed on their duties and responsibilities. b. Military family members engaging in authorized marksmanship training or participating in activities involving weapons firing, such as organizational or family days, will comply with this pamphlet, installation range regulations, and SOPs. Requests for these activities will specify if minors will be involved. c. Civilian personnel, such as military family members and local populace, must receive authorization from the installation RCO to enter the training complex to participate in or observe capabilities exercises, fire power demonstrations, training courses, competitions, or other types of firing. Such personnel will remain in designated safe areas as determined by the installation RCO. d. Inspection team members or other official observers required to be on the firing line, firing position, or firing area will position themselves in safe areas as determined by the installation RCO. These personnel must wear appropriate safety equipment as specified by the local range regulations and the installation RCO. e. Civilians, to include family members and DOD civilians, must have approval from the installation RCO to fire weapons within the installation training complex. 24. Coordinating use of special use airspace a. Hazardous activities. Any activity considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft or requiring special use airspace (SUA) to segregate it from other users of the National Airspace System or in the airspace of host countries will not be conducted until appropriate SUA has been designated and activated for that purpose. b. Types of activities that may require special use airspace. Types of activities that may require SUA include, but are not limited to: artillery fire, mortars, missiles and rockets, air-to-ground and ground-to-air weapon systems, aerial target practice, laser operations, demolition and explosive devices, electronic warfare devices, remotely piloted and unmanned aerial vehicles, conducting hazardous activities, small arms ranges and any other activity considered to be hazardous or non-compatible with other users of the airspace. SUA is required to be designated and activated prior to conducting any activity over 45m (150 feet) above ground level (AGL) (to include ricochet ordinates) that would be hazardous to aircraft. When determining requirements for and type of new SUA to support planned training, a risk assessment will be performed that identifies the degree of risk posed by hazards to existing airspace users from planned live-fire events. c. Installation range control officers. The installations RCO shall be involved in all SUA matters. For the Army, SUA will be established and managed in accordance with appropriate Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) regulations and AR 952. The installation Air Traffic and Airspace Officer (AT&A) is the focal point for SUA actions. For additional information and guidance, contact the appropriate ACOM, ASCC, DRU AT&A officer or Department of the Army Regional Representative (DARR). For the Marine Corps, SUA will be established and managed in accordance with appropriate FAA regulations, OPNAVINST 3770.2K, MCO P3550.10, local SOPs, and range control procedures. All formal communications with the FAA must be in accordance with OPNAVINST 3770.2K. d. Types of special use airspace. Types of SUA that may be established include, but are not limited to: (1) Restricted areas. Airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Restricted areas will be designated when determined necessary to confine or segregate activities considered to be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. Examples of those activities include, but are not limited to, artillery, aerial gunnery, or guided missile firing. (2) Warning areas. Airspace of defined dimensions that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such warning areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. (3) Military operations area. Airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of containing certain military training activities that include, but are not limited to, air combat tactics, air intercepts, acrobatics, formation flying, and low-altitude tactics in airspace as free as possible from nonparticipating aircraft. (4) Controlled firing area. A controlled firing area (CFA) is established to contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of a CFA, as

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compared to other SUA, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. Examples of CFAs are small arms or explosive ordnance disposal ranges. e. SUA shall be shown on installation maps and overlays, as appropriate. 25. Small Arms Range Safety Area (Army) For the Army, Small Arms Range Safety Areas (SARSAs) are areas the garrison commander establishes to contain small arms range activities that could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. SARSAs are not SUA. Garrison commanders will ensure that users of Army small arms ranges that are located outside restricted airspace or CFAs follow the SARSA policy and procedures established below: a. The garrison commander or designated representative (normally the installation range manager) will establish or abolish SARSAs at each small arms range not located within SUA as required by this pamphlet to protect aircraft. The data at tables 41 through 418, unless otherwise identified in this pamphlet, will be used as the basic vertical component for each weapon system used on the range and 152 meters (500 feet) will be added to that value and rounded up to the next 152-meter increment of altitude as a safety buffer when determining SARSA altitude boundaries. Data at tables 41 through 418 represent ricochet vertical hazard only (it does not express maximum altitude of a direct fire trajectory). Garrison commanders will take appropriate action to ensure that airspace above and adjacent to small arms ranges is adequately monitored to preclude endangering aircraft operations. Garrison commanders will also consider maximum ordinate and highest altitude of fire where the specific range operations call for it. b. The garrison commander or designated AT&A officer will coordinate with the appropriate senior commanders AT&A officer and Department of the Army regional representative (DARR) for development of SARSA proposals and letters of agreement (LOA) with local air traffic control (ATC) facility personnel to assist in the early detection and notification of approaching aircraft. Garrison commanders will coordinate SARSA proposals through Headquarters, U.S. Army Aeronautical Services Agency for areas not covered by the DARR. SARSA proposal requests will include (1) Activity for which approval is being requested. (2) Specific location and boundaries. (3) Altitudes. (4) Name, address, and phone number of the originator of the request. (5) Proposed times of use. (6) Desired effective date. (7) Proposed safety precautions including visibility requirements, ceiling (cloud height) requirements, safety observers, communication links, and any other factors that enhance range safety. (8) Instructions, if applicable, for the installation range OIC to notify the owner or manager of airports that might be affected by the SARSA. (9) Attachments: risk assessment, map with SDZ and 5 miles buffer depicted and ATC LOA (if applicable). c. Upon receipt of SARSA proposal, the DARR: (1) Reviews the Garrison Commanders proposal to determine if the proposed SARSA presents conflict with the requirements of other airspace users. (2) Encourages the proponent to explore the feasibility of conducting the activity in an existing restricted area where possible. (3) Assists the AT&A officer in coordination with local ATC for LOA (if applicable) and reviews prior to signature. (4) Prior to the establishment of the SARSA, reviews the proposal and informs the garrison commander of any recommendations by formal correspondence for proposal feasibility. d. The following precautionary measures are mandatory requirements for all small arms ranges, as applicable: (1) The ceiling (cloud height) will be at least 305m (1000 ft) above the ricochet height. The garrison commander or their designated representative should also consider highest altitude of fire and maximum ordinate in addition to ricochet height as a part of risk assessment. (2) Visibility will be sufficient to detect nonparticipating aircraft and then establish a cease fire before penetration of the aircraft into the SDZ. (3) The garrison commander may elect, based on risk analysis, to substitute radar surveillance for the ceiling and visibility requirements. This provision is contingent on the adequacy and availability of the radar service and the necessary communication links to the range OIC. e. The garrison commander or designated representative will establish procedures that designate a responsible officer (normally the range OIC) for the surveillance of the airspace in the SARSA. Safety observer(s) and radar should be able to monitor airspace inclusive of a border extending 5 miles from the boundaries of the SDZ of the SARSA. Safety observers will maintain positive, immediate communication with the range OIC or range control at all times. Safety observers will be thoroughly briefed on their duties and responsibilities. Range control must have an adequate plan in place to support the range OIC in this effort.

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f. All firing activities within the SARSA must cease upon notification of impending or actual incursion of the SARSA by nonparticipating aircraft. g. For assistance on SARSA matters, contact: (1) Garrison commanders AT&A officer. (2) Senior commanders AT&A officer. (3) The DAR responsible for your geographic area (see AR 952, for DARR contact information). (4) Headquarters, U.S. Army Aeronautical Services Agency. 26. Coordinating use of navigable waterways a. U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) maintains notices of the restricted danger zones published in Part 334, Title 33, Code of Federal Regulations. USACE is the only entity authorized to waiver water traffic requirements that apply to the live-fire of military munitions over navigable waters, to include inter-coastal waterways. Senior commanders (Army)/installation commanders (Marine Corps) will notify the USACE division or district commanders and the applicable U.S. Coast Guard District Office of (1) Waterway involved. (2) Operations to be conducted. (3) Sector of waterway needed for closure. b. Federal laws that protect water traffic on navigable waterways authorize Secretary of the Army to prescribe regulations for use and navigation of waterways endangered or likely to be endangered by firings and target practice. USACE will publish a notice of the restricted danger zone under 33 CFR 334. c. The senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) will not authorize firing until notice of the restricted danger zone is published in 33 CFR 334 and navigation maps have been revised. Additionally, the senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) will enforce closed waterways by radar and/or surface vessel surveillance. Firing will not commence until the U.S. Coast Guard has marked the restricted danger zone with buoys. d. Military munitions containing phosphorous, including guided missiles or rockets, will not be fired or dropped into any inland waterway, lake, bay, wetlands, or other body of water. e. Firing over navigable waters in overseas areas, to include inter-coastal waterways, will be performed within parameters of Status of Forces Agreements/Visiting Forces Agreements and appropriate host nation requirements. 27. Safety requirements for indoor firing ranges This paragraph provides requirements for the safe operation and maintenance of indoor firing ranges. a. Army. (1) Lead intoxication. (a) Indoor firing ranges must comply with Occupational Safety and Health Administration standards including medical surveillance requirements. Personnel exposures, which are intermittent, will be controlled per the criteria provided in table 21. (b) The criteria in table 21 were developed to control intermittent lead exposure and establish maximum hours of exposure based on the airborne lead concentration and the number of days firing per year. These criteria are to be used as interim control measures only. Maximum effort will be made to reduce the airborne lead levels to 0.03 milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3) or less. (c) Lead exposures for personnel are determined by a sampling strategy that employs general-area and breathingzone samples. Paragraph 27a(2) contains guidance for air sampling. Once an airborne lead concentration is determined, table 21 is used to set maximum allowable hours of exposure for each category of range user. Other potential lead exposures, including off-duty firing, may contribute to an individuals overall exposure and should be considered in establishing maximum allowable exposure time. (d) Medical surveillance is not required for intermittent users if the maximum allowable exposure hours from table 21 are enforced. (2) Air sampling. (a) Collect all lead samples on cellulose ester filters meeting the following specifications: pore size of 0.8 microns, 37 millimeters (mm) in diameter, three-piece preloaded cassette, and closed face. Sampling rate should be 1 to 4 liters per minute for a minimum volume of 500 liters. (b) Sample on the firing line, 3m behind the firing line, and in adjacent areas (such as range office, supply room, or hallways). In small ranges (fewer than six firing positions), samples should be taken at each firing position on and off line. In larger ranges (six or more firing positions), breathing-zone and general-area samples should be taken in every other firing position and off line. Permanently assigned range personnel may be evaluated using data obtained from general-area and breathing-zone samples, if applicable. Take at least one air sample for lead in an area adjacent to the range defined above during each monitoring period. The sample should indicate whether or not lead contamination is confined to the range.

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(c) The following actions are critical to proper range evaluation: 1. Sample during periods of maximum use. 2. If firing is over an extended period of time, allow time for possible buildup of airborne concentrations before sampling. 3. Sample during the use of higher-caliber ammunition if more than one type of ammunition is used. (d) Calibrate all pumps before and after use by a method traceable to a primary standard (for example, bubble and burette). (3) Ventilation. (a) Contaminations occur as byproducts of firing (that is, lead, carbon monoxide, and aldehydes) and must be removed from the range through an adequate ventilation system. The maximum concentration of lead acceptable for an 8hour daily exposure (time-weighted average) is 0.05mg/m3. A ventilation system designed to provide this protection is sufficient to remove other byproducts of firing. (b) Optimum ventilation systems should intake make-up air behind the firing line and expel exhausted air at the target line or bullet trap. (c) Downrange air velocity can be measured or approximated by using a 30second smoke candle and stop watch. Ignite the smoke candle behind the firing line and time the smoke from the moment the first plume crosses the firing line until it reaches the bullet trap. Calculate the air velocity in meters per second (m/s) by dividing the range distance or length (from firing line to bullet trap) (D) by time (T), or D/T=m/s. A minimum of 0.18 m/s is required. This is equal to 0.017 cubic meters per second per square meter of cross-sectional area. During the smoke evaluation, observe the range for any dead spots (swirling of smoke up-range) or other turbulent airflow motions that may allow for increased exposure at or behind the firing line. (4) Army requirements for inspection of indoor firing ranges. Indoor firing ranges require periodic inspections to ensure compliance with current health and safety standards. The types of periodic inspections are initial, detailed, and annual. (a) Initial inspections are one-time inspections made by qualified and competent safety or engineer personnel. The purpose of the initial inspection is to classify the authorized level of use of the indoor range. Based on the findings of the initial inspection, indoor ranges will be classified as safe, limited, or unsafe. DA Form 5687 (Initial Inspection Checklist for Indoor Ranges) (prescribed for Army use only) will be used to record the initial inspection. A copy of the initial inspection will be maintained at the range and available for review. 1. An indoor range classified as safe permits authorized firing for military and civilian use. 2. An indoor range classified as limited permits only limited use under controlled conditions. The personnel exposure limits for intermittent atmospheric lead exposure will be used for limited operation of the indoor range. 3. An indoor range classified as unsafe is not authorized for use under any conditions. (b) Detailed inspections will be made by the support installation team composed of safety, facility engineer, and medical department activity representatives. Detailed inspections are in addition to the initial inspection. DA Form 5688 (Detailed Inspection Checklist for Indoor Ranges) (prescribed for Army use only) will be used as a minimum for conducting the inspection. Findings from the detailed inspection will determine complete range retrofit requirements. For new facilities, a detailed inspection will be made within 120 days of the initial inspection. (c) Annual inspections will be made by safety specialist (0018 series) or safety engineer (0803 series) personnel to ensure safety standards and procedures are maintained in the operation of the range. The annual inspection will be made within 45 days of the anniversary date of the last annual inspection. (5) Disposition of Army inspection and evaluation results. (a) Inspection and evaluation results will be provided to the next higher headquarters for action as appropriate. Supporting installation safety managers will maintain an information copy. (b) The supporting facility coordinator will maintain a record of each inspection. Subsequent inspections will be made as a follow-up check against previous inspection results to assure required corrective action(s) noted has/have been accomplished and that there are not adverse changes to the building envelope, environmental conditions, and/or safe operating procedures. (6) U.S. Army ACOMs ASCCs, and DRUs may address inquiries pertaining to indoor range safety to CG, TRADOC, TCML (ATICTCT), Fort Eustis, VA 23602. (7) Inquiries pertaining to ventilation, air sampling and other industrial hygiene issues should be directed to Commander, U.S. Army Public Health Command, MCHBIPOFS, 5158 Blackhawk Road, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 210105403. b. Marine Corps. (1) Indoor firing ranges will comply with the information listed within MILHDBK 1027/3B and NEHCTM 6290. 9910. (2) Marine Corps inquiries regarding indoor firing ranges will be directed to CG, MCCDC, Range and Training Area Management Division (C465), 2079 Barnett Avenue, Quantico, VA 221345001. (3) Indoor firing ranges will be certified and recertified per MCO 3550.9.

0.000 to 0.029 0.030 to 0.039 0.040 to 0.049

8 8 8

4 3 2

Notes: 1 These values are the actual concentrations measured over the sampling period and are not 8-hour, time-weighted averages.

28. Recreational ranges a. Procedures in this pamphlet apply to recreational ranges located on Government property. Recreational activity on ranges must be approved by the installation commander on a case by case basis. Formal MOAs must be established with approved organizations participating in recreational range activity. MOAs at a minimum must address the following: (1) Liability for both safety and environmental National Environment Protection Action (NEPA) compliance. (2) Emergency response requirements and responsibilities. (3) Responsibilities for maintenance and best management practices of the range. (4) Operating cost and consumables. b. Archery target ranges will follow range designs included in the Army Corps of Engineers Drawings (Planning and Design of Outdoor Sports Facilities) file number 7509001. Other designs including 3-dimensional archery ranges or field ranges simulating hunting scenarios must have a positive backstop. Additional guidance is available from the National Field Archery Association. c. Shotgun (Skeet/Trap) ranges will follow range designs included in the Army Corps of Engineers Drawings (Planning and Design of Outdoor Sports Facilities) file number 7509001. The shotfall danger zone will be a minimum of 275m (300 yards) as per 7509001 and the ranges must be limited to shot sizes 7.5, 8, 8.5, and 9 lead shot. Additional guidance is available from the National Skeet Shooting Association, and the National Sporting Clays Association. Military training used for shotgun firing (not on a recreational skeet/trap range) will be in accordance with SDZ requirements in chapter 4. Marine Corps shotgun ranges will be certified in accordance with MCO 3550.9. 29. Ammunition and explosive items on ranges Procedures for transporting, storage, handling, and security of ammunition and explosives items are contained in DA Pam 38564 or NAVSEA OP5 or in applicable field manuals (FMs) or technical manuals (TMs). In addition, the following instructions, with relevant references, pertain to operational ranges: a. Positioning and issuing of ammunition and explosives. Positioning and issuing of ammunition and explosives, to include quantity-distance determinations, will be in accordance with DA Pam 38564 or NAVSEA OP5 Volume 1. The RMTK may be used to plan for positioning and issuing of ammunition and explosives on operational ranges. (1) Operational ranges require ammunition and explosives at various locations that are temporary or transient by nature. These locations do not require approval by the DDESB if ammunition and explosives are in total support of aDA PAM 38563 30 January 2012 9

training mission. However, permanent structures on ranges used for the handling and storage of ammunition and explosives must be sited and approved by the DDESB. (2) Distribution of ammunition to personnel will occur only in areas designated for that purpose, for example, ready lines, firing lines, attack positions, assembly areas, or defilade positions. Blank and live-fire ammunition will not be stored in or issued from the same location at the same time. (a) Fuel storage areas will be located at separation distances from ammunition storage areas based on the amount of fuel. 1. Fuel quantities up to 500 gallons will be separated from each potential explosion site by at least 50 ft. 2. Fuel quantities between 500 to 5,000 gallons will be separated from each potential explosion site by at least 100 ft. U.S. Army ACOMs ASCCs, and DRUs may address inquiries pertaining to indoor range safety to CG, TRADOC, TCML (ATICTCT), Fort Eustis, VA 23602 3. For fuel quantities greater than 5,000 gallons, refer to DA Pam 38564 (Army) or NAVSEA OP5 (Marine Corps). (b) Forward arming and refueling point operations, and separation distances for fuel, ready ammunition storage areas, and basic load storage areas will be in accordance with FM 304.111, FM 10671, and NAVAIR 0080T109. 1. The quantity of ammunition unpacked for training will be kept to the minimum number of rounds needed for efficient firing of the exercise. Packaging material, propelling increments and fuzes will be retained until firing is complete. Units will not burn wooden containers or indiscriminately fire or dispose of ammunition to preclude its return to a storage facility. (Exception: GTR18 Smokey Sam rockets are issued by the case with a quantity of 12 rockets and 12 igniter rods. Planning use of these pyrotechnics requires careful consideration of the effects of moisture on unpacked items. All unpacked rockets must be expended and only full, unbroken cases returned to the ammunition supply point (ASP).) Broken and/or unserviceable increments (powder bags) will be handled in accordance with installation range SOPs. 2. Guided missiles, rockets and components, such as fuels, propellants, oxidizers, and explosives in ready storage or at the firing location will be positioned to minimize the possibility of ignition or detonation by motor exhaust or by an accident involving the firing of a missile or rocket. Items will be stored in dry locations, protected from direct rays of the sun, and adequately ventilated. Marine Corps Smokey Sams, Smokey Guns, and pyrotechnics will be stored as outlined in appropriate Marine Corps TMs, or Commander, Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR) technical publications. 3. During pre-fire preparation, guided missiles, rockets, and components will be handled and assembled in a manner consistent with this pamphlet, local range SOPs, and appropriate FMs and TMs. Any alteration to guided missiles or rockets and their associated equipment is prohibited except as authorized by official publications or by CG, Army Materiel Command (AMC). 4. All ammunition, unpacked for firing but not fired, will be repackaged into its original packing configuration prior to return to the ASP. Ammunition that is easily degraded by short-term exposure to moisture, such as propelling charges, pyrotechnic signals, and simulators, will be unpacked only for the minimum amount of time consistent with mission requirements. (c) Requests for current status of ammunition not listed in Naval Supply Systems Command (NAVSUP) P801 will be sent to Navy Operational Logistics Support Center (NOLSC) Mechanicsburg, PA, DSN 4302107/Comm (717) 6052107 (Marine Corps). (d) Defective ammunition will be reported in accordance with MCO 8025.1 (Marine Corps). b. Suspension/disposition of ammunition and explosives involved in malfunctions and accidents. The suspension/ disposition of ammunition and explosives involved in malfunctions and accidents will be in accordance with AR 751, DA Pam 38540, and MCOs 8025.1D and P5102.1B. Firing suspensions are published in TB 91300385, NAVSUP P801, and appropriate TMs. (1) Any ammunition suspended and listed in TB 91300385 or NAVSUP P801 and supplements will not be fired in training. (2) Firing of restricted ammunition listed in TB91300385 or NAVSUP P801 and supplements will be conducted in accordance with the restriction requirements. (3) Ammunition determined to be defective will not be fired. Defective ammunition will be reported to the installation Quality Assurance Specialist, Ammunition Surveillance office or the explosives safety office via the RCO. Examples of defects include, but are not limited to: (a) Fuzes or fuzed rounds that are inadequately tightened, insecurely staked, or missing safety devices. (b) Safe and arming mechanisms, if so equipped, in an armed position. (c) Ammunition showing deterioration or corrosion. (d) Ammunition showing evidence of defects in material or assembly. (e) Ammunition and unopened ammunition packaging which shows evidence of tampering. It will not be issued until cleared by competent explosives safety authority. c. Unexploded ordnance and misfire procedures and reporting.

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(1) The range OIC will report all UXO to the installation RCO. In the case of grenades or other munitions that may be immediately hazardous to personnel (for example, bursting radius), firing will be halted until qualified EOD personnel clear the dud. In other cases, firing need not be halted. Duds not cleared by EOD personnel before the unit departs the training complex will be reported in writing to the installation RCO for determination of clearance scope. (2) Misfire procedures in training manuals/current operating manuals for the appropriate weapon system will be followed. In the event misfires present an immediate hazard to personnel or a cease-fire is necessary, they will be reported to range control. (3) Ammunition malfunctions or defects will be reported in accordance with appendix A of AR 751 (Army) or MCO 8025.1D (Marine Corps). (4) Range clearance and destruction of UXO on operational ranges will be in accordance with DODI 3200.16 and approved Service procedures. d. Blank ammunition. The following precautions will be observed during the use of blank ammunition: (1) The blank firing attachment (BFA) is a necessary component for operational safety. Weapon systems for which approved BFAs are manufactured will not be fired without the proper BFA. The distance at which weapons can be safely fired at unprotected troops without causing injury is somewhat reduced with the BFA. However, 5m safe separation distance will not be reduced. This distance, with a dispersion angle of 10 degrees left and right of the GTL, does not exclude possible injury to the unprotected eye. Hearing protection (ear plugs) should be worn while firing blank ammunition. (2) Army combat uniform and Marine Corps combat utility uniforms offer skin protection and should be worn at all times. Eye protection should be used. (3) A violation of the safe separation distance could result in serious injury, and within 1 meter may cause fatal injuries. 210. Range personal protective equipment requirements a. Training casualties on operational ranges must be minimized through the use of appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE). This pamphlet provides recommendations as to the level of PPE to be used with specific weapon systems. These PPE levels are found in table 22. Ultimately, the commander must decide the appropriate level of PPE based on thorough risk assessment. b. All personnel within the hearing hazard zone will wear approved hearing protection. The size of the hazard zone varies with the weapon. For mixed-use ranges, it is usually convenient to establish the zone based on the loudest weapon used. For administrative convenience, the size of the hearing protection zones can be increased to encompass areas within convenient access or demarcation points. For the Army, the senior commander may, based on risk management, mitigate risk of noise hazard to the lowest possible level consistent with mission accomplishment. The Marine Corps requires that all personnel exposed to gunfire or artillery or missile firing, under any circumstances, will wear hearing protective devices. The following list of distances to the hazard contours for common military weapons is conservative: (1) 0.50 caliber: 55m to the side; 12m to the rear. (2) 0.45 caliber: 12m to the side; 4.5m to the rear. (3) 9mm: 9m to the side; 6m to the rear. (4) 7.62mm: 20m to the side; 8m to the rear. (5) 5.56mm: 24m to the side; 6m to the rear. c. Approved eye protection (or eye armor) is encouraged, especially during force-on-force training maneuvers or scenarios by personnel undergoing training, as well as those in close proximity (for example, evaluators, observers, and very important persons). Based on risk assessment, the senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) may reduce or eliminate requirement for eye protection, if the decision is made that reduced vision created by use of eye protection outweighs its value. For the Army, to prevent serious eye injury the only approved eye protection for use with close combat mission capability kit (CCMCK) is the standard-issue Sun, Wind and Dust Goggles (NSN 8465013288268), which must be worn until all training has ceased.

211. Army requirements for areas known to contain improved conventional munitions and submunitions This section prescribes Army controls to address hazards associated with maintenance, characterization, clearance, or removal actions at ranges and other areas known to contain ICMs and sub-munitions. a. Applicability. (1) Activities that involve ICM or sub-munitions undertaken by active Army, Army National Guard, U.S. Army Reserve personnel, Army civilian employees, Army contractors, and other DOD components. (2) Operational and former ranges and other areas owned or controlled by the U.S. Army, both in the United States and overseas. (3) Activities conducted by other Services on Army-owned or Army-controlled property. (4) Does not apply to the following: (a) Research, development, test or evaluation. (b) Acceptance or proof testing. (c) Practice sub-munitions. (d) World War 2era bomblets (for example, M83 butterfly bombs, and M54 series incendiary bomblets). b. Functions. (1) The Director of Army Safety, Office of Chief of Staff, in coordination with the Office of the Deputy Chief of Staff (ODCS), G3/5/7 (DAMOTRS), ODCS, G4 (DALOSUM) and Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Army for Environment, Safety and Occupational Health (DASAESOH) provide safety oversight and risk assessment criteria for range clearance activities (for example, target maintenance, environmental sampling, and clearance) that may involve ICM or sub-munitions. (2) The Judge Advocate General is responsible for providing advice on applicable statutory and regulatory requirements affecting activities that involve ICM- and sub-munitions. (3) The U.S. Army Technical Center for Explosives Safety (USATCES) (a) Provides, upon request, comments on requests for Certificates of Risk Acceptance for range clearance activities for areas known or suspected to contain ICMs and sub-munitions. (b) Maintains an inventory of Army operational and former ranges and other properties where ICMs and submunitions are known or suspected to be present. (4) Commanders will (a) Ensure that ODCS, G3/5/7 (DAMOTRS), Director of Army Safety (DACSSF), ODCS, G4 (DALOAMA), and USATCES (JMACESM) are informed of any ranges or other areas known to contain ICMs or sub-munitions. (b) Ensure ranges or other areas known to contain ICMs or sub-munitions are clearly marked and entry to these areas is restricted, with access controlled. (c) Prohibit range clearance activities on operational ranges and removal actions on former ranges or other areas known or suspected to contain ICMs or sub-munitions, unless a Certificate of Risk Acceptance is submitted and approved per DA Pam 38530. (d) Have authority to approve Certificates of Risk Acceptance per DA Pam 38530. c. Mandatory requirements. Mandatory requirements for ranges and other areas known or suspected to contain ICM and sub-munitions. (1) Ranges or other areas known or suspected to contain ICMs or sub-munitions will be clearly marked, both physically and on the installations master plans, to identify the hazard. Entry to such areas is prohibited with any authorized access to be strictly controlled. (2) Before access is granted to an operational ranges impact area, the installation RCO will determine whether ICM or sub-munitions are known or suspected to be present. The RCO, in coordination with installation safety and EOD representatives, will determine if it is safe to authorize access and establish prerequisite precautions. Personnel

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authorized access to areas known or suspected to contain ICMs or sub-munitions will be fully advised of the potential dangers and safeguards to be followed, and escorted by EOD or UXO-qualified personnel. (3) If an ICM or sub-munition is found on a range that is not known to contain ICM or sub-munitions, use of the range will be suspended until the installation range control conducts the procedures in paragraph 211c. The expeditious destruction of any ICM or sub-munition(s) encountered is authorized. (4) Range control or safety personnel will ensure that previously unreported areas known or suspected to contain ICM or sub-munitions are reported immediately through command channels to the ODCS, G3/5/7 (DAMOTR), Director of Army Safety (DACSSF), ODCS, G4 (DALOAMA), and USATCES (JMACESM). At a minimum, the report will include the location, the type of ICM or sub-munition, the boundaries (by coordinates) of the area, the suspected source (for example, weapon system and event in which the ICM or sub-munitions were most likely used), the date of discovery, a point of contact, and, if available, digital pictures of the discovered item. The location should be marked on the installation master plan and local supporting EOD units should be notified. d. Certificate of Risk Acceptance. (1) A Certificate of Risk Acceptance is required prior to the conduct of clearance activities or a removal action in an area where ICMs or sub-munitions are known or suspected to be present. (2) A Certificate of Risk Acceptance will be developed and approved per DA Pam 38530. (3) Copies of approved Certificates of Risk Acceptance will be electronically forwarded to: OCSs Director of Army Safety (DACSSF), with copies furnished to ODCSs Director of Training G3/5/7 (DAMOTR), (DASA ESOH)s Assistant for Munitions and Chemical Matters), ODCSs G4 (DALOAMA), and USATCES (JMACESM). (4) An amended Certificate of Risk Acceptance will be submitted for any condition that increases the level of explosive safety risk. e. Hazard control requirements. (1) Operations will be conducted in a manner that exposes the minimum number of people to the smallest quantity of explosives for the shortest period of time. (2) All work activities will be coordinated with and have the approval of all appropriate levels of command and all organizations or Services involved. (3) All work activities will be conducted per controls outlined in approved planning documents (for example, work plans, explosives safety risk assessments, hazard analyses, and site safety and health plans). (4) Only EOD or UXO-qualified personnel may conduct clearance or removal actions in areas known or suspected to contain ICMs or sub-munitions. Qualifications for UXO personnel are in DDESB Technical Paper 18. (5) ICMs and/or sub-munitions encountered will be blown in place, whenever possible. Prior to destruction, all personnel will be removed beyond the specified safe separation distance. (6) Should an explosive-related incident involving injury to personnel occur: (a) It will be reported per AR 38510. (b) All activities will be stopped until a review and validation of procedures has been completed and approved by the commander with responsibility for the activities.

Chapter 3 Danger Zones

31. General a. Every weapon system and the ammunition/ordnance related to that weapon system requires a danger zone. The danger zones in this pamphlet represent minimum safety requirements; they are adequate only when employed with properly functioning safety equipment and devices, and when trained and competent personnel follow published firing procedures. They are three-dimensional areas derived from computer modeling and/or laboratory data. Danger zone size and shape are dependent on the performance characteristics of the weapon system, ammunition, training requirements, geographical location, and environmental conditions. They should not account for human error. b. Danger zones can be constructed manually or by using geo-spatial data and the RMTK in either a desktop or web-based environment. The RMTK can be downloaded (desktop) and/or accessed (Web-based) at https://srp.army.mil or https://rtam.tecom.usmc.mil. 32. Types of danger zones There are three types of danger zones: a. Laser surface danger zone (air-to-ground; ground-to-ground). An laser surface danger zone consists of the target area in addition to horizontal and vertical buffer zones. It reflects the minimum land and air requirement, to include terrain mitigation, needed to safely employ a given laser. The laser surface danger zone accounts for direct hazards (main beam) and indirect hazards (reflections). The boundaries of the laser surface danger zone depend on which of the

DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

13

two overlapping zones, direct or indirect, are larger. If there are no specular reflectors on the range and the laser does not present a diffuse reflection hazard, there will not be an indirect hazard zone. Laser surface danger zones must accommodate stationary firing points (fixed positions) as well as mobile firing positions, in addition to fixed and moving targets. Figure 31 contains the basic elements of a laser surface danger zone.

Figure 31. Basic elements of a laser surface danger zone

b. Surface danger zone (ground-to-ground). An SDZ delineates that portion of the earth and the air above in which personnel and/or equipment may be endangered by ground weapons firing or demolition activities. These SDZs are designed to make the probability of hazardous fragment escapement from installation boundaries unlikely and minimize the danger to the public, installation personnel, facilities/equipment, or property. Two basic SDZs are the cone or ice cream cone and the batwing. The batwing SDZ provides for greater containment of ricochets. Figures 32 and 33 contain cone and batwing SDZs for small arms direct-fire weapons without explosive projectiles. Figures 34 and 35 are cone and batwing SDZs for small arms direct-fire weapons with explosive projectiles. Figures 36 and 37 are SDZs for mortars and field artillery cannon in the indirect fire mode. Certain weapons, for example, tube-launched, optically-tracked, wire-guided (TOW) and FGM148 Javelin missiles, have unique SDZs. They will be addressed in the appropriate chapter.

DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

(2) Movement box. A movement box is designed to accommodate movement to an objective. Shooters move within the designated box and may engage multiple targets or moving targets down range. Movement boxes for live-fire maneuver/movement exercises will use the batwing SDZ. Figure 312 contains a movement box with the batwing SDZ. Target engagement scenarios must ensure fires remain within the established SDZ.

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(3) Composite danger zones. (a) CALFEXs (Army) and CAXs (Marine Corps) involve combined arms teams conducting coordinated fire and maneuver training in executing the assault, seizure, and defense of appropriate objectives. Tactical air support may be included with appropriate weapon danger zones. Combining multiple danger zones for a CALFEX/CAX scenario is the definitive application of danger zones. Regardless of the number and types of danger zones a CALFEX/CAX requires, a systematic approach will result in successful definition of each laser surface danger zone/SDZ/weapon danger zone and allow training to be safely accomplished. (b) Danger zones of multiple weapon systems in a CALFEX/CAX scenario result in a composite laser surface danger zone/SDZ/weapon danger zone. The composite laser surface danger zone/SDZ/weapon danger zone identifies total real estate requirements at a given sequence (or phase) of the exercise. Numerous sequenced or time-phased composite danger zones may exist depending on the complexity of a particular CALFEX/CAX. Figure 313 is a composite SDZ.

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Figure 313. Composite surface danger zone

c. Weapons danger zone (air-to-ground). A weapon danger zone encompasses the ground and airspace for lateral and vertical containment of projectiles, fragments, debris, and components resulting from the firing, launching, and detonation of aviation-delivered ordnance. It reflects the minimum land and air requirement, to include terrain mitigation, needed to safely employ a given weapon. The weapon danger zone accounts for inaccuracy, failures, ricochets, and broaching/porpoising of a specific weapon/munition type delivered by a specific aircraft type. The weapon danger zone footprint is based on weapon characteristics, type of delivery being executed, platform (aircraft) delivering the ordnance, target and soil characteristics, terrain, and level of containment acceptable to the senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps). Figure 314 depicts the basic elements of a weapon danger zone.

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Figure 314. Basic weapon danger zone profile

33. Authorization for personnel within danger zones a. The following personnel are authorized to be within a danger zone, subject to the restrictions in the applicable sections of this pamphlet and application of the risk management process by the senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps): (1) Crews directly involved in the firing of a weapon system or munition. (2) Tactical air control party or joint terminal attack controllers (JTACs) controlling aviation ordnance deliveries. (3) Cannon launched guided projectile (Copperhead) fire support team (FIST) personnel located in the mission essential area (MEA). FIST personnel will only be allowed within the SDZ when the Copperhead is not fired in the ballistic mode. (4) Aircrew operating within danger zones as part of an exercise. (5) During indirect field artillery firing personnel may be in Areas A through E subject to the restrictions in chapter 10. (6) Designator operators (laser) during AGM114 HELLFIRE antitank guided missile operations. (7) Personnel down range when approved overhead small arms ammunition is fired.

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(8) Personnel wearing approved laser eye protection within the laser surface danger zone. (9) Personnel down range when supporting training on known distance firing ranges, when protection is provided. b. Authorization of any other personnel within danger zones requires deviation approval per AR 38563/MCO 3570. 1C and paragraph 14 of this pamphlet.

Chapter 4 Small Arms

41. Firing conditions a. For the purpose of this pamphlet, small arms are man-portable, individual and crew-served weapon systems of 30mm or less used primarily against personnel and lightly armored or unarmored equipment. Small arms SDZ diagrams and tables provided in this chapter are the standard for the proper construction of small arms direct fire SDZs with or without exploding projectiles. b. The cone SDZ may be applied when designing or conducting training on static/known distance style ranges that do not involve fire and movement or fire and maneuver. Figure 41 is a cone SDZ for firing small arms direct-fire weapons without exploding projectiles. Figure 42 is a cone SDZ for firing small arms direct-fire weapons with exploding projectiles. c. The batwing SDZ provides for greater containment of all ricochets. It will be applied when designing or conducting training on ranges that involve fire and movement, fire and maneuver, flanking fire, and/or when ricochet hazards outside the range boundary may endanger nonparticipating personnel. Figure 43 is a batwing SDZ for firing small arms direct-fire weapons without exploding projectiles. Figure 44 is a batwing SDZ for firing small arms directfire weapons with exploding projectiles. d. When firing small arms with or without exploding projectiles on small arms ranges with known distance and unknown distances involving hand-held and shoulder-fired weapons or weapons firing from ground or vehicle-mounted platforms, the standard 5 degree dispersion area for the SDZ may be reduced to 2 degrees when: (1) Conducting static (non-fire and movement/maneuver) training on known distance and unknown distance small arms ranges with hand-held or shoulder-fired weapons when firing from fixed or stationary positions. (2) Training on ranges involving personnel conducting precision fires from stationary positions. (3) Ground-mounted weapons conducting static (non-fire and movement/maneuver) training on known distance and unknown distance small arms ranges that are mounted on appropriate tripods. The traversing and elevation mechanism for that weapon system will be used for all fires. (4) Vehicle-mounted weapons conducting static (non-fire and movement/maneuver) training on known distance and unknown distance small arms ranges are mounted on appropriate vehicle mounts. The traversing and elevation mechanism for that weapon system will be used and locked in place for all fires. (5) Risk management process documentation for the unit conducting training has been approved by the installation RCO or other appropriate approving authority. Training events in which the SDZ dispersion area has been reduced from 5 to 2 degrees will be specifically addressed in the risk management worksheet. 42. Surface danger zones a. Surface danger zone data for small arms is found in tables 41 through 418.

DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

d. When firing the 12gauge shotgun with 712, 8 and 9 shot, use the SDZ shotfall data provided in figure 47. All 12gauge buckshot, slug, or other shot larger than 712 shot will use data provided in figures 41 and 43, and table 41.

Legend for Table 4-4: NR=Not required Notes: 1 SDZ data for Special Effects Small Arms Marking System (SESAMS) and CCMCK ammunition is located in chapter 14 of this publication. 2 Area A applies to cone SDZ only.

Earth Armor Earth Armor

4,234 4,234 4,369 4,369

3,700 3,650 3,800 3,750

470 440 490 450

100 100 100 100

NR NR NR NR

60 45 60 45

15 14 15 14

1,208 1,208 1,239 1,239

354 324 365 333

Legend for Table 4-8: NR=Not required Notes: 1 Distance X must increase by 29 meters m/sec or 15 meters/knot of tail wind, measured along the line of fire. 2 Area A applies to cone SDZ only. 3 Ricochet Angle P is measured from the dispersion angle. To correct for cross-range winds, the dispersion angle must increase by 0.4 degrees per meter/ second or 0.2 degrees/knot of cross wind, measured perpendicular to the line of fire.

Notes: 1 Single hearing protection should be worn by all personnel within 34 meters when MK248 MOD 0 ammunition is being fired. 2 Distance X must increase by 25 meters m/sec or 13 meters/knot of tail wind, measured along the line of fire. 3 Area A applies to cone SDZ only. 4 Dispersion angle of 5 degrees must increase by 0.24 degree per meter/second or 0.12 degree per knot of cross wind, measured perpendicular to the line of fire.

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Chapter 5 Grenades and Grenade Launchers

51. Hand grenades a. High explosive loaded type grenades. These contain explosive charges that detonate after a short delay (3 to 5 seconds). Every precaution will be taken to prevent injury from blast, concussion, and fragment. For training purposes, fragmentation and offensive hand grenades will be thrown from a trench or barrier equivalent to a screen of sandbags 0.5m (1.65 ft) thick. When throwing bays are used for protection, they will be built to a minimum height of 1.5m (5ft) high and 2.7m (8.8 ft) wide or enough to accommodate one thrower and one assistant range safety officer (ARSO). Bay height may be reduced to less than 1.5m if approved by the installation commander. However, it must provide positive protection against high-velocity, low-angle fragments. (See FM 323.30 and TC 258 for other dimensions and additional information.) Throwing bays will be separated from adjacent bays by a distance of 20m; if this requirement cannot be met, then throwing bays may be separated from one another by physical barriers (earthen berms, concrete walls, or wooden revetments) long and high enough to attenuate high-velocity, low-angle fragments. It is recommended that all throwing pits for live grenade training have knee walls at the rear of the bay. Knee walls provide the quickest and safest means of reacting to a dropped grenade. Knee walls should be 0.6m (2 ft) high. b. Firing conditions for fragmentation and offensive grenades. (1) Personnel within the 150m danger area when casualty-producing hand grenades are thrown shall wear, at a minimum, PPE Level 1(Marine Corps), protective helmet and body armor (Army), and eye protection is encouraged. Refer to table 22. Approved single hearing protection is required for all participating personnel when throwing bays are used. Approved single hearing protection is recommended for all personnel participating in tactical exercises. (2) Safety clips on fragmentation and practice grenades will not be removed until immediately before the safety pin is removed. Once the safety pin has been pulled, the grenade will be thrown. No attempt will be made to reinsert the safety pin or tape the safety lever (spoon). The safety lever will not be released for any reason on HE grenades until the grenade exits the throwing hand. (3) All personnel must be proficient in the safety precautions for handling and throwing grenades before live grenade training begins. Successful completion of practice grenade training (usually referred to as mock-bay, these pits will replicate the physical layout of live-bay pits) is mandatory prior to live grenade training. (4) OICs, RSOs, and live-bay ARSOs for live grenade training events must be certified to perform these duties. Certification will include training detailing actions in the event of a dropped grenade, short throw, grenade thrown other than downrange, SDZ, control of observers, misfire/dud grenade procedures, arming, throwing techniques, and pre-live bay requirements. Marine Corps battalion/squadron commanders are responsible for establishing and maintaining a certification program for their OICs and RSOs commensurate to the assigned duties and responsibilities. RSOs and ARSOs must be qualified with the hand grenade prior to assuming their duties. (5) HE grenades that fail to function (dud) will not be approached except by EOD personnel. During training, if a grenade fails to explode, the throwing of live grenades in any bay within the uninterrupted fragmentation radius of the dud grenade will cease. Dud grenades will be destroyed by EOD personnel only. Unauthorized personnel will not approach, move, touch, or handle dud grenades. All duds will be reported by the OIC to the range control office. (6) During demonstrations, fragmentation and blast/concussion type grenades will be thrown from a barricaded position so grenades burst at least 150m from unprotected personnel (see fig 51). (7) When direct viewing of hand grenade detonations within the 150m danger area is required the following information is provided: (a) Viewing positions will be constructed so as to provide positive protection from high-velocity, low-angle fragments and low-velocity high-angle fragments. (b) Composite (laminated) viewing ports will be constructed using the following criteria or equivalent: 1. 10mm (.40 in) glass (outside) 2. 7mm (.28 in) polycarbonate 3. 6mm (.24 in) glass 4. 6mm (.24 in) polycarbonate 5. 6mm (.24 in) glass 6. 6mm (.24 in) polycarbonate (c) Alternatives: 1. Provide a single pane of UL 752 Level 1-, Level 2-, or Level 3-rated bullet-resisting laminated glass glazing (with a minimum total thickness of at least 13/16 inches). Also, as an alternative, two panes of other UL 752 Level 1-, Level 2-, or Level 3-rated bullet-resisting glazing types may be used provided each pane contains a minimum of 30 percent glass by thickness. In cases where the protected side of the glazing is made of a glass layer, the interior surface should have a spall shield/film applied to that surface by the manufacturer. 2. These criteria provide minimum essential one-time protection against worst case fragmentation detonated within 6m of the viewing port. Additionally, 12.7mm (.50 in) or equivalent exterior polycarbonate protective sheet (scar

DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

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shield) should be installed in front of the viewing port. The shield absorbs the majority of damage and is more easily replaced than the entire viewing port. (8) Live grenades will not be thrown into standing water, deep snow, or dense vegetation which would obscure the grenade (for example, deeper than 5cm (2 in)). (9) When training with live grenades in a tire house, trench line, or like environment and a dud grenade is experienced, all activities within the structure or danger area will stop. Personnel will remain within a safe area for a minimum of 5 minutes and then evacuate the structure or area until EOD clears the dud. (10) Range cadre and commanders are cautioned that multiple employment of grenades in a training scenario significantly increases the difficulty of determining the actual number of grenades that detonated. Dud grenades may be activated by subsequent training, generating an unplanned detonation. (11) Simultaneous employment of multiple fragmentation grenades into a single impact point is prohibited, as a live grenade could be propelled into the safe area by the detonation of another grenade (Marine Corps). (12) The use of hand grenades during live-fire exercises shall conform to the provisions provided by chapter 17. c. Firing conditions for chemical and incendiary hand grenades. (1) Chemical grenades will not be held in the hand after the safety lever is released. The incendiary hand grenade may be taped or tied in place if the incendiary effect is desired at a specified location. In this case, safety pins will not be pulled from the grenade until the desired time of functioning. Remote safety pin removal is preferred. (2) Burning type grenades (riot control, smoke, illumination, and incendiary) are ignited by pulling the safety pin and releasing the safety lever. After the safety pin has been pulled, the safety lever will not be released until the grenade exits the throwing hand. Once the safety lever is released, there is no way to stop the grenade from functioning. When the burning type grenade is fired in place, the firer will keep their face turned away from the grenade. After releasing the safety lever, the firer will quickly move at least 10m away to avoid contact with incendiary particles and fumes emitted during burning. (3) Personnel will be instructed on the proper method of holding the M25 bursting type, riot control grenade before commencing training exercises. The arming sleeve will remain depressed until the grenade is thrown. M25 grenades will not be thrown closer than 25m to unprotected personnel. (4) Burning type grenades burn oxygen. Standard protective masks filter particles but will not supply oxygen. Therefore, burning grenades shall not be used in enclosed or confined spaces (such as occupied tunnels) or in other confined spaces into which personnel will enter until those spaces are ventilated. Specific fuze burning delay times and functioning characteristics are in TM 9133020012 and TM 43000129. (5) Burning type 0-chlorobenzyl denemalononitrite (CS) grenades will not be fired closer than 10m to other personnel or 50m to spectators upwind. (6) Hexachloroethane (HC) smoke grenade restrictions are the same as those for HC smoke pots. These grenades will ignite combustible materials and cause burns. A separation distance of at least 10m should be maintained from burning grenades. Personnel will wear protective respirators or masks before exposure to any concentration of smoke produced by HC smoke grenades. (See chap 13 for detailed information concerning smoke hazards.) (7) Burning particles of white phosphorous (WP) are frequently projected from the M15 and M34 grenades to a distance of 40m from the bursting point. Therefore, M15 and M34 WP grenades should be thrown only on standard live grenade ranges during training as prescribed in FM 323.30. Trainers should consider use of protective cover when using the M15 and M34. White phosphorous particles cause serious, painful, slow-healing burns. Refer to FM 425.11 for appropriate first-aid measures. (8) Direct viewing of thermite grenades will not be conducted due to the high potential of permanent eye damage. d. M84 Stun Grenade. All personnel within 1.52m (5 ft) will wear single hearing protection if employing 2 rounds per day. All personnel within this distance will wear double hearing protection if employing 3 to 41 rounds per day. e. Surface danger zones. (1) Surface danger zone requirements for hand grenades are provided in figure 51. (2) Planning guidance for hand grenade ranges is in TC 258.

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43

52. Grenade launchers and grenade machine guns a. General firing conditions. (1) Personnel will be instructed in the proper use of grenade launchers and grenade machine guns and applicable safety precautions before firing with live ammunition. (2) All duds will be reported by the OIC to the range control office. When fired or launched, HE grenades cannot be cleared from an impact area, which must be designated as a dedicated, high-hazard impact area. Dedicated, high-hazard impact areas will be posted with signs to warn and keep out unauthorized personnel, and fenced off, if practical. (3) Protective helmet and body armor (Army) or PPE Level 1 (Marine Corps) will be worn when firing HE ammunition; eye protection is encouraged. Refer to table 22. (a) Hazardous fragmentation from HE grenade ammunition may be experienced up to 165m from the point of detonation. Appropriate HE no-fire lines will be established. (b) Although the MK32, M79, M203, and M320 40mm grenade launchers are designed to prevent accidental chambering of 40mm high-velocity ammunition, OICs and RSOs will ensure only low-velocity grenade cartridges are fired from MK32, M79, M203, and M320 grenade launchers. (c) Single hearing protection will be worn within 2m of firing these grenade launchers. Protective helmet and body armor (Army) or PPE Level 1 must be used while conducting firing of HE 40mm grenades. Eye protection is encouraged. Refer to table 22. (d) Snow depth of 10cm (4 in) or more and standing water will increase the potential of 40mm duds. These conditions must be considered prior to firing. (e) Minimum target engagement for MK32, M79, M203, and M320 grenade launchers firing HE ammunition is 130m or 165m, depending on type of ammunition. b. General firing precautions. General firing precautions for the MK19, MOD 3 grenade machine gun. (1) Targets will be engaged only at ranges greater than 75m with TP ammunition. (2) Targets will be engaged only at ranges greater than 310m with HE ammunition. (3) Firing through obstructions will be avoided. (4) Gunners, crew members and other personnel at the firing position will wear protective helmet and body armor (Army) or PPE Level 1 (Marine Corps) at all times when firing HE ammunition. Eye protection is encouraged. Refer to table 22. (5) Range firing procedures and physical setup must be adequate to prevent HE rounds from impacting closer than 310m from the firing position, firing vehicle, other vehicles, or personnel. (6) Firing over open vehicle hatches is not authorized. Serious injury can result from burns caused by weapon flash or by expended or ejected cartridge cases striking personnel. (7) Approved single hearing protection is required for all personnel within the noise hazard contour of a 20m radius of the weapon system. Eye protection should be worn. (8) Daily exposure limit within the noise hazard contour is 1,000 rounds per day. (9) Army personnel recovering dud M918 40mm TP projectiles will follow the procedures outlined in TB 9131025110. The use of protective goggles or face shield, gloves, and tongs while handling M918 TP rounds is mandatory. Marine Corps EOD personnel recovering the same munitions will follow procedures outlined in EODB 60 series publications. c. Static firing restrictions for vehicle mounted machine gun. Static firing restrictions for vehicle mounted machine gun, MK19, MOD 3 grenade machine gun. (1) A gunners quadrant and/or MK64, MOD 7 mount depression stop will be used to keep the minimum elevation above 30 mil when firing. (2) M998 (high multipurpose wheeled vehicle) HMMWV interim squad carrier: (a) Soft tops must be installed over the driver and passenger compartments for safe operation of the vehicle when firing the MK19. (b) Visual and physical inspection of the adaptive engineering team collar-mounting bolts must be performed prior to, during, and after firing operations. All bolts must be present with nuts firmly tightened prior to firing. (3) M113 and M106 series armored carriers: (a) Firing over open hatches is prohibited. (b) Drivers hatch must be closed when firing off the left side, forward, or off the right side of the vehicle, or when personnel or objects in hatch areas are forward of the weapon muzzle. (4) M88A1 Heavy Equipment Recovery Combat Utility Lift and Evacuation System (HERCULES) medium-tracked recovery vehicle:

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(a) Operator and mechanic hatches must be closed when firing off the left side, forward, or off the right side of the vehicle. (b) Personnel doors on the vehicle sides may remain open during firing forward or to the rear, but will be closed when firing to the left or right side of the vehicle. d. Moving firing restrictions for machine gun. Moving firing restrictions for the MK19, MOD 3 grenade machine gun to preclude unintentional impacts of HE and high explosive dual purpose (HEDP) ammunition at ranges less than 310m (1) Restrict speeds to not greater than 20 km per hour (12 mph) when firing from the M1025/1026 HMMWV armament carrier and the M998T interim squad carrier over paved and improved roads that are in good condition, and not greater than 10 km per hour (5 mph) over rough roads, trails, and cross-country. (2) Restrict speeds to not greater than 20 km (12 mph) when firing from the M113 and M106 family of armored carriers, and the M88A1 tracked recovery vehicle over roads, trails, and cross-country. e. Surface danger zone. (1) SDZ requirements for MK32, M79, M203, and M320 grenade launchers are provided in table 51 and figure 52. A minimum 6m separation distance is required between firing positions. Cartridge M433 requires an Area A and B of 165m. All other MK32, M79, M203, and M320 HE cartridges require 130m as illustrated in figure 52. (2) SDZ criteria for the MK19, MOD 3 grenade machine gun are shown in table 52 and figure 53. Minimum target engagement range for HE cartridges is 310m.

Legend for Table 5-2: NR=Not required Notes: 1 Use the sum of the values of Area W and Area A (if applicable) until validated test data is available.

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Notes: 1 Prohibit cross-line firing when using multiple firing points. 2 Maximum range (470m) may be reduced when positive elevation control devices are used to limit range to impact distance. 3 Area A and B for the M433, HEDP is 165m. 4 Training practice (TP) ammunition does not require Areas A or B.

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DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

Chapter 6 Antitank Rockets

61. Firing conditions a. General. (1) All loading and unloading for separate loading rockets (for example, 35mm training practice rocket and 66mm M74 incendiary rockets) will be on the firing line with the muzzle pointed downrange. Procedures and precautions in FM 323.25 and appropriate TMs will be observed in all preparation and firing operations. (2) Personnel will not stand or have any portion of the body directly in front of or behind a loaded rocket launcher. (3) Before firing, the SDZ to the rear of the launcher (Area F) will be cleared of personnel, materiel (including expended cartridge cases), and readily combustible vegetation. Area F for antitank rockets is a cone with the apex at the breech and radius corresponding with a rearward extension of the rocket target line. (4) The use of manned target vehicles is prohibited when firing HE or high explosive anti-tank (HEAT) ammunition. Moving target vehicles must be operated by remote control. Unprotected operating personnel shall be located outside the SDZ. (5) Approved single hearing protection will be worn by personnel within 390m of the firing point when firing antitank rockets. Approved single hearing protection will be worn by personnel within 500m of the firing point when firing HE, HEAT, TP, smoke and illumination from the multi-role antiarmor antipersonnel weapons system (MAAWS). The gunner and all other personnel within a 100m radius of the MAAWS must wear properly inserted foam earplugs as well as properly fitting ear muffs (double hearing protection). (6) Gunners and other personnel within 20m will wear personal protective gear such as improved body armor (IBA), ballistic eyewear, and helmets. Sleeves should be down and collars up. For the Marine Corps, a minimum PPE Level 1 must be worn (see tab 22). Eye protection is encouraged when firing shoulder-launched multipurpose assault weapons (SMAW). (7) During training with the SMAW, the gunner and assistant gunner are authorized to fire only five rounds per day because of sound pressure levels. (8) All personnel are required to wear approved hearing protection when firing the M72AS light antitank weapon (LAW) training system. b. Special firing conditions. (1) SMAWcommon practice round HX07 Areas A and B are not required. (2) All personnel within 100m of the SMAW launcher will wear, at a minimum, PPE Level 1, Marine Corps only. Eye protection is encouraged. Refer to table 22. (3) For SMAW MK80 novel explosive (SMAW NE) (DODIC HA34), SMAW- MK6 high explosive anti-armor assault (HEAA) (DODIC HX06), SMAWMK3 HEDP (DODIC HX05), and SMAW- MK7 Common Practice Round (CPR) (SMAW) (DODIC HX07), danger zone occupation could result in fatalities or serious casualties including severe burns, eye damage, or permanent hearing loss. The hazards are base plate fragments, debris, fireball, high noise levels, and overpressure. (4) When the M72 LAW is fired in temperatures below freezing, all back blast areas (Area F) will be doubled. Operating personnel should wear approved face protection during firing. (5) Extending the M72 weapon system too slowly can result in a failure to cock the weapon. (6) All M72AS 21mm training system weapons will be visually inspected for damage before firing. Damaged weapons will be destroyed per standard explosive ordnance disposal procedures. (7) Rockets, MAAWS, or the M136 AT4 shoulder-launched munition will not be fired from within buildings unless fired in accordance with FM 306.11 or within 50m of a vertical or nearly vertical backstop, barrier or obstacle due to the risk of debris ricochets. (8) Prone or foxhole firing of HE AT4 (M136) is not authorized. In training, an individual may fire one round from the sitting position or three rounds from the standing or kneeling positions in a 24hour period. (9) Prone firing of HE or TP ammunition in the MAAWS is not authorized due to overpressure hazards. (10) The firing of antitank rockets over unprotected troops from a moving vehicle or aircraft is not authorized. (11) For HE ammunition, limit the number of daily firings by any individual (gunner or personnel within 20m) to four. There is no limit for the M72AS 21mm LAW training system. 62. Surface danger zone a. Surface danger zone requirements including minimum target engagement distances for antitank rockets are in tables 61 and 62 and figures 61 and 62.

250 N/A 250 100 100

250 N/A 250 100 100

1,000 1,000 1,400 1,000 1,150

40 50 40 40 40

25 N/A 30 38 25

Notes: 1 Minimum range to impact (minimum target distance) may be reduced 60 percent when firing non-explosive warhead from unprotected positions or explosive warhead from protected positions. 2 Distance X may be reduced if there is steeply rising terrain behind the target or overhead baffles and positive controls are used to limit elevation of the launcher at the firing position. A formal deviation must be approved to reduce Distance X. See table 62. 3 When firing from the prone position, the gunners lower body shall be 45 degrees away from the back blast area.

Legend for Table 6-3: HE=high explosive HEAT=high explosive anti-tank HEDP=high explosive dual purpose N/A=not applicable TP=target practice Notes: 1 May be reduced 60 percent when firing non-explosive projectiles from unprotected firing positions or explosive projectiles from protected positions. 2 Area F is a 90 degree angle (45 degrees left and right) of rearward extension of launcher target line. 3 Danger area occupation could result in fatalities or serious casualties, including severe burns or permanent hearing loss. The hazards are base plate fragments, debris, fireball, high noise levels, and overpressure. 4 Caution area is an extension of the primary danger zone. Occupation of this area could also result in severe casualties due to back blast, debris, high noise levels, eye injuries, and possible base plate fragments. Primary danger area and caution area are conditions that may not be modified. 5 Not a direct-fire round. Use figure 63 to construct SDZ. 6 Use SDZ data from chapter 4.

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c. Surface danger zone requirements for the M136 AT4 are in table 64 and figures 65 and 66.

Table 64 M136 AT4 surface danger zone criteria, in meters Area F Type 84mm3 HEAT M136 9mm Trainer, M939Legend for Table 6-4: N/A=not applicable Notes: 1 Danger area occupation could result in fatalities or serious casualties including severe burns, eye damage, or permanent hearing loss. The hazards are base plate fragments, debris, fireball, high noise levels and overpressure. 2 Caution area is an extension of the primary danger area. Occupation of this area could also result in severe casualties due to back blast, debris, high noise levels and possible base plate fragments. Primary danger area and caution area are conditions that may not be modified. 3 Increased dud rates may occur when firing HE (M136) at impact angles of 10o or less.

Distance X 2,100

Minimum range to target 503

Area A 227

Area B 488

Danger area1 52

Caution area2 95

1,600

N/A

N/A

N/A

N/A

N/A

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55

Figure 65. Surface danger zone for firing AT4

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Figure 66. Surface danger zone, Area F, for firing AT4

d. Surface danger zone requirements for SMAWNE are in table 65 and figures 67 and 69. e. Surface danger zone requirements for SMAWHEAA, -HEDP, and the -common practice round are in table 65 and figures 68 and 69.

SMAWNE HA34 SMAWHEAA HX06 SMAWHEDP HX05 SMAWCPR HX07

Legend for Table 6-5: N/A=not applicable

2,460 2,500 2,500 2,500

250 500 250 N/A

250 500 250 N/A

30 30 30 30

70 60 60 60

Notes: 1 Caution area is an extension of the primary danger area. Occupation of this area could also result in injuries due to back blast, debris, high noise levels, and possible base plate fragments. Primary danger area and caution area are conditions that may not be modified.

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f. Area F extends rearward of the launcher firing point at 90 degree (45 degree left and right) for the M72A2 and 70 degree (35 degree left and right) for M72A 4, 5, 6, and 7. g. Area F consists of two primary areas known as danger area and caution area (except for the M72AS, which has only a danger area). h. The vertical hazard of 950m will be used when firing all HE antitank rockets.

Chapter 7 Antitank Guided Missiles

71. BGM71 tube launched, optically-tracked, wire guided missiles a. Firing conditions. (1) Before firing any TOW missile, the entire SDZ will be cleared of all non-mission-essential personnel. Essential range safety personnel such as road guards, gate guards, and/or range personnel conducting administrative duties, and so forth, shall be allowed within the SDZ at pre-established locations approved by the installation RCO. (2) TOW missile firings must be accomplished within predetermined boundaries. The installation RCO will ensure that an adequate SDZ exists along the missile target line (MTL) from each anticipated launch position within the predetermined boundaries. (3) Procedures and precautions in appropriate FMs and TMs will be observed in all preparation and firing operations. (4) Only those personnel actively engaged in firing and controlling TOW missiles as specified in appropriate FMs and TMs will be permitted in the SDZ. Participating personnel directly associated with but not actively engaged in the firing of TOW missiles may be located at protected sites within Area H, such as behind earthen berms. (5) Personnel will neither stand nor permit any part of their body to be directly behind or in front of the TOW launcher while a missile is in the launch tube. (6) TOW missiles (wire guided) should not be fired from any position which will permit the guidance wire to contact electrical power lines or the high power portion of electrically operated targetry. Commanders may deem it mission essential to fire at electrically powered targets where guidance wires may come in contact with the high powered portion of electrically-operated targets. However, the firing commander must first apply a thorough risk management process and have it approved by the installation range control officer prior to firing. (7) For moving targets, TOW missiles should be launched within the left and right limits established by the movement of the target. Missile impact should be as near to the original missile-to-target-line as possible. Large deflection divergences during flight should be avoided.

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(8) TOW missiles will not be fired from within buildings or within 100m of any vertical or nearly vertical backstop. (9) The range will be inspected after TOW firing activities to ensure, to the maximum extent possible, that all guidance wires are removed from the training complex unless approval is granted from installation RCO to abandon wires in place. Recovery of guidance wires will be made by ground personnel. Aircraft will not be used to remove guidance wires. The senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) will determine whether guidance wires will be recovered from dedicated and high hazard impact areas. Access to installation training complexes where command link guidance wires are used will be at the authorization of the installation RCO. (10) Modification of Area I is not authorized. Occupation of Area I by unprotected personnel is prohibited. (11) All missiles should be tested using the missile test set as part of the overall system pre-fire checks. This will identify the majority of missiles with a potential for operational failures. (12) For the Marine Corps, participating personnel not in Area F but within a rectangle 100m to either side and 200m to the rear of the TOW firing point will wear a minimum of PPE Level 1, as referenced in table 22. (13) For the Marine Corps, all firings of the TOW missile require the use of the Kevlar protective blanket except when TOW missiles are fired from the Light Armored Vehicle-Anti-Tank variant when all personnel are either within the protective hull of the vehicle or clear of the launch position by 75m when missile firing is initiated. (14) Aerial TOW firing information is contained in chapter 11. b. Surface danger zone. (1) The SDZ for basic TOW, Improved TOW, TOW 2, TOW 2A, and TOW 2B missiles firing at fixed and moving targets are illustrated in figure 71. This figure represents a 1:1,000,000 (10-6) (47 degrees) probability of a missile flyout/hazardous fragment escaping the SDZ. Figure 71 also contains information for a missile fly out/hazardous fragment escapement of 1:100,000 (10-5) (45 degrees), 1:10,000 (10-4) (38 degrees), and 1:1,000 (10-3) (30 degrees). The SDZ is based on the maximum ballistic range for TOW variants since there is no provision for command destruct. For danger zones with a greater risk of missile fly-out/hazardous fragment escapement than 1:1,000,000 (10-6), an approved deviation in accordance with chapter 1 of this pamphlet is required. Required distances (Distance X) for ground firings of basic TOW, Improved TOW, TOW 2, TOW 2A, and TOW 2B are given in table 71. (2) Area F is the danger area extending to the rear of the launcher (see fig 72). For ground firings, Area F is divided into a primary danger area and two caution areas. (a) The primary danger area is a 90 degree included angular cone (45 degree on each side of the rear of the bore axis with a radius of 50m) and with the apex of the cone centered at the rear of the missile launcher . Serious casualties or fatalities are likely to occur to any personnel in the primary danger area during firing. The hazards are launch motor blast, high noise levels, overpressure, and debris. (b) Caution Area 1 is an area extending radially from each side of the primary danger area to the firing line with a radius of 50m. Permanent hearing damage could occur to personnel in this area during firing. Approved hearing protection will be worn by all personnel occupying this area. The hazards are high noise levels and overpressure. (c) Caution Area 2 is an extension of the primary danger area with the same associated hazards and personnel protection required. The radius of this area is 75m. (d) For the Army, at least single hearing protection will be worn by all personnel within the rectangle 100m to either side and 200m to the rear of the TOW firing point. (3) Area H, a circular sector to the rear of the launch position, is established as an additional buffer zone to protect personnel from the hazards of high velocity fragments and missile debris resulting from detonation of the HE warhead during an eject only event (ballistic trajectory upon failure of the flight motor to ignite once the missile has exited the launcher). Each eject only event for TOW, Improved TOW, TOW 2, TOW 2A, and TOW 2B is expected to produce about 100 fragments with a maximum range of 1300m and one slug with a maximum range of 3200m. The maximum fly-back range for TOW 2B is expected to be 1,000m, and one slug is expected to travel 1600m. Modification of Area H is authorized by deviation. Area H is not required for inert warheads or for HE warheads equipped with missile ordnance inhibit circuits identified by U.S. Army Aviation and Missile Command for the Army or MARCORSYSCOM for the Marine Corps. These missiles will encompass all Missile Ordnance Inhibit Circuit (MOIC), MOIC Enhancement (MOICE), Improved MOIC (IMOIC), and Digital MOIC (DMOIC) circuitry. (4) Area I is a circular sector immediately in front of the launcher position. It is constructed by drawing an arc between the left and right lateral limits of the impact area 47 degrees to each side of the MTL with a radius of 800m and centered at the launch position. c. SDZ adjustments. (1) If any point on the edge of the impact area is lower than the elevation of the launch position by more than 30m, extend the impact area at that point by 1m for every meter of drop in elevation greater than 30m. For example, if a point of the SDZ at the edge of the impact area is 65m below the launch position, extend only that portion of the impact area 35m (6530=35) parallel with the edge of the impact area. For an illustration, see figure 73. (2) When engaging moving or multiple targets, bisect figure 71 longitudinally and expand the MTL to accommodate the target array. This will establish the left and right limits of fire.

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Legend for Table 7-1: DODIC=Department of Defense Identification Code RF=Radio Frequency Guided IDMOIC=Integrated Digital MOIC N/A=not applicable Notes: 1 The MOIC is installed in missiles which are retrofitted for use in training or demonstration. The retrofitted missiles can have either inert warheads or HEAT warheads. The MOIC improves firing-range safety. 2 The MOICE further improves firing-range safety by disabling arming of the warhead until the missile is accelerated by the flight motor. A second rare failure mode occurs when a missile containing a MOIC has a flight motor failure and the missile falls to earth and rolls end-over-end causing the warhead to detonate after ground impact of the aft end of the missile. 3 IMOIC, MOIC, and MOICE are designed to be used in the basic and ITOW missiles (which have the 5 in warhead) and will not fit in the TOW 2 series (with the 5.8 in warhead). The components in the MOIC and the MOICE are repackaged in one unit called the IMOIC, which fits the TOW 2 and TOW 2A missiles and provides the same function as the combination of MOIC and MOICE. 4 DMOIC can be installed in analog missiles only and not in digital missiles. The DMOIC for digital missiles has been developed and will be installed in the Digital Electronics Unit (DEU) test cavity at the rear of the missile. The electrical interface will be via the DEU test connector and the over-rocked harness connector.

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DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

d. Multiple integrated laser engagement system training. The TOW missile uses the antitank weapons effect signature simulator (ATWESS) device for a noise simulator. Use the SDZ in figure 74 to determine safe limits of use. ATWESS devices must never be armed until ready to fire. A severe jolt to the ATWESS may cause the device to function. Approved single hearing protection is required.

Figure 74. Area F for ATWESS and TOW

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72. FGM148 Javelin guided missile The Javelin is a shoulder-launched, man-portable, anti-armor weapon system. It fires a passive-imaging infrared missile with a lock-on before launch guidance system. The Javelin Block 1 antitank missile has extended range capability, enhanced software, and an improved warhead. a. Firing conditions. (1) Before firing any Javelin missile, the entire SDZ will be cleared of non-participating personnel. Only those participating personnel specified in appropriate FMs and TMs will be permitted in any part of the SDZ. (2) Javelin missile firings will be accomplished within predetermined boundaries. Installation RCOs will ensure that an adequate SDZ exists along the MTL from each anticipated launch position within the predetermined boundaries. (3) See applicable FMs and TMs for preparation and firing operations. (4) Personnel will neither stand nor permit any part of their body to be directly behind or in front of the Javelin launcher. (5) Personnel engaged in firing or supervising Javelin missile training will wear a minimum of PPE Level 1. Refer to table 22 (Marine Corps) for further guidance. b. Surface danger zone construction for the Javelin antitank missile. (1) The SDZ for firing Javelin missile at a fixed target is illustrated in figure 75. This figure represents probability of missile fly-out, debris, fragmentation, and so forth, escaping the SDZ boundaries; 1 in 1,000,000 (10-6) (21 degrees), 100,000 (10-5) (17 degrees), and 10,000 (10-4) (13 degrees). The dimensions found in figure 75 using 21 degrees is the standard Javelin missile SDZ. (2) The SDZ for Javelin Block 1 missile is in figure 76. The use of an SDZ with a missile fly out probability of greater than 10-6 (such as, 10-5, or 10-4) requires an approved deviation in accordance with AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C and chapter 1 of this pamphlet. Javelin missile SDZ criteria are in table 72. Javelin Block 1 missile SDZ criteria are in table 73. Javelin Block 1 SDZ variable criteria are in table 74. (3) Area A is 500m wide for the HE warhead equipped rounds and 200m for inert warhead rounds from the launcher to a point 1,000m downrange. At 1,000m, the flight motor is fully exhausted. The remaining downrange portion of Area A tapers down to a 200m width for HE warhead rounds and 100m for inert warhead rounds at Distance X. Area A will contain missile and warhead debris from impacts on the boundary selected fly out line/trajectory limit and portions of the missile that remain attached to the propulsion section which may continue to be propelled until flight motor burnout. (4) Area B will contain the debris associated with a missile landing at the uprange edge of the area. Area B is 500m for both HE and inert warheads. (5) Area F (see fig 77) consists of the primary danger zone and caution areas 1, 2, and 3. (a) The primary danger zone is a 60 degree angle (30 degree either side of the rearward extension of the MTL) with the apex at the aft end of the missile launch motor. This zone has a 25m radius. Additionally, the primary danger zone is extended forward to the firing line from a distance of 1 to 5m left and right of the MTL (see fig 78). (b) Caution Area 1 is an extension of the 25m primary danger zone arc forward to the firing line on each side of the launcher. Serious hearing impairment or damage from frequent exposure could occur to personnel in this area during firings. Personnel in this area must wear approved hearing protection devices. (c) Caution Area 2 is an extension to the rear of the primary danger zone, 10m beyond the primary danger zone. (d) Caution Area 3 is an extension to the rear of the primary danger zone within the 60 degree sector with a 100m radius. This area is affected by the activation of the flight motor pressure relief system.

Figure 77. Surface danger zone Area F, for Javelin missiles

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Chapter 8 Tank/Fighting Vehicle Gunnery

81. Tank/fighting vehicle firing conditions a. Tank/fighting vehicle weapon system will not be fired above 5 degrees (90 mils) QE from the firing position to the target (unless otherwise stated in this pamphlet). The following procedures will be employed. (1) Unit master gunners, in conjunction with range control personnel, will ensure that targets are placed at or less than 5 degrees elevation. Tank commanders will ensure that all weapon systems in a firing condition are pointed toward the impact area at or less than 5 degrees elevation. (2) Non-stabilized tank armament will not be fired while the tank/fighting vehicle is moving. This does not include machine guns. b. When firing ranges and weapons training facilities with less than the prescribed safety limits must be used, existing compensatory terrain features and offsetting control measures will be thoroughly evaluated. An approved deviation is required before firing on reduced SDZs. c. Hard or soft targetry may be used. d. Cross-range firing of weapon systems from firing positions at targets or target arrays on the opposite side of the range is permitted if the SDZ falls within allowable limits, and the risk of damage to target systems has been accepted by the RCO. Limits of fire, combined dispersion, ricochet areas, and Areas A and B (when required), must be adjusted to compensate for and accommodate such cross-range firing. On ranges that do not permit cross-range firing, internal (inside the range area) left and right limit of fire markers, with both visual and thermal signature, will be used in addition to the left and right external range limit markers. e. Environmental containment materials (spill kits) shall be available on all mounted ranges, during all refuel operations, and whenever the vehicles involved in the training event are on the range. 82. Surface danger zone Tank/fighting vehicle SDZs for direct fire at fixed or moving ground targets from stationary or moving firing positions are as follows: a. General tank cannon cartridges (for example, those cartridges not specifically addressed in this pamphlet) use table 81 and figure 81. Lateral dimensions must take into account length of baselines, maneuver areas, and target arrays to include length of moving targets. Distance X for non-stabilized weapons will be equivalent to QE of 10 degrees. b. The dispersion area for tank/fighting vehicle SDZs is 2 degrees with a stabilized weapon system. The dispersion area for tank/fighting vehicle SDZs utilizing non-stabilized weapon systems is 5 degrees. c. Areas A and B are not required (NR) when firing inert/non HE projectiles at soft targets, except spotting charges or frangible projectiles which may eject a hazardous fragment. d. When engaging armor targets, use the impact media that has the greater value due to the possibility of missing the target. e. For fighting vehicles the Distance X (maximum range) may be reduced to ricochet range when engaging ground targets at ranges up to 3,500m from stationary firing positions. f. For fighting vehicles, when firing from a moving vehicle over level terrain at ground targets up to 3,500m, use the 15 degrees elevation range, when firing on the move over rough terrain, use Distance X. g. For fighting vehicles, when firing at aerial targets and the gun elevation is greater than 15 degrees, the ricochet area, as defined by Area W and Angle P, is not required. h. SDZ requirements for firing port weapon systems are provided in chapter 4 (small arms criteria) and figure 85. Firing port weapon systems may be fired selectively or as part of a course provided: (1) Sufficient terrain is available to accommodate the weapon systems SDZ fired at its extreme elevation and limits of traverse. (2) An established impact area exists with targets or target arrays.

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b. For the Marine Corps MK44 Bushmaster II 30mm weapon system, when conducting fighting vehicle training with elevation limitations, use the SDZ template found in figure 84 and the data found in tables 85 through 814. For free gun training, use the batwing SDZ template found in chapter 4, with the data found in tables 810 through 814. To correct for cross range wind, the dispersion angle of 2 degrees must be increased by 0.1 degree per m/s or 0. 05 degree per knot of cross range wind. (1) For free gun training, to correct for cross range wind the dispersion angle of 5 degrees must be increased by 0.25 degree per m/s or 0.13 degree per knot of cross range wind. (2) For elevation restriction (5 degrees), to correct for cross range wind the dispersion angle is increased by 0.1 degree per m/s or 0.05 degree per knot of cross range wind.

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Figure 86. 25mm aluminum base Sabot discard hazard area

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Figure 87. 25mm plastic base Sabot discard hazard area

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Figure 88. 30mm discard hazard area

84. Firing vehicle status designations a. During daylight and good visibility, flags or lights will be displayed on firing vehicles. At night and during reduced visibility, lights will be displayed. The following light or flag color designations will be used within the training complex as required: (1) Yellow: Vehicle has malfunction. Yellow is used only in conjunction with red or green. (2) Red and green: Vehicle is preparing to fire or the crew is performing a non-firing exercise. Weapon systems are clear but not elevated. (3) Red and yellow: Vehicle has a malfunction or misfire. Weapon systems are not clear and are pointed downrange. (4) Green and yellow: Vehicle has a malfunction. Weapon systems are clear. (5) Red: Vehicle engaged in firing. Weapons must be pointed at the target area. (6) Green: All vehicles weapon systems are clear and elevated. Any live ammunition in the vehicle is properly stowed. b. Once a firing vehicle begins a battle run and passes the start fire line, all weapon systems, including laser systems, are considered to be loaded and ready to fire. Senior commanders (Army)/installation commanders (Marine

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Corps) may allow the installation RCO to approve vehicles on a battle run to not display status flags or lights based on a range control-approved risk assessment. c. When the firing vehicle completes a battle run, the tank/fighting vehicle commander will ensure the weapon systems have been cleared. The RSO or ARSO will mount the vehicle and verify weapon systems clearance, to include laser systems, before the vehicle moves off the firing line, out of the maneuver box, or out of a battle position to a designated position. Proper flags or lights will be displayed to identify the status of the weapons. d. Tank/fighting vehicle commanders or RSOs will ensure the weapon systems are aligned within the envelope of the vehicles width when traveling off-range onto roadways or tank/fighting vehicle trails, unless previously coordinated with range control for purposes of tactical road marches. 85. Sub-caliber tank/fighting vehicle gunnery devices a. SDZ will be constructed as shown in figure 81. b. The dimensions in table 816 will be used based on munition caliber.

See note 2 See note 2

Notes: 1 Data based on 7,000 ft MSL. 2 Use value of Distance W until validated test data is available.

86. Grenade launchers a. Firing conditions. (1) SDZ occupation by unprotected personnel in the open is prohibited. (2) Grenades will not be fired into strong head winds (19kph/12mph and greater). (3) PPE Level 1 is recommended with hand protection for personnel within the SDZ. See table 22. (4) Clothing will fit snugly to prevent red phosphorous fragments from getting inside battle dress uniforms, particularly around the neck, ends of sleeves and pockets. b. SDZ. (1) The L8A1 and L8A3 grenades are designed to launch out 30m from the vehicle before functioning. SDZ requirements for firing the L8A1 and L8A3 smoke grenades are provided in figure 89. Hazard distances of 125m from the vehicle in the direction of fire, and 50m to the rear will be applied in accordance with figure 89. (2) SDZ requirements for the M176, M226, and M239 grenade launchers are provided in figure 810. Dimensions shown in figure 810 are for illustrative purposes only.

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87. Close support of ground personnel a. Firing over the heads of unprotected personnel by tank and fighting vehicle main guns is prohibited. b. Tank/fighting vehicle weapons systems may be used to provide flanking fire if unprotected personnel remain out of the SDZ. c. Only personnel wearing approved single hearing protection will be allowed within 140 decibels peak level (dBP) contour zones during tank/fighting vehicle main gun firings. d. Nonparticipating personnel will be restricted from areas 10m to the sides and from all areas forward of tanks/ fighting vehicles. 88. Weapons effect signature simulator Personnel within 25m of the weapons effect signature simulator will wear approved single hearing protection. Eye protection will be worn. 89. Hazardous impulse noise exposure a. The drivers hatch must be closed tight at all times when the main weapon is fired. Exposure limits and contour distances to hazardous impulse noise in excess of 140 dBP from various 105mm and 120mm tank cannon cartridges are based on health hazard assessment reports. Tables 817 and 818 list exposure limits for tank/fighting vehicle main gun firings. b. Do not allow tank/fighting vehicle crew examiners or other personnel on the outside of a firing tank/fighting vehicle.

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c. Numerous health hazard assessment reports define hazardous impulse noise contours for various tank/fighting vehicle main gun and secondary armament cartridges exceeding 140 dBP. Table 819 summarizes these contour requirements and figure 813 illustrates the hazardous impulse noise contours in relation to the GTL. Double hearing protection shall be worn when exposure is expected to be in excess of the daily exposure limit. Use of double hearing protection increases the daily exposure limits as determined by the Surgeon General. Loader may not have their head protruding above the open hatch while firing the main gun. Data for locations forward of tank/fighting vehicle weapon systems are not available. Impulse noise levels in front of tank systems are expected to be higher than to the sides and rear.

135 degrees NDA NDA 314 355 NDA 16 7

180 degrees NDA 200 152 NDA NDA NDA NDA

105 105 120 120 35 .50 7.62

501 400 444 501 130 32 15

Figure 813. Hazardous impulse noise 140 dBP contour zones

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Chapter 9 Mortars91. Firing conditions Firing mortars over the heads of troops by Marine Corps units is not authorized except when firing the Expeditionary Fire Support System (EFSS) M327 120mm rifled towed mortar. For the Marine Corps, mortars must be fired at the edge of a high hazard impact area. Requirements for overhead fire using the 120mm rifled towed mortar can be found in chapter 10. a. Firing mortars over the heads of unprotected troops by Army units is not recommended. Mortar ammunition must be certified for overhead fire of unprotected troops. The installation commander may approve overhead fire of unprotected troops with certified overhead fire mortar ammunition on the basis of acceptable level of risk. Procedural controls to prevent human error (for example, dedicated observer-controllers with the unprotected troops and firing mortars with dedicated communications) will be included in the risk management process. b. Overhead fire is allowed when Soldiers are in tanks with hatches closed 100m or more from the line of fire. c. All personnel who take part in mortar firing will wear, for the Army, a minimum of IBA and helmet; for the Marine Corps, PPE Level 1. Refer to table 22. At the commanders discretion, the gunner may remove their protective helmet while sighting the mortar. All personnel within the hearing hazard zone for the mortar, cartridge, or charge increment used will wear approved single hearing protection. The hearing hazard zone is usually defined in the manuals for the mortar or cartridges. If the hearing hazard zone information cannot be determined, single hearing protection will be required within 200m. d. Propellant increments removed from rounds before firing will be placed in metal or wooden covered (waterproofed) containers located outside the firing vehicle or positioned a distance of at least 25m from the firing point when firing dismounted. Unused powder increments must be safeguarded and handled in accordance with installation range and environmental regulations. e. M720, M721, M722, and M888 cartridges will not be fired above propellant charge 2 in the M2/M19 (60mm) mortar. f. M720 cartridges will not be fired in the hand-held mode with a charge greater than 1. g. No 800 series cartridges may be fired in the M29 (81mm) mortar except the M880 short-range target practice round. This also applies when using the M303 insert. h. When firing the 120mm mortar from the carrier, all crew members and personnel inside the carrier must wear double hearing protection. Double hearing protection is required regardless of the carrier ramp position (opened or closed). Double hearing protection is defined as any approved earplugs plus either a combat vehicle crewman helmet or a communication aural protective system/artillery communication aural protective system with personnel armored system for ground troops helmet. Personnel outside the carrier within 200m must wear single hearing protection. i. Crew members and all personnel within 5m of the 120mm mortar must wear double hearing protection when firing. j. When firing the 120mm ground mount and carrier mount configuration, using the M933E1 HE cartridge, all personnel within 5m of the mortar are required to wear double hearing protection. Exposure is limited to 140 rounds in any 24 hours. k. Firing restrictions and limitations in TM 43000128 apply to all cartridges and fuzes. Marine Corps fires will observe restrictions in TM 08655A10A for light armored vehicle-mortar variants. l. The target engagement distance will not be less than the distance required for Area B of the respective caliber of mortar to be fired, unless fired from protected positions. 92. Surface danger zones a. SDZ requirements for 60mm, 81mm, and 120mm mortars are provided in table 91 and figure 91. b. Distance X is the maximum range of the weapon system at a given charge. Distance X will not be less than the maximum range of the greatest charge to be fired. c. Basic dimensions of the impact area will be computed as specified in table 92. d. Firing table probable errors corresponding to the maximum range of charge employed will be used for this computation. These basic dimensions are based on standard conditions. They do not compensate for errors or nonstandard conditions. e. To compute the probable errors in range and deflection, multiply the constant (listed in tab 92 and fig 91) by the data found in the tabular firing tables. These data are drawn in meters from the downrange edge of the target area for deflection probable errors (PED) and range probable errors (PER). f. When firing ammunition with explosive warheads at distances equal to or less than the lateral hazard area (Area A), the angle between the weapon target line/lateral limits and the firing point will increase by the width of Area A.

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g. The 25 degree angle for Area A must be increased to 70 degrees when firing HE ammunition at ranges equal to or less than 600m for 60mm mortars; 940m for 81mm mortars; and 1500m for 120mm mortars. Only the personnel required to fire the mortar system are authorized to be within this area. h. Only the mortar crew are authorized to be in Area A.

Area A 250 400 600

Area B 300 400 600

Notes: 1 Quadrant elevation limits must be modified to take into account the distance to the minimum and maximum limits of the impact area. After registration, corrections must be applied to the deflection quadrant elevation limits. 2 Dimensions of Areas A and B may be reduced by 50 percent when firing illumination cartridges. 3 Cartridges without HE filler (for example, M880, M931) do not require Areas A and B.

Table 92 Basic impact area dimensions Limits Left Right Far edge Dimensions Eight deflection probable errors (PED) from the left limit of target area Eight PED from the right limit of target area Eight range probable errors (PER) from the far edge of target area

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Figure 91. Surface danger zone for firing mortars

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Chapter 10 Field Artillery

101. Procedures and precautions This chapter contains procedures and precautions required to fire cannon, rocket field artillery, and the EFSS M327 mortar (spin-stabilized). 102. Safety certification program a. Commanders of field artillery units, battalion and above, will establish and maintain an artillery safety training and annual certification program in accordance with chapter 1. b. Field artillery commanders will determine, select, train, and safety certify personnel necessary to assist them in discharging this responsibility. These personnel will include, but are not limited to, the firing battery commander, executive officer or platoon leader, fire direction officer, chief of firing battery or platoon sergeant, gunnery sergeant, chief fire direction center computer, and howitzer or launcher chief of the section. These positions will be filled by command safety certified individuals. Their duties shall be as described in the appropriate FMs. c. A separate battery safety officer is not required during the firing of field artillery, but commanders may appoint one. 103. Field artillery cannons a. Firing conditions. (1) Procedures will be established for weapon systems producing blast overpressure hazards to reduce the risk to artillery crews from auditory and internal injury caused by blast overpressure from specific charges. Individuals who experience shortness of breath, chest discomfort, bleeding from mouth, nose or ears, or excessive shakiness (tremors) when exposed to weapon system firings may be suffering from a blast overpressure injury. Individuals with any of these symptoms shall be instructed to lie down and remain quiet and immobile. Injured personnel will be transported to the nearest medical facility for immediate evaluation and treatment. Firing procedures for specific weapon systems can be found in appropriate TMs. (2) Lanyards will not be attached to the firing mechanism of field artillery cannons that use separate loading ammunition until directed by the section chief. (3) Unused powder increments must be safeguarded and handled in accordance with appropriate TMs and installation range regulations. (4) All personnel immediately engaged in artillery operations will wear a minimum of PPE Level 1, as referenced in table 22. b. Fuzes. (1) Alteration of fuzes is unauthorized unless authorized by the Commanding General, AMC, and supervised by a qualified AMC commissioned officer, warrant officer, or civilian. For the Marine Corps, alteration of fuzes is unauthorized unless authorized by Marine Corps System Command (MARCORSYSCOM). (2) Protect points of fuzes from blows or damage when handling ammunition because the closing cap may be sufficiently deformed and may activate the percussion primer in the fuze. Personnel inserting rounds of ammunition into cannons will be cautioned to keep each projectile away from the path of cannon recoil until recoil from the previous projectile is complete. (3) Screw the fuze down by hand and firmly seat with the fuze wrench. (4) Projectiles removed from cannons with ramming staffs will not be reused. (5) All projectiles fired during training will be fuzed with bore safe fuzes. (6) Fuzed projectiles fired during training exercises will be of the type that precludes close-in premature bursts that would present a fragment and debris hazard to the firing crew. Other type fuzes require all personnel within Area A distance from the firing position to be provided positive protection against premature bursts. When only WP ammunition is involved, this distance may be reduced to 200m for positive protection from premature bursts. Positive protection at the weapon system position will meet the minimum requirements of four thicknesses of sandbags filled with dry, sifted sand stacked high enough for protection against all calibers of ammunition, or trenches deep enough to provide complete protection, or concrete walls 0.30m thick, or tanks with hatches closed. (7) Firing projectiles without fuzes is unauthorized. c. Malfunctions. (1) Malfunctions that occur during firing of ammunition will be investigated in accordance with AR 751 or MCO 8025.1D. (2) Procedures to be followed when a misfire or hang-fire occurs, or when the potential for a cook-off exists, are in the appropriate weapon system TMs.

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(3) All dud projectiles and their location will be reported to the installation RCO. d. Loading or firing ammunition. Do not load or fire ammunition at bore temperatures higher or lower than the safe limit of firing. After loading, fire the weapon system, or in case of a cease-fire, immediately remove the projectile. If the projectile cannot be removed from the weapon system within five minutes, evacuate all personnel to a distance equivalent to Area A for the munitions. See TM 43000128 and appropriate weapon system TMs. e. Authorized propellant charge. Use only authorized propellant charges for the specific projectile and weapon system to be fired. Never use more charges than those comprising the full authorized charge. f. White phosporous impregnated felt wedges from the M825 and M825A1 155mm projectiles. These may not be totally consumed when the WP burns. Crushing or moving unburned felt wedges would reignite residual WP posing a burn hazard. Personnel will not disturb unburned felt wedges. Personnel discovering unburned felt wedges will notify range control. g. Rocket assisted projectiles. Rocket-on firings require a clear zone short of the target area in case the rocket motor fails to function. Rocket-off firings also require a clear zone beyond the target area to allow for accidental (unintended) initiation of the rocket motor. 105mm rocket assisted projectiles require a clear zone of 4,000m short of and beyond the target. 155mm rocket assisted projectiles require a 6,000m clear zone short of and beyond the target. h. Salute (blank) firing of 75mm and 105mm projectiles. DODICs B550, B650, C025, C440 produce hazards from muzzle debris and noise. Muzzle closure debris can be expelled 92m forward of the weapon and 10 degrees either side of the bore axis. Hazardous noise levels (140 decibels) are 77m along the bore axis, 49m at 30 degrees each side of the bore axis, 31m at 60 degrees each side of the bore axis, 21m at 90 degrees each side of the bore axis, 14m at 120 degrees each side of the bore axis, 10 meters at 150 degrees each side of the bore axis, and 10m directly behind the weapon. i. Hearing protection. All personnel within the hearing hazard zone shall wear approved single hearing protection. The hearing hazard zone is usually defined in the manuals for the cannon, propellant charges, or cartridge. If the hearing hazard zone information cannot be determined, hearing protection will be required within 800m. 104. Field artillery cannon surface danger zones a. The SDZ requirements for all field artillery cannons firing conventional ammunition (excluding APERS/ beehive and M712 Coppperhead cannon-launched guided projectiles) are provided in tables 101 and 102 and figures 101 and 102. b. Computer-generated SDZs created using the RMTK are authorized if the software has been thoroughly tested and validated by survey and manual computations, approved for use by the artillery commander who trains the unit, and reviewed and verified by the installation RCO. Tactical fire control measures may be substituted for SDZs provided they correspond to figures 101 or 102 as applicable. c. Installation RCOs will determine target area boundaries. Left and right limits of the target area determine the left and right limits of fire. The maximum range line (arc) will be the far edge (down range) of the target area, and the minimum range line (arc) will be the near edge (up range) of the target area. Unprotected personnel are not authorized in the target and associated hazard areas (Areas A, B, C, and E) during firing. d. The size of the impact area depends upon the requirements of the firing exercises planned and the overall target area as defined by the installation RCO. e. Basic dimensions of the impact area will be computed as specified in table 101. f. Firing table probable errors corresponding to the range for the center of the target area will be used for this computation. These basic dimensions are based on standard conditions. They do not compensate for errors or nonstandard conditions. g. Areas A and B for M825 155mm WP smoke projectiles may be reduced to 350m.

Table 101 Basic impact area dimensions for field artillery cannons Limits Left Right Far edge Near edge Dimensions Eight PED from the left limit of target area. Eight PED from the right limit of target area. Eight PER from the down range edge of target area. Twelve PER from the up range edge of target area.

105mm howitzer 155mm howitzer

Notes: 1 Dimensions of Areas A and B may be reduced by 50 percent when firing illumination projectiles. This reduction of Areas A and B by 50 percent does not apply to the M1064 105mm infrared illumination projectile. 2 When the headings of more than one column above relate in some way to the type of firing to be conducted, the column giving the larger value of Area C will be used. 3 Distances in this column represent minimum target engagement distances when personnel at the firing position are unprotected.

h. Weapon system crews firing from approved tactical configurations are authorized access to Area E. Operational and range control personnel involved in firing exercises with a valid need to enter Area E may do so at the approval of the installation RCO. Based on risk assessment of firing conditions, the installation range control officer may reduce Area E to not less than 300m for 105mm and 350m for 155mm weapons. i. When firing in the direct mode, Distance X will not be less than the range of the weapon system corresponding to a quadrant elevation (QE) of 15 degrees for a given charge. j. Area C is increased to 2440m when firing M107 HE ammunition filled with TNT. 105. Bunkers and fighting vehicles a. Light field artillery fire, up to and including 105mm howitzer, may impact no closer than 100m to occupied bunkers. Medium and heavy field artillery fire above 105mm may impact no closer than 200m to occupied bunkers. Ammunition certified for overhead fire must be used. Bunkers must have been constructed and approved to protect personnel from a direct hit by the ammunition being fired. Constant communication must be maintained between the firing position and bunkers. Observation from bunkers will be by indirect viewing such as periscopes unless an approved design for direct viewing has been provided. b. Bunkers to be used in accordance with paragraph 105a will be designed and constructed using specifications provided by the facility engineer. The installation engineer will review designs before final approval to ensure that structural integrity is maintained against direct hits and penetrating fragments. Direct viewing methods will be designed and constructed according to specifications provided by the facility engineer. c. Personnel occupation of Areas A, B, and C is not authorized except when bunkers are constructed in accordance with paragraph 105a. Personnel access to Area C is not authorized unless protective cover exists that is designed in accordance with paragraph 105a, for positive protection against a direct hit. Tanks and fighting vehicles with hatches closed are permitted in Area C when field artillery ammunition is fired overhead with variable time (VT) or time (TI) fuzes. Height of burst data in table 103 will be used to provide an adequate degree of safety to protect personnel and materiel from ammunition fired with VT or TI fuzes. The following procedures apply when firing over tanks and fighting vehicles: (1) Do not use weapon systems of calibers greater than 155mm. (2) Use sufficient QE so that if the time element of the fuze fails to function, the projectile will land beyond the tank or fighting vehicle at a distance equal to the predicted height of burst plus four PER. (3) Only certified ammunition (projectiles, propellant/tailcharge, and fuzes) will be fired over the heads of unprotected personnel.

106. Overhead fire a. Overhead fire of unprotected personnel located in Area D is authorized during training provided certified ammunition for overhead fire (projectile, propellant/tailcharge, and fuze) is used. (For the Marine Corps Expeditionary Fire Support System (EFSS) M327 mortar, only the M1101 HE and M1103 WP projectiles with M237 tailcharge are authorized for overhead fire.) Senior commanders (Army)/installation commanders (Marine Corps) may authorize nonparticipating personnel access to Area D during indirect field artillery and EFSS 120mm (rifled) mortar firing. When public highways pass through Area D, coordination with appropriate government officials (Federal, State, and/or local) and/or land owner(s) is required. When public roadways and railways pass through Area D, the following precautions apply: (1) Projectile trajectories must clear unprotected personnel or objects by at least 5m plus two forks. If the minimum range line (arc) is greater than the distance to the near edge of the target area, use the computed minimum range line (arc) for the near edge of the target area. (2) Unless personnel are provided cover designed to withstand a direct hit, the minimum arming time of the proximity (VT) fuze establishes the near edge of the impact area. The minimum arming time of the proximity (VT) fuze will be the time set on the fuze corresponding to the range to the near limit of the impact area or computed minimum range line, whichever is greater, plus 5.5 seconds. (3) Forward movement of personnel within Area D requires that the SDZ advance according to the distance and direction of the personnel. If proximity or VT fuzes with adjustable arming times are used, forward movement of personnel is possible. VT fuze time settings will correspond to the range to the near limit of the impact area plus 5.5 seconds. (4) Warnings that field artillery projectiles may be fired at any time of the day will be posted on public roadways approved for overhead fire that passes through an installation or community. b. Rocket assisted projectiles will not be fired over the heads of unprotected troops during training exercises, except as provided in paragraph 1012b(8). 107. Expeditionary Fire Support System M327 120mm rifled towed mortar For the Marine Corps, the EFSS M327 120mm rifled towed mortar uses an SDZ similar to that of an artillery weapon system when firing spin-stabilized ammunition. Table 104 and figure 101 will be used to construct the SDZ for the EFSS M327 120mm rifled towed mortar. When firing fin-stabilized ammunition from the EFSS M327 120mm rifled towed mortar, use the SDZ in figure 91 and the data from table 91.

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Figure 101. Surface danger zone for firing field artillery cannon or Expeditionary Fire Support System 120mm (rifled) mortar in the indirect mode at ground, fixed, or moving targets

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Figure 102. Surface danger zone for firing field artillery cannon in the direct mode at ground, fixed, or moving targets

108. Antipersonnel ammunition (Army) a. Firing conditions. (1) Antipersonnel ammunition Army (APERS) ammunition is available for 105mm cannon artillery. It is designed for use against personnel in direct fire, muzzle action, or direct fire missions with a time setting. (2) APERS ammunition will not be fired over the heads of unprotected personnel. Hardware discarded by functioning of APERS projectiles presents a potential hazard to personnel to the side and rear of the weapon. b. Surface danger zone. (1) SDZ requirements for APERS ammunition is given in table 105 and figure 103. (2) Distance X is based on the range at 15 degrees QE. (3) For other than muzzle action functioning, begin APERS SDZ construction downrange at a distance equal to the time of fuze setting.

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Notes: 1 WARNING: Hardware discarded by the functioning of the projectile presents a potential hazard to unprotected personnel located to the side and rear of the weapon. 2 Distance is 2000m or 1.41D, whichever is greater. 3 For Distance X and Distance D, see table 105.

Figure 103. Surface danger zone for firing field artillery cannon with antipersonnel ammunition in the direct mode at fixed or moving targets1

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109. M712 Copperhead cannon-launched guided projectile (Army) a. Firing conditions. (1) FIST personnel located in the mission-essential area (MEA) will wear approved IBA and protective helmets. (2) FIST personnel are not authorized to occupy the SDZ when a Copperhead is fired in the ballistic mode. (3) Laser designators used with the Copperhead will be operated in accordance with the safety guidelines in chapter 16 of this pamphlet. (4) Specific safety procedures and firing computations for Copperhead projectiles are found in FM 640. b. Surface danger zone. (1) Special SDZ construction requirements for Copperhead projectiles, are given in figures 104 and 105. (2) The MEA must start at least 1.5km in front of the target and not exceed 3.5km in length (distance equals a total of 5km from the target). The MEA must remain outside of the prohibited area of the SDZ.

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1010. Flight corridors Flight corridors are created to vertically and laterally separate aircraft from surface fires. Aircraft may operate within or pass through artillery cannon danger zones, provided a. They are established where the maximum altitude of the aircraft will be below the ordinate corresponding to the minimum QE of the ammunition being fired above the flight corridor and corrected for density altitude. Flight corridors may provide access only through Area D. (See figs 101 and 106.) Altitudes in flight corridors will be indicated in mean sea level (MSL). b. Permanent aircraft flight corridors are established under firing corridors. Corridors will be through Area D and

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outside Areas C and E. Altitude restrictions will be in accordance with paragraph 1010a. Corridors will follow easily identifiable markers and routes. Flight control points will be established and aircrews briefed on flight navigation procedures. Maps of flight corridors (fig 107) will be made available at installation range control, facilities base operations, and other locations deemed appropriate by the installation RCO. c. Communications will be maintained among the designated aircraft, range control, and the firing unit on a common communications network. Aircraft will report entry and exit of specific vertical danger zones. This is not applicable to aircraft operating as part of tactical exercises with firing elements provided communication is maintained between participants. A communications failure with aircraft in a flight corridor requires an immediate cease-fire. These procedures will be established by local SOP. d. Aircraft operating within SDZs as part of an exercise will remain a minimum of 500m from GTLs and outside of Areas C and E. e. Only ammunition certified for overhead fire will be used when aircraft are operating in or passing over SDZs. f. Uncontrolled flights within SDZs are not authorized. g. Computing the stay above (SA) and stay below (SB) distances (for feet AGL) you must (1) Determine the GTL and the firing unit range to target. (2) Determine the munitions type and charge being fired. (3) Determine the vertical interval (VI) (VI=target altitude - firing unit altitude in meters). (4) Determine where the final attack heading (FAH) or cone crosses the GTL and the gun target range at those points. (5) Refer to the appropriate trajectory chart by munitions/charge and determine the arc corresponding to range to target. (6) Determine the altitude (in meters) corresponding to the ranges where the final attack cone crosses the GTL by tracing the arc to those ranges. (a) Highest altitude + VI = ALT 1. Multiply by 3.3 to convert to feet. (Note: if the final attack cone straddles the summit of the trajectory, use the Max Ord for ALT 1). (b) Lowest altitude + VI = ALT 1. Multiply by 3.3 to convert to feet. (7) Incorporate a 1000 foot buffer for all nonstandard conditions. (a) ALT 1 + 1000 ft = SA (expressed to the next highest 100 feet AGL). (b) ALT 1 - 1000 ft = SB (expressed safe to the next lowest 100 feet AGL). h. Computing the SA and SB distances (for feet MSL) you must (1) Determine the range to target in meters. (2) Determine the projectile and charge trajectory. (3) Determine target altitude in meters. (4) Plot final attack heading from (intersecting point 1) to (intersecting point 2) in degrees magnetic. (5) Determine where FAH intersects GTL at (intersecting point 1) and (intersecting point 2). (6) Determine chart ordinate in meters at (intersecting point 1) and (intersecting point 2). (7) Add target altitude to (IP 1) and (IP 2). (8) Convert to feet (IP1) X 3.3 and (IP2) X 3.3. (9) Add 1000 feet to (IP 1) and subtract 1000 feet from (IP2). i. When computing stay above or stay below the general rule is that if the FAH straddles the Max Ord, compute SA and SB against the Max Ord + or - 1000 feet.

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Figure 107. An example of an established flight corridor

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1011. Improved conventional munitions a. Firing conditions. (1) The firing of live improved conventional munitions projectiles and dropping of aircraft-delivered live submunitions on Army ranges in training are currently prohibited. (2) For the Marine Corps, the firing of dual-purpose improved conventional munitions is authorized in accordance with MCO P8011.4 and current MCBul 8011. Local range SOPs will dictate the specific conditions under which dualpurpose improved conventional munitions munitions may be employed in training. (3) ICM projectiles will not be fired over the heads of troops in training exercises. (4) When ICM carriers fail to function and impact on hard surfaces, up range and lateral ricochets of up to 500m may occur. b. Surface danger zone. (1) Requirements for field artillery cannon fired ICM are given in figures 101. Conventional ballistic tabular firing table data for the particular caliber projectile and weapon system combination will be used to determine maximum range when firing ICM projectiles. (See table 106). (2) The impact area should be relatively flat and free from heavy vegetation. (3) Danger Areas A and B will be observed for all firings of ICM projectiles. The data necessary to determine each of these are in table 107. (4) The special design of ICM projectiles subjects them to the effects of wind velocity more than standard conventional projectiles. Sub-missile drift factors listed in table 108 may be added to or subtracted from the basic trajectory distances presented in respective ballistic tabular firing tables. For example, if the wind is blowing at 50 knots from the gun position toward the target and the gun is being fired at 600 mil (33.75 degrees), the maximum range from the firing table will be increased by 150m. If the wind is coming perpendicular (left to right) to the GTL, the right deflection will be increased 160m and the left deflection will be decreased 160m.

1012. Multiple Launch Rocket System and High Mobility Artillery Rocket System a. Firing conditions. (1) All non-mission-essential personnel will be cleared from the SDZ. (2) Meteorological data in use at the fire control system will not be more than 4 hours old. (3) The weapon system navigation unit must be verified as correct. Ensure that the launcher is properly calibrated (M270 only), updated with a verified survey control point (if not using GPS navigation), and that startup data is correct. (4) Fire control system internal tests must be successfully completed. (5) Firings will not be conducted if: (a) There is any question of proper operation of the launcher. (b) The winds have changed dramatically since meteorological data was taken. (c) Any other sign of abnormal operation is evident. (6) Safe separation distance between Multiple Launch Rocket System (MLRS) and High Mobility Artillery Rocket System (HIMARS) launchers firing simultaneously is 55m. b. Surface danger zone. (1) MLRS/HIMARS safety computations are contained in FM 309.8 and MCRP 31.6.24. Values for Distance W and Distance X in FM 309.60 and MCRP 31.6.24 have danger Areas A and B included in their values. (2) MLRS/HIMARS SDZ requirements for practice and tactical (for combat only with M77 grenade payload) warheads are provided in table 109 and figures 108, 109, 1010, 1011, 1012, and 1013. Dimensions of the SDZ vary according to range to target and launcher height above mean sea level. The SDZ consists of an impact area, Areas A, B, and F and exclusion Areas I, II, and III forming a rectangle around the target with a corresponding flight corridor back toward the launcher. (3) The rectangular impact area extends X meters beyond the target, Distance W to the left and right of the target, and 2,200m from the target toward the launcher (Distance Y). The construction of the SDZ is completed by connecting the near left and right corners of the rectangle to respective points 350m to the left and right of the launcher. The impact area is designed to contain fragments and debris (payload, warhead skin, and rocket motor) from normal functioning rockets. Distance X is adequate to contain rockets when the fuze fails to function. (4) Area A is 320m. (5) Area B is 1,300m. (6) Exclusion Area I is the 4,700m area that extends forward of the launcher. It is endangered by premature fuze function or failure of the rocket motor during boost phase. Exclusion Area I may be reduced to not less than 1,000m by deviation. (7) Exclusion Area III is an area 1,800m on the up-range side of the impact area and parallel to Area B. This area is designed to contain fragments and debris from early functioning warheads at the near edge of the impact area. (8) Exclusion Area II is the remaining area located between Exclusion Areas I and III once these areas are constructed. Occupation of Exclusion Area II by unprotected personnel is authorized only under an approved deviation. Length of Exclusion Area II varies with range to target. (9) Area F is the area immediately to the rear of the launcher directly exposed to blast overpressure, fragments, and debris from rocket launch. Area F consists of two parts, the launcher danger area (LDA) and the noise hazard area (NHA). The LDA extends 350m to each side of the launcher and 400m to the rear. Personnel are not authorized to occupy the LDA during firing. The NHA extends an additional 300m to 500m past the LDA and may only be occupied by participating personnel wearing approved hearing protection. (10) Fin release failure impact area is required only for tactical rockets. This area is a sector with an origin at the

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launcher with a radius of 12,500m. It includes a total angular measurement of 114 degrees centered about the azimuth of fire.

Notes: 1 H is the height of launcher above MSL in meters. 2 For targets less than 11,500m from the launcher, Distance X shall vary so that the distance from the launcher to the far edge of the impact area shall be 16,700 + H meters. Adding Area B results in a minimum required distance of 18,000 + H for short shots.

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1013. Multiple Launch Rocket System/High Mobility Artillery Rocket System reduced range practice rocket a. Firing conditions for Multiple Launch Rocket System/High Mobility Artillery Rocket System reduced range practice rocket. These are the same as for standard MLRS and HIMARS (See para 1012a). b. Surface danger zone. (1) MLRS/HIMARS reduced range practice rocket (RRPR) SDZ requirements are given in table 1010 and figures 1010, 1011, 1012, 1013, and 1014. (2) The SDZ consists of an impact area, a target area or target point, a safety fan (for firing point to point and operational area (OPAREA) SDZs only), flight corridors, Exclusion Areas I and II, and Area F. (3) The SDZ impact area is the rectangular area that will contain all but one in one million normally functioning rockets and debris. It is perpendicular to and bisected by the azimuth of fire. (4) Distances W, X, and Y are buffer distances accounting for debris distribution. Applied inward to determine target areas or outward from a single point, these buffers ensure that less than one in one million normally functioning rockets impact outside prescribed safety limits. With regard to the azimuth of fire, Distance X is beyond the target, Distance Y is short of the target, and Distance W is to the flanks of the target. (5) For the point-to-point method, the target box is determined by applying the values found in table 1010, up range, down range, and laterally from the target location. (6) The safety fan is defined by range and lateral limits within the target area. (7) The flight corridors are areas parallel to the limits of the safety fan that extend from the forward corners of Area F to the far edge of the SDZ impact area. (8) Exclusion Area I is the danger area directly in front of the firing point or OPAREA. This area extends 2,500m toward the impact area (1:10,000 probability of injury). Based on risk estimates, Exclusion Area I may be reduced, by deviation, to not less than 1,000m (1:1000 probability of injury) (see fig 1012). (9) Exclusion Area II is the danger area between the forward limit of Exclusion Area I and the SDZ impact area. Exclusion Area II may be occupied by deviation only, per the criteria for overhead fire described in paragraph 1012c. (10) Area F is the area immediately to the rear of the launcher or OPAREA. Personnel may be exposed to blast overpressure, fragments, and debris from rocket launch. Area F extends 350m to each side of the launcher and 400m to the rear for point to point or firing point safety methods. It extends 400m to each side of the OPAREA and 40m to the rear of the OPAREA for OPAREA firing method. Personnel are not authorized to occupy Area F during firing. The NHA extends an additional 300m past Area F and may only be occupied by mission-essential personnel wearing approved hearing protection. (11) The target selection box (firing point and OPAREA SDZ only) is the set of all points from which a unit may select targets that will generate safe data regardless of where the launcher is within the OPAREA. c. Overhead fire. (1) The RRPR contains the same rocket motor failure potential as the basic rocket. However, because the RRPR does not have an explosive warhead event, the risk of firing over the heads of personnel authorized to occupy the SDZ is less than with the basic practice rocket. (2) To calculate the risk of injury to personnel during overhead fire of RRPR under deviation, use a short round probability of 1 per 10,000 (.0001) firing when a 2,500m Exclusion Area I is used. If a 1,000m Exclusion Area I is used, a short round probability of 1 per 1,000 firings should be used. This information should be used in conjunction with personnel density and areas occupied to calculate risk to personnel on a per-shot basis. (3) An evaluation of the RRPR flight corridor is necessary to ensure accurate risk assessment and provide options for improved training and firing flexibility. Two options for assessing probability are as follows: (a) If a 2,500m Exclusion Area I in front of the launcher is used, a short round probability of 1 per 10,000 firings should be applied. (b) If a 1,000m Exclusion Area I in front of the launcher is used, a short round probability of 1 per 1,000 firings should be applied. (4) For both options, the short round hazardous debris area to be used for ranges up to 12km is 300 x 100m; for ranges from 12.1km to 15km, use 100 x 50m. (5) The calculations in figure 1015 are provided to assist in determining risk of RRPR overhead fire and should be chosen based on the training mission requirements. (6) These calculations provide for the ability to estimate a reasonable probability of injury(ies) or vehicle damage. They are estimates and assume a certain level of randomness and uniformity. The probabilities are established so that, although grouping of troops could result in multiple injuries, this grouping would also realistically result in a lower overall probability of injury.

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Chapter 11 Aviation Range Safety

111. General a. Aircrew requirements. (1) All aircrew operating within a range/training airspace complex shall participate in a range safety brief and understand installation range regulations prior to operating within the complex. (2) Aircrews shall take all measures necessary to ensure they conduct training within assigned SUA or other authorized operating areas and that all effects are contained within range complex boundaries. b. Scheduling. (1) All aviation operations conducted within a range/SUA shall be scheduled with the scheduling activity. (2) SUA will be scheduled via the Range Facility Management Support System when available and designated/ activated in accordance with paragraph 24 of this pamphlet for all air-to-ground operations. c. Communications. (1) Two-way communication will be maintained between the OIC and the installation range control office. (2) Range control must be able to maintain radio contact with all aircraft operating on the range. Communication relays are authorized as long as the RCO has a method (for example, tunable radio) to contact aircraft immediately in the event of an imminent situation. (3) All aircraft utilizing ranges shall monitor the guard frequency. Range management will have the capability to transmit/receive on the Guard frequency (121.5 VHF/243.0 UHF). d. Weather. (1) All aviation training shall be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) unless otherwise approved by the OIC and coordinated with range control. (2) The local weather detachment or command post must advise the OIC/RCO of any sudden adverse weather changes (watches, warnings, or advisories) that might impact range operations or safety.

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(3) The OIC will monitor weather conditions (such as altimeter, wind direction/velocity, and ceiling) and provide general safety and weather updates during range operations as required. e. Paradrops. (1) The unit using the drop zone (DZ) is required to survey the DZ 24 hours prior to use. (2) Paradrop aircrew and DZ personnel shall maintain communications with range control. (3) DZs will be confirmed clear before commencement of parachute or paradrop operations. (4) Joint Precision Airdrop System (JPADS). (a) The unit dropping the load is responsible for using JPADS mission planning software before they fly the mission. (b) Range control will approve Improved-Container Delivery System deliveries only if the Precision Airdrop System-Mission Planner derived point of impact, the 3sigma footprint for chute failure, and the guidance failure footprint overlay on government owned, leased, or otherwise controlled land with no unauthorized personnel present and a collateral damage estimate acceptable to the RCO. (c) Equipment, facilities and participating personnel are permitted within the 3sigma success, chute failure, and the guidance failure footprints as long as range management has conducted and approved an operational risk assessment. (d) RCOs should note that JPADS users may desire to update weather observations by dropping a sonde (foot long metal wind sensor) for wind updates in order to revise footprint analyses up until the time of delivery. f. Countermeasures. The use of chaff/flares will comply with local range regulations/SOPs, FAA requirements, and in accordance with aircraft TMs. 112. Firing operations, general requirements a. Weapon danger zones. (1) Air-to-ground delivery of munitions can be accomplished from a variety of platforms to include fixed wing (FW), rotary wing (RW), and unmanned aircraft systems (UAS). The hazardous zone associated with these munitions will now be generated through the use of the weapon danger zone tool that can provide a weapon danger zone for all aviation delivered ordnance. The weapon danger zone is modeled to represent the distribution of impacts, ricochets/ broaches, and the vertical hazard associated with fragmentation and the ricochet (see para 116). (2) The three-dimensional aspect of munitions delivery can present many challenges when determining the safe location of personnel and facilities operating on the ground. RMTK advances in computer modeling, programming, software, and improved risk analysis provided by the weapon danger zone tool enables RCOs to reduce risks to personnel and facilities involved with aviation operations. (3) RCOs must employ safe management practices that provide the visibility and control required for the integration of both air and ground operations. The use of the weapon danger zone tool supplemented with an aggressive risk mitigation program will help reduce the complications and dangers associated with this training. b. Aircrew currency qualifications for aviation weapons delivery. (1) Army. (a) During firing, qualified standardization instructor pilots or instructor pilots having immediate access to positive control of the aircraft and weapon systems being fired will accompany pilots and gunners who are not current and qualified in the aircraft. (b) Qualified nonrated crew member flight instructors or nonrated crew member unit trainers having immediate access to the weapons systems being fired will accompany door gunners who are not current and qualified. (2) Marine Corps: Marine pilot and aerial gunners will demonstrate flight and weapons system proficiency in accordance with the appropriate TMs/T&R manual. c. Aircrew weapons qualifications for aviation weapons delivery. (1) Pilots and gunners will successfully complete an approved qualification course or qualification or transition training in accordance with an approved program of instruction. (2) Pilots and gunners will demonstrate flight and weapon systems proficiency in accordance with TC 04.11, FM 304.140, and the appropriate aircrew training manuals. d. Communications. (1) All firing elements must maintain positive two-way communications with the OIC. (2) Firing will be suspended immediately upon loss of communications with range control, the OIC, or firing elements. (3) Command and control aircraft may be used at the commanders discretion. e. Night operations. (1) Night range operations present unique challenges to both the aircrew and the OIC. Visual cues are greatly reduced, even with the use of night vision devices (NVDs). (2) OICs should use NVDs during night operations and have access to a minimum of Generation III NVDs.

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113. Firing conditions, general procedures a. General. (1) Pilots and gunners will be familiar with the impact area, firing limits, and safety regulations for the range on which they will fire. (2) The firing aircraft pilot in command will ensure that firing aircraft are properly oriented with the target and are safe to fire. (3) For FW operations: If the OIC cannot positively determine that the aircraft can release safely, the OIC will delegate ordnance release clearance to a qualified flight lead, individual pilot, FAC, or other briefed person. The OIC will maintain overall authority on the range for the training event and can abort the release or direct a ceasefire at anytime. In all cases the pilot assumes sole responsibility for the safe release of ordnance and confirmation of the approved target. (4) For UAS operations: The mission commander will maintain the responsibility for the safe operation of payload and platform. (5) All live-fire training must be observed. b. Armament Safety Procedures. (1) Aircraft weapon systems will be loaded or unloaded only in approved areas. Selection of these areas will ensure total containment in the event of accidental discharge. The weapon systems dispersion angle and maximum range will be considered if natural or manmade barriers are not used. (2) Airspace routing used by RW aircraft flying from the ammunition loading site to and from the firing range will be plotted on a map or chart and maintained by both the using unit and the installation range control office. This course will be selected so that accidental firing at any point on the course will minimize risk to life and property, however, aircraft weapon systems will be maintained in a safe condition until within the range boundary. RW aircraft routing from the ammunition loading site to the firing range will be published in local SOPs. (3) When training requirements dictate, commanders (battalion, squadron, or higher) will direct the loading and unloading of ammunition from aircraft while the engines are running. Such operations are authorized when a thorough risk assessment has been conducted, control measures implemented and residual risks identified and accepted by the appropriate commander. (4) A dry pass or range sweep for the entire range, focusing on the target area, will be accomplished to ensure personnel are clear from hazardous effects. Aircraft may use onboard sensors (advance targeting pods, sniper, lighting), or UAS targeting payload in lieu of a dry pass. Terminal controllers observing the target area may waive the dry pass. (5) Prior to first weapons release/firing for each pass, final switch configuration will not be accomplished until the aircraft is in such a position that accidental activation or release will be contained within the range, and not represent a danger to ground personnel. (6) Aircraft will be a minimum of one switch position (excluding trigger) away from weapons release/firing when not oriented toward the target area unless approved by range control. Switch manipulation shall not occur until after safe recovery of weapons delivery/firing. RW aircraft will be in a safe condition prior to departing an aerial firing point unless otherwise directed. (7) Prior to leaving a range area, FW aircraft will conduct a hung ordnance check. If hung ordnance remains on board the aircraft due to malfunction, loss of range time, etc., then ensure compliance with local restrictions to avoid undue risk for the return flight. For RW aircraft, the pilot in command shall ensure that all weapon systems are clear of ammunition prior to departing the range. Upon completion of training, aircraft weapon systems will be safed in accordance with aircraft TMS before leaving the range. (8) Crash rescue personnel will be knowledgeable of safety precautions associated with armed aircraft and impact areas and the hazards associated with burned aircraft (for example, radioactive and advanced composite materials). c. Hung ordnance and jettison areas. (1) Range control will ensure all aircraft report ordnance expended, hung ordnance, and UXO locations to range control prior to departing the range. (2) Installation SOPs and range directives will designate ordnance jettison and emergency landing areas for use by aircraft experiencing weapons malfunctions or in-flight emergencies. (3) Jettison areas will be located such that maximum protection is provided to personnel and range facilities in case the jettisoned ordnance detonates. d. Fuel spill materials (spill kits) will be available at forward arming and refueling points. Fuel tankers used to refuel aircraft will be equipped with sufficient absorbent material to handle small to moderate spills. e. Commanders will develop and implement an aggressive program to ensure crew coordination and combat identification procedures concurrent with the gunnery training program. For the Army, combat identification training will be conducted in accordance with TC 258, TC 304.11, TC 304.35, FM 304.140, and appropriate air crew training manuals.

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114. Firing conditions, specific requirements a. Running fire. When conducting running fires, cockpit displayed graphics, ground markers, or prominent terrain will be used to mark start and cease fire lines. b. Hover fire. When conducting hover fire, the firing position will be marked. If possible, hover fire should be conducted over level/improved terrain. Natural or manmade features will be used to aid in the establishment of range boundaries and control measures. c. Markers. When used, markers will be illuminated and/or thermalized when thermal weapons sights are used to ensure proper target area identification at times of limited visibility when required. Additional ground markings will be used at the discretion of the commanding officer or the range OIC. Adjacent ranges within a range complex that support aviation live-fire should be marked or lighted to facilitate aircrew identification of their assigned range. d. Rotary wing flanking fire. (1) RW gun and rocket weapon systems will be used to provide flanking fire, as shown in figure 111, when a minimum lateral distance of 100m or 15 degrees between exposed troops and firing aircraft gun target line is maintained. Additionally, exposed troops must be positioned outside the weapon danger zone/SDZ footprint. (2) Positive means will be employed to ensure that the firing unit knows the location of the maneuver units while fire support is being provided. (3) Only non-explosive projectiles will be used for rotary wing flanking fire. (4) The route and location of maneuver units and the firing aircraft providing flanking fire support will be described and briefed in detail. The use of cockpit displayed graphics, and/or recognizable natural/manmade terrain features, and other means of friendly position marking in accordance with table 111 will be used by exposed troops. (5) Firing aircraft must positively identify the front line trace of exposed troops prior to engagement. e. Rotary wing/tilt rotor door gunnery operations. (1) Door gunnery operations will be conducted according to the appropriate gunnery manuals (FM 304.140 for the Army). Marine Corps units will follow the procedures established in the Marine Aviation Weapons and Tactics Squadron One (MAWTS1) Aerial Gunnery Manual and appropriate TM (NWP 559ASH) for the specific type aircraft. (2) All personnel on the aircraft will wear at least single-hearing protection when firing weapons. f. Rockets. (1) Training operations. Training operations conducted in conjunction with aerial rocket firing must be suspended if winds or gusts exceed 30 knots. (2) Rotary wing aerial rockets. The launch angle in degrees equals launcher QE in mils divided by 17.7 plus the aircraft pitch in degrees. For articulating launchers, use the maximum articulated QE possible plus the aircraft pitch in degrees. (a) Maximum launcher QE shall not exceed 160 mils. (b) Maximum range of the 2.75-inch rocket with the MK66 motor is 12,000m launched at 45 degrees and below standard air density. (c) Firing of the M267 multipurpose sub-munition practice rocket is prohibited if crosswinds exceed 20 knots. The M75 practice sub-munition may be either inert or have an explosive spotting charge. Inert M75 sub-munitions are painted blue and have no ram air decelerator. M75 sub-munitions with explosive spotting charges are painted blue with a brown band and have bright yellow ram air decelerator. The dud M75 has a clean underside. The functioned M75 has soot and burn marks on the underside of the sub-munition body. An armed M231 fuse for the M75 is identified by a slider that sticks out from the sub-munition body about 1.3cm. This slider has a red tip and a V notch. (d) Firing of the M261 HE multipurpose sub-munition rocket is prohibited in training by the Army only, and/or on Army ranges. (e) Units using the 2.75 (70mm) aerial rocket are authorized to fire the M255A1 Flechette service munition on range complexes (such as a multipurpose range complex, multipurpose training range, digital multipurpose range complex, digital multipurpose training range, or digital air/ground integration range that support the SDZ. There is no requirement to limit firing of the M255 flechette into permanently dudded impact areas. The M255A1 presents a hazard similar to the M267 training rocket and is not inherently hazardous. Prudent safety measures and operational practices can minimize risks and burdens to range personnel. RCOs should identify specific moving armor targets and stationary armor targets for flechette engagements. Aviation crews will typically engage while conducting running fire and close to a range of 1,500m to launch the munition. Selected targets should be in the most downrange third of the range complex. This will minimize expended flechette damage to vehicle tires and risks to range personnel. RCOs may employ magnet sweepers to clear expended flechettes from highly travelled service roads. Flechette rockets that fail to function should be marked upon discovery and referred to EOD personnel for removal. (3) The following restrictions apply when firing the 2.75in folding fin aerial rocket with the M278 IR illumination warhead. (a) The pilot/gunner will ensure that the M278 IR Illumination Warhead deployment occurs at least 1,500ft AGL on training areas. Deployment of the flare below 1500ft AGL significantly increases the risk of ground fires.

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(b) The pilot/gunner will mitigate the hazard of spent rocket motor impact. The spent rocket motor impact point can be approximately 700m to 1200m beyond the point of flare deployment. (c) When the rocket with the M278 warhead is fired in the vicinity of friendly troops and personnel in an uncovered position, ground personnel shall wear PPE Level 1. (d) Pilots must exercise extreme caution when operating in the vicinity of IR illumination flares. Once the flare burns out, the flare container and parachute will not be visible during its decent. g. Inertial aided munitions. (1) Inertial aided munitions are smart weapons, such as a GBU38 joint direct attack munition (JDAM), GBU44 Viper Strike, or Griffin small tactical munition, that employ GPS as an inertial aid to acquire target location. (2) Aircraft employing Inertial aided munitions in a bomb-on-coordinate mode or aircraft employing any ordnance in a system delivery mode on coordinates only will adhere to the following prior to release: (a) Aircrew will confirm the accuracy of the aircraft navigation and weapon delivery systems. For the Marine Corps, aircrew will confirm aircraft health, weapon health, and coordinate in accordance with current MAWTS1 or weapon school technical training procedures. (b) Aircrew will ensure accurate receipt and entry of target coordinates and that they come from a valid target source. These coordinates will be verified via read-back from target data entry displays or will be cross-checked with mission planning data or range guides but must include one other person, in addition to the pilot, verifying coordinate/ elevation accuracy (either in-flight or during mission planning). Examples of valid target sources include, but are not limited to RCOs, Joint terminal attack controllers, range guides, or forward air controller-airborne qualified aircrew. (c) Aircrew will use all means available to verify accuracy of target coordinates/elevation, and that the coordinates are within the anticipated target area. Examples of available means include but are not limited to forward looking infrared radar, synthetic radar aperture map, heads-up display cueing, other aircraft sensors, terrain pointer, map plots, data links, radio communications, talk-ons with JTACs, RCOs, and other aircrew members. (d) Aircrew will confirm and adhere to published range operating procedures and restrictions. h. GBU44 Viper Strike, Griffin. Both the Viper Strike and Griffin weapon systems have post-launch debris that will fall to the ground after the weapon is launched from the aircraft. This includes aft-launch tube covers, support brackets, and parachutes (Viper Strike). Although the probability of someone being injured by these lightweight items is low, it is recommended that the area below the launch point be cleared of personnel for a radius of 2,000m. i. AGM114 HELLFIRE missiles. AGM114 HELLFIRE missiles shall not be fired if there are tail winds in excess of 20 knots. Further restrictions for HELLFIRE missiles can be found in paragraphs 1110, 1111, and 1112.

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115. Unmanned aircraft systems considerations a. Operator/Air mission commander requirements. (1) All operators who control unmanned aircraft systems (UAS) platforms/payloads within range complex training airspace shall participate in a range safety brief and become familiar with installation range regulations prior to operating within the complex. (2) Air mission commanders who oversee UAS operations/training within range complex training airspace shall participate in a range safety brief and become familiar with installation range regulations prior to conducting operations within the complex. (3) Air mission commanders shall take all measures necessary to ensure training/operations are conducted within assigned SUA or other authorized operating area and that unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) and all effects (for example, munitions/laser) are contained within assigned boundaries. (4) UAS operational unit commanders shall ensure that all UAS performance, air worthiness and related requirements meet system safety standards prior to operating UAVs within assigned range space. b. Operator qualifications for platform/payload operations, aviation weapons delivery/terminal guidance. (1) Army (a) Operators will successfully complete an approved qualification course, or qualification, or transition training in accordance with an approved program of instruction. (b) Operators will demonstrate platform, payload, and weapon systems proficiency in accordance with TC 1600 and FM 304.140. (2) Marine Corps. Marine operators will demonstrate proficiency in accordance with the appropriate TMS T&R manual. c. Fielded systems. (1) Ensure range control facility personnel are familiar with the flight characteristics of UAS involved in range aviation operations. (2) Ensure all UAS operations are scheduled and approved by range control. Include the coordination radio frequencies, loss of contact procedures, climb/descent corridors, operating altitudes, and proximity to other aircraft and personnel. (3) UAS operators shall maintain radio contact with range control or the OIC at all times. (4) Unless accomplished during initial coordination, request and receive clearance from range control or control agency personnel before changing UAS assigned position, altitude, or route. If UAS loses uplink for a short period of time, the aircraft will automatically execute return home procedures so that the uplink can be reacquired. (5) For ordnance delivery, operate UAS in VMC and when the weather is forecast to remain VMC throughout the flight. (6) If operating with weapons, arm ordnance for delivery only when the aircraft is within the SUA and in a position from which, if released, the ordnance will remain within the designated impact area. (7) The UAS operator will notify range control/OIC when the UAS has completed ordnance delivery and when departing the range. (8) The mission commander will maintain the responsibility for the safe operation of payload and platform. d. Developmental/Experimental UAS Systems. If the UAS has not yet been fielded, provide range control facility personnel current reliability information and a worst case depiction of potential range, direction and SUA point of departure for developmental/experimental UAS in the event that loss of contact procedures fail. e. UAS Operations Conducted Outside Restricted Areas and Warning Areas. UAS operations conducted outside restricted areas and/or warning areas shall comply with the provision of FAA O 7610.4 and MOA Concerning the Operation of DOD UAS in the NAS dtd 24 Sep 07. f. Firing will be suspended immediately upon loss of communications with range control, the OIC, or firing elements. 116. Weapon danger zone program methodology a. Weapon danger zones identify the minimum area necessary to contain munitions and hazardous fragments within the installation or range boundary that result from air-to-ground ordnance delivery operations. b. The principle objective of the weapon danger zone program is to assist range control in executing safe range operations. Weapon danger zone program methodology identifies weapon impact point probabilities from a variety of platforms and parameters, thus providing range control with a scientific basis for making sound range planning decisions and to facilitate training readiness. It enables range control personnel to: (1) Contain ordnance and fragmentation within range boundaries. (2) Identify appropriate containment levels and risk associated with the areas identified as needing specific risk analysis, or the area of critical concern. (3) Identify possible or improved target locations. (4) Modify allowable delivery ground tracks to eliminate or reduce hazards.

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(5) Identify the best locations for range modifications or improvements. (6) Design a new target area/range. c. The methodology is based on a combination of weapon modeling/simulation data and actual impact data. Each weapon danger zone incorporates a probability distribution function which provides the information necessary to perform a quantitative risk assessment to evaluate the relative risk of an identified profile. d. Every type of air-to-ground aviation ordnance should have a weapon danger zone. This weapon danger zone (the weapons footprint) is calculated based on the type of aircraft delivering the weapon (for example, F/A18 Hornet aircraft or OH58D Kiowa helicopter), the delivery parameters of the aircraft (dive angle, airspeed, altitude, and so forth), type of ordnance being delivered (for example, MK82 bomb and AGM114 HELLFIRE missile), and the level of containment desired. e. Weapon danger zones may be further affected by terrain, artificial barriers, or other compensating factors such as target type (wood, metal) and soil hardness. f. Representative examples and descriptions of weapon danger zones are reviewed in chapter 3. 117. Weapon danger zone tool a. Weapon danger zones for FW, RW and UAS are generated with the weapon danger zone tool as part of the RMTK package. The weapon danger zone tool is a GIS-based application that is available to operational planners and RCOs in both desktop and web-based versions. b. The weapon danger zone tool will lead the user through the weapon danger zone generation process. It will help range managers determine aircraft type, ordnance, and delivery parameters that are permissible for each target. c. A record (electronic or hard copy) of the analysis of each target engaged during the training evolution will be maintained at range control. The weapon danger zone manager (library function) may be used to meet this requirement. d. Range control personnel will publish air-to-ground ordnance delivery regulations for each target in the range SOP, specifying ordnance permitted as well as any restrictions (dive angle, airspeed, run-in heading) associated with that target or specific training event. Proper target analysis will include, but is not limited to the following: (1) Approved ordnance for the range target. (2) Type of deliveries allowed. (3) Run-in restriction if required for a specific weapon or delivery. (4) Approved containment boundary. (5) Weather minimums if more restrictive than standard visual flight rules operating requirements. (6) Any other constraints or restrictions required to allow weapons delivery on the identified target. e. For deliveries not contained within the SOP, the using unit may submit proposed weapon danger zone s to the range control office for consideration. f. Weapon danger zones will be developed and tested as new weapons, aircraft, and delivery parameters are produced and enter the operational inventory. Appropriate higher headquarters will ensure weapon danger zones are available prior to levying new weapons training requirements or introducing new aircraft and weapons into the DOD inventory. g. The weapon danger zone tool is an integral application of RMTK and may also be accessed on the web: (1) Army: SRP Web site - https://srp.army.mil (2) Marine Corps: RTAM Web site - https://rtam.tecom.usmc.mil 118. Applying the weapon danger zone tool a. Containment. (1) The containment of a weapon systems performance envelope, impact footprint, and/or associated debris fields require the surface area (land or sea) to be protected by purchase, lease, or other restriction to exclude personnel from that area. This general policy ensures safety will be maximized and consistent with mission requirements. (2) The weapon danger zone tool allows selectable levels for weapons containment ranging from 1:10,000 probability to a 1:1,000,000 probability of a munition escaping the containment area (for inert ordnance) or a live weapons fragment escaping the containment area (for live ordnance). (3) The safety standard for Army and Marine Corps ranges is 1:1,000,000. (a) Fixed wing aircraft. All weapon danger zones will be generated with a minimum containment standard of 1:1,000,000 (99.9999 percent). (b) Rotary wing and tilt rotor aircraft. All weapon danger zones will be generated with a minimum containment standard of 1:1,000,000 (99.9999 percent). (c) Unmanned Aircraft System. All weapon danger zones will be generated with a minimum containment standard of 1:1,000,000 (99.9999%). (4) For the Army, if the selected containment level is too large to support necessary operations, a smaller containment level may be accepted with the completion of an appropriate risk analysis and deviation process referenced in AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C, and FM 519. For the Marine Corps, if the selected containment level is too large to

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support necessary operations, contact CG MCCDC, RTAM Division (C465), 2079 Barnett Avenue, Quantico, VA 221345001 for assistance in development of the appropriate risk analysis and deviation process referenced in AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C FM 519, and MCO 3500.27B. (5) Subject to deviation, weapon danger zones may be further reduced by selecting the option to mitigate for terrain. (6) Deviations approved for weapon danger zones extending beyond installation boundaries must be based on the ability to contain projectiles, hazardous fragments, laser beams, and both vertical and horizontal ricochets sufficiently within the installation boundaries, and area under military control (such as leased land or training areas and facilities acquired through memorandum of understanding or memorandum of agreement). Probability of hazardous fragment escapement must not present a greater than 1:1,000,000 hazard to the public. b. Mission essential personnel. (1) Placement of mission essential personnel (MEP) within a weapon danger zone may be authorized by the RCO or the operational commander of the training or exercise. (2) Essential personnel are those personnel directly related to the employment of live/inert ordnance (air, surface, or sea fires) in an exercise or evaluation on a training range in a training/evaluation scenario (all those people that are receiving/giving the training and or receiving/giving the evaluation). This would include JTACs, tactical air control parties (TACPs), maneuver elements, fires elements (air/land/sea), and instructors/evaluators. c. Risk analysis. (1) The weapon danger zone tool risk analysis function can show the probability of impacts within a selectable, defined area of the weapon danger zone. This function will help define the risk associated with a specific location within the weapon danger zone, dependent upon the weapons system employed and the size of the area at risk or area of critical concern. (2) Area of critical concerns may involve the placement of MEP (such as, JTAC or TACP) or the location of towers or other facilities within the weapon danger zone. For area of critical concerns that contain MEP, the ROC/OIC will use the weapon danger zone Tool Risk Analysis function and will not accept greater risk than the safety standard of 1:1,000,000 unless a thorough risk assessment, CRM/ORM process has been completed per reference FM 519 and MCO 3500.27B. (3) Risk may be mitigated by moving the location of the personnel, decreasing their vulnerability through the use of terrain features or bunkers, or reducing the dimensions of the area. (4) Non-participating personnel must be outside the weapon danger zone at all times. 119. Rotary wing surface danger zones a. General. (1) SDZs will be used for RW aircraft when weapon danger zone generation is not available. (2) For firing from a hover, SDZs will be superimposed over the GTL at each firing point. On running fire courses, SDZs will be superimposed over each anticipated firing position along the course. These SDZs will begin at the startfire line and move along the course to each anticipated firing point to the cease-fire line. (3) A range may contain several different hover fire points or running fire courses where multiple aircraft can fire at the same time. The resultant SDZ will be a composite formed by individual SDZs. When multiple aircraft are firing at the same time, controls will be established to ensure the safety of all participating aircraft. (4) The lateral limits of the target area determine the left and right limits of fire, which will begin at any point beyond the start-fire line provided the minimum safe distance (for example, ricochet area, Areas A and B) for the weapon system being fired is maintained from the aircraft to the point of impact. For running fire, Distance X will be measured from the cease-fire line. b. Guns and Cannon. SDZ requirements for safe firing of 7.62mm, .50 caliber machine guns, and 20mm and 30mm cannons from RW aircraft are given in chapter 4. c. Rockets. (1) SDZ requirements for the safe firing of the 2.75inch folding fin aerial rocket weapon systems from rotary-wing aircraft for hover and running fire are given in table 112 and figures 112 and 113, and are the basis for constructing the SDZ. (2) The distance from the cease-fire line or disarm line to the closest edge of Area B will be Distance X for the weapon system being fired. (3) Areas A and B for HE/flechette warhead-equipped rockets are 300m wide. However, Areas A and B are not required for inert/training munitions. (4) For mixed loads, Distance X is based on the rocket having the greatest range for the highest expected launch angle. d. Tube-launched, optically-tracked, wire-guided missile surface danger zone. For TOW antitank guided missiles contained in chapter 7, these apply to basic TOW, Improved TOW, TOW 2A and TOW 2B missiles fired from Army and Marine Corps helicopters.

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1110. HELLFIRE missile (semi-active laser) designation criteria a. Due to the large size of the HELLFIRE weapon danger zone/SDZ and the limited range of the designators, it may be necessary to place designator operators within HELLFIRE weapon danger zones/SDZs during training operations. Remote laser designation will take place from a position at least 150m laterally from the launch aircraft to target line, while adhering to the designator zone requirements. Three designator zones have been established within the weapon danger zone/SDZ and are depicted in figures 114, 115, 116, 117, and 118. (1) Prohibited designator zone. No designator operators are allowed in this zone because of the unacceptable probabilities associated with the following hazards: (a) The missile seeker can track the laser backscatter energy at the exit aperture of the designator or along the path of the laser beam. (b) The probability of random missile engagement errors is the highest within this zone. (2) Protected designator zone. Designator operators are not vulnerable to a normally functioning missile tracking the laser backscatter energy in this zone. However, there is a possibility that the missile will track and impact an obstruction such as trees, grass, or hills near the designator operator if it is accidentally illuminated by the laser beam. There is a possibility of a random missile failure impacting within 150m of a designator operator in this zone. Therefore, the number of personnel in this area must be kept to a minimum consistent with mission requirements. (a) Only ground designator operators will occupy the protected designator zone. Ground designator operators will wear approved flak jackets/IBA, protective helmets, and laser eye protection, and be located in protected positions such as surrounded by sand bags that enclose the designator operator. (b) The designator will have a clear, unobstructed line of sight to the target. Ensure designator line of sight is unobstructed across the entire path of a moving target during the time of missile flight to impact. (c) Ground designator operations must ensure that they do not inadvertently laze through battlefield obscurants such as smoke, obstacles, or dust caused by other personnel, vehicles, and so forth. (3) Unprotected designator zone. Although designator operators are not vulnerable to a normally functioning missile tracking backscatter or false targets in this zone, there is still a possibility of being injured by a random missile failure. (a) As a minimum, ground designator operators will wear approved flak jackets/IBA, protective helmets, and laser eye protection. (b) Airborne designator operators must ensure that they are either over ground conditions that do not create dust or are at an altitude where rotor downwash does not create dust. (c) Ensure designator line of sight is unobstructed across the entire path of a moving target during the time of missile flight to impact. b. The angle formed between the designator target line and the MTL shall never be greater than 60 degrees (see fig 119). Designator operators will be inside this 60 degree angle. c. If the missile appears to fly straight up (errant missile), stop lasing the target. d. Potential hazard areas depicted in the latest SOUMs identify missile fly-out zones of greater than 106 probability. e. Firing conditions for all non-mission-essential personnel will be located outside HELLFIRE missile weapon danger zones/SDZs. (1) The position of the launch platform and designator operators is critical to the safe use of the HELLFIRE missile weapon system. Controls must be established to ensure proper launcher direction, designator direction, designator boresight, and target coordinate verification prior to missile launch. (2) When firing in the lock-on-after-launch (direct/indirect mode), the angle between the designator target line and the MTL will be 30 degrees. If the lock-on-after launch (direct-fire mode) is required, the target must be visible to the launch crew to assure proper aircraft alignment. (3) Ground designator rain hood and port covers must always be used when supplied as a system option to reduce clear air laser energy backscatter (reflected laser energy) emitted from the designator toward the missile. f. Laser danger zone parameters outlined in MILHDBK828A apply to designators being used with HELLFIRE missiles. 1111. AGM114 A/F and AGM114 K/N HELLFIRE missile weapon danger zones/surface danger zones a. Direct fire/indirect fire HELLFIRE missile weapon danger zones/surface danger zones. The direct fire and indirect fire weapon danger zones/SDZs support the AGM114 A/F and AGM114 K/N HELLFIRE for firing at fixed targets for both Army and USMC RW aircraft. These weapon danger zones/SDZs include the effects of HE warhead functioning at the edge of the impact area. However, an additional 216m must be added to Areas A and B to allow for the larger warhead for the AGM114 M/N. Because of the unique shape and size of the weapon danger zones/SDZs, the actual scaled (1:50,000) safety fans must be requested from the respective ACOM/ASCC/DRU safety office (Army). b. When firing in a lock-on-after-launch mode, a 30 degree angle will be used for all AGM114 weapon danger zone/SDZs.

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(1) Direct-fire weapon danger zone/SDZ (see fig 114). This weapon danger zone /SDZ will be used for AGM114 A/F missiles and, for the Marine Corps, only the AGM114 K/N missile with the following launch modes and conditions: (a) Aircraft configured in accordance with latest SOUM. (b) Lock-on before launch with remote designation. (c) Lock-on after launch (direct-launch mode) with remote designation. (d) Lock-on after launch (direct-launch mode) with autonomous designation and proper designation delay: 1. For AGM114A missiles, use a minimum delay of 3 seconds and a maximum delay of 10 seconds. 2. For AGM114B/F missiles, use a minimum delay of 3 seconds and a maximum delay of 5 seconds. 3. For designation delay as calculated for range to target after missile separation, always add 1 second to the designation (separation) delay times when counting from trigger pull. (2) Indirect-fire weapon danger zone/SDZ (see fig 115). This weapon danger zone/SDZ will be used for AGM114 A/F and AGM114 K/N HELLFIRE missiles with the following launch modes and conditions: (a) This weapon danger zone/SDZ will be used with any HELLFIRE missile operational mode not described in paragraph 1111b(1) above and with remote or autonomous designation. For the Army RW aircraft, firings of the AGM114 K/N are restricted from utilizing direct-fire weapon danger zone/SDZ. The HELLFIRE operational mode launch parameters and performance envelopes are described in FM 304140 and the latest SOUM. (b) To minimize backscatter for LOBL autonomous engagements use the following target offsets: 1. 35 degree target offset. 2. Always offset the missile launch angle toward the side of the launch platform on which the missile resides to reduce the chance of interference with autonomous tracking. 3. No offset is necessary when using remote designation. c. Expanded direct fire/expanded indirect fire weapon danger zones/surface danger zones - Army rotary wing aircraft. Due to excessive missile roll rates induced by interactions between specific Army RW aircraft and their associated launchers, two additional weapon danger zones/SDZs have been established to compensate for possible missile error (roll tip-off error). The expanded direct (AGM114 A/F) and expanded indirect (AGM114 A/F and K/N) weapon danger zones/SDZs (see figs 116 and 117) are required for all Army RW aircraft. However, based on specific aircraft launcher configurations and firing modes, certain Army RW aircraft may be allowed to use the standard direct/indirect weapon danger zones/SDZs as indicated in figures 114 and 115. Refer to table 113 and the latest Army HELLFIRE SOUM to determine which aircraft and under which configurations and firing modes are acceptable for firing under the standard direct/indirect weapon danger zones/SDZs. d. Altitude restrictions. HELLFIRE weapon danger zones/SDZs as depicted in figures 114, 115, 116, and 117 are based on a maximum launch altitude of 300ft AGL. If firing above 300ft AGL then the Radial extent of the weapon danger zone/SDZ is increased by 1m per additional foot of launch altitude. Minimum clearance airspace will be 20,000 feet above launch altitude. Refer to the latest SOUM associated with HELLFIRE delivery to ensure appropriate parameters are met. e. Area F. An area to the rear of the launch point 30m wide (15m to each side of the launcher) and 50m long when aircraft are at or below 300 ft AGL. Hazards are launch motor blast, hazardous noise levels, overpressure, and debris. Serious casualties or fatalities may occur to personnel occupying Area F; therefore, occupation of it is not authorized. 1112. AGM114 P/P+/R HELLFIRE missile AGM114 P/P+/R weapon danger zones. All weapon danger zones/SDZs will be developed using the RMTK weapon danger zone tool. These missiles are authorized for high altitude firings in order to support additional platforms such as UAS and C130 Hercules aircraft in accordance with the latest HELLFIRE SOUM. 1113. HELLFIRE missile maximum altitude The maximum altitude for HELLFIRE missile firing is 20,000ft (6,096m) above launch point.

24 degrees2 26 28 30 degrees2 degrees2 degrees2

Notes: 1 During hover fire launch angles below 10 degrees are inadequate for proper aiming. Rockets will impact short of target. 2 Launch angles between 20 degrees and 30 degrees are not recommended as they exceed 6000m range-to-target and result in undesirable aircraft attitude.

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Notes: 1 Normal vertical danger zones with the parameter of table 112 are 5,000ft AGL. The length and width of the firing lane will be determined by the OIC. Minimum recommended width is 50m.

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Notes: 1 Based on a maximum launch altitude of 300 AGL. If firing above 300 AGL then the Radial extent of the weapon danger zone/SDZ is increased by 1m per additional foot of launch altitude. 2 When firing in a LOAL, 30 degree angle will be used.

Yes Yes Yes No No

LOBL1 LOALD A-F

All

LOBL1 LOALD

A-F

Yes Yes Yes No No All A - F, K, M, N, Q All A - F, K, M, N, Q

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Chapter 12 Air Defense Artillery Weapon Systems

121. General a. An SOP will be established to prevent accidents during the firing of guided missiles and rockets. The SOP will (1) Expand the specific duties and responsibilities of the range OIC, RSO, and trajectory officer (if appropriate). (2) Relate to the special characteristics of the specific missile or rocket to be fired and the physical characteristics of the firing area. (3) Specify procedures for conducting operations involving the use of high-pressure air (or compressed gases). Operations will be supervised by well-trained personnel who are knowledgeable of the ADA weapons system. b. Changes in the type of missile or rocket to be fired or changes in local conditions make it mandatory that the SOP be revised or a new SOP prepared prior to firing. 122. Firing conditions-general requirements a. The following safety precautions will be observed for firing guided missiles and heavy rockets: b. When units are firing at independent locations in the same general area, a commissioned OIC will be responsible for each independent firing location (Marine Corps). (1) Safety at each firing location is the responsibility of the senior range safety officer (SRSO). An RSO and trajectory safety officer will be designated to assist the SRSO. Additional personnel may be detailed to assist the SRSO as required. (2) Situations may arise that are not addressed in this pamphlet, but in the opinion of the SRSO, may result in an unsafe condition. Conversely, situations may arise in which firing a missile or rocket, rather than destroying a missile or rocket in flight, is considered the safest course of action. The decision must be made locally based upon prevailing conditions. (3) Guided missiles and rockets will not be launched on a trajectory that allows the missile or rocket to pass over personnel or materiel, except as specifically authorized by the installation RCO, this pamphlet, and the appropriate TM. (4) Guided missiles and rockets will be fired within a time limitation (window) established by the installation range control organization. If firings cannot be accomplished within the prescribed window, a new firing schedule will be obtained. (5) Intermediate and high altitude guided missiles (such as the MIM-23 Improved Hawk (Army) or MIM-104

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PATRIOT) fired for training or target practice will be equipped with self-destruct systems capable of destroying the missile during flight or terminating the trajectory in a safe area. (6) Missiles equipped with inert or practice warheads will be provided with a system capable of terminating the powered trajectory or destroying the aerodynamic characteristics of the missile to ensure its destruction. (7) When a flight termination system is used to control a systems SDZ, the trajectory safety officer will have the capability to command destruct missiles independently of all actions of firing and trajectory control crews. (8) The number of personnel engaged in handling, assembling, or firing guided missiles and heavy rockets will be kept to the minimum required to maintain efficient operations and mission accomplishment. (9) Shorting plugs and other safety devices will be removed only to conduct tests or in final preparation for firing. (10) Smoking is prohibited at firing pads, ready storage sites, and assembly sites. No-smoking signs will be prominently displayed. Smoking is also prohibited on any vehicle used to transport propellants or explosives. The possession of matches or any other flame producing devices while working with or transporting propellants or explosives is prohibited. (11) Suitable firefighting equipment as determined by the installation fire marshal will be readily available during all firings. (12) Personnel engaged in handling hazardous materials or exposed to hazardous operations or conditions will use protective clothing and equipment as prescribed by appropriate TMs and FMs. Approved hearing protection will be worn by all personnel within the hearing hazard zones defined in the manuals for each system. (13) Except for the use of approved testing equipment in accordance with established procedures, guided missiles and heavy rockets will be isolated from sources of electrical energy (such as, sparks, static discharges, or stray current) that may cause ignition of the propellant or electro-explosive devices. (14) Decontamination equipment appropriate for the type of propellants, oxidizers, active chemicals, batteries, or hazardous fuels at the site will be readily available during firing operations. c. Firing and support personnel will not occupy positions within any portion of the SDZ except as specifically authorized by this pamphlet. d. When occupation of the SDZ is authorized, protective shelters will be used which have been inspected by the installation safety director and facility engineer. e. Fire control personnel will employ positive protection, such as keyed firing panels, to prevent premature firing of a guided missile or heavy rocket. 123. FIM43 Redeye guided missile (Army) a. Firing conditions. (1) The entire Redeye SDZ will be cleared of all personnel except those actively engaged in missile firing. This number will be held to the minimum compatible with efficient operations. (2) Procedures and precautions in appropriate TMs and FMs will be followed during Redeye missile firings. (3) No firings will be made on incoming targets that normally pass over the launch area allowing target or target debris to impact in the area upon intercept. Instructors and any other personnel exposed to rocket motor blast will wear personal protection equipment required for the gunner in appropriate TMs. b. Surface danger zone. (1) Redeye guided missile SDZ requirements are given in figure 121 and consist of an impact area and Areas A, B, and F. The SDZ is based on the maximum ballistic range of the Redeye since there is no provision for command destruct by the trajectory safety officer. Distance X for the Redeye guided missile is available from the respective ACOM, ASCC, and DRU safety office. ACOMs, ASCCs, and DRUs that have Redeye guided missiles get Distance X from the U.S. Army Aviation and Missile Command.

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(2) Impact areas will normally contain fragments and debris from missiles launched within its sector of fire. The sector of fire is that portion of the impact area in which targets may be engaged. Boundaries of the sector must be designated by positioning azimuth limit markers forward of the launcher position and all firings must be accomplished within these limit markers. Impact areas consist of an area 44 degrees to each side of the sector of fire and extending down range to the maximum ballistic range of the missile. (3) Area A is the lateral secondary danger zone. This area is normally adequate to contain the effects of warheads functioning at the edge of the impact area. It consists of areas 50m wide on each side of the impact area and extending downrange to the maximum ballistic range capability of the missile. (4) Area B is the far secondary danger zone. This area is normally adequate to contain the effects of a warhead functioning at the downrange edge of the impact area. It consists of an area 100m in depth beyond the impact area and Area A. (5) Area F is the launcher danger zone extending to the rear of the firing position. It consists of an area 15 degrees to the outside of the rearward extension of the sector of fire boundaries and the area between the rearward extensions of the sector of fire. This angle also defines the rear limit of Area A. The rear distance in both cases will be a connecting radius 12.2m from the launcher. 124. FIM92 Stinger guided missile a. Firing conditions. (1) The entire Stinger guided missile SDZ will be cleared of all personnel except those actively engaged in the missile firing. This number will be held to the minimum compatible with efficient operations. (2) Stinger weapon systems will not be fired over the heads of unprotected personnel because of the hazards from launch motor impact and the sustainer motor plume. (3) All training firings will be limited to a maximum elevation angle of 50 degrees (40 degrees target elevation angle plus 10 degrees super elevation) to minimize the possibility of a malfunctioning missile traveling to the rear of the launch position. (4) Procedures and precautions in appropriate TMs and FMs will be followed during Stinger firings. No firings will be made on directly incoming targets which normally pass over the launch area allowing targets or target debris to

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impact in the area upon intercept. Instructors and any other personnel exposed to the rocket motor blast will wear personal protective equipment as required for the gunner in the appropriate TMs. b. Surface danger zone. (1) Stinger guided missile SDZ requirements given in figure 122 apply to both air-to-air and ground-to-air launched missiles. This SDZ, based upon maximum ballistic range of the missile, consists of an impact area and Areas A, B, and F. Self-destruct features designed to terminate missile flight within the SDZ were not considered in establishing range safety requirements. Maximum ballistic range (Distance X) for Stinger in each launch mode is given below. (a) Ground-to-air guided missiles. 1. Basic Stinger: 11,900m. 2. Reprogrammable microprocessor Stinger: 13,000m. 3. Reprogrammable microprocessor block 1 Stinger: 14,000m. (b) Air-to-air guided missiles, same as ground-to-air except Distance X increases 0.60m for every 0.30m of altitude AGL at time of launch.

(2) Impact areas will normally contain fragments and debris from missiles launched within its sector of fire. The sector of fire is that portion of the impact area in which targets may be engaged. The boundaries of the sector will be designated by positioning azimuth limit markers forward of the launcher position. All firings must be accomplished within these limit markers. The impact area for moving targets consists of an area 45 degrees to each side of the sector of fire and extending downrange to the maximum ballistic range of the missile. For stationary (hovering) and directly outbound moving targets the impact area may be reduced to 40 degrees on each side of the sector of fire. (3) Area A is the lateral secondary danger zone that is adequate to contain the effects of warheads functioning at the edge of the impact area. It consists of areas 50m wide on each side of the impact area and extending downrange to the maximum ballistic range capability of the missile. (4) Area B is the far secondary danger zone that is adequate to contain the effects of a warhead functioning at the downrange edge of the impact area. It consists of an area 100m in depth beyond the impact area and Area A. (5) Area F shown in figure 123 is the launcher danger zone extending to the rear of the firing position. It is further divided into a primary danger area and two caution areas.

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(a) The primary launcher danger area has a radius of 50m boundaries that lie along rearward extensions of the impact area boundaries. Personnel are not permitted in this area during firings. (b) Caution Area 1 also has a radius of 50m. Its boundaries are the primary launcher danger area and the impact area. Any personnel in this area must be protected from hazardous noise levels and flying ground debris. (c) Caution Area 2 extends to the rear of the launcher with a radius of 125m. Its boundaries are straight lines drawn between the rearward extension of the impact area boundaries and the intersection of the 125m radius. Occupation of caution Area 2 is permitted when all personnel are wearing approved single hearing protection. (6) The Stinger SDZ does not ensure protection from aerial targets that may be used for training firings. Target SDZs must be incorporated into overall Stinger firing operations by the RSO. c. Stinger surface danger zone criteria. These apply to the AN/TWQ-1 Avenger, M6 Linebacker, man-portable air defense systems (MANPADS), and LAV launch platforms, both stationary and on the move. When firing on the move, extend the Stinger/Avenger SDZ along the route of maneuver. The target flight path establishes left and right limits of fire. 125. MIM72 Chaparral guided missile a. Firing conditions. (1) The entire SDZ will be cleared of all personnel prior to firing a missile except as authorized below. (2) Procedures and precautions outlined in appropriate Chaparral TMs and FMs will be followed during firings. Only the minimum personnel required to fire and maintain safety surveillance of the firing will be permitted in the

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SDZ at the time of missile firing. All personnel, except the fire unit gunner, will occupy appropriate protective shelters that have been located and constructed in accordance with U.S. Army Corps of Engineers drawings and will protect against any fragments or debris that may be expected from the missile as a result of warhead functioning. The protective shelters must be examined by the installation safety director and facility engineer to determine if the shelters will provide adequate personnel protection. (3) Danger areas for debris from target drones with normal controlled flights should be contained within the impact area for the Chaparral missile. Impact areas for target drones which have abnormal flights or which go out of control are not covered herein. b. Surface danger zone. (1) Chaparral SDZ requirements are given in figure 124 and consists of an impact area and Areas A, B and F. This SDZ is based on the maximum ballistic range of the missile since there is no provision for command destruct by the trajectory safety officer.

Figure 124. Surface danger zone for firing Chaparral guided missiles at a point in space

(2) Impact areas, which include the sector of fire and 20 degrees on each side, are used for firings at directly outgoing targets. When firings are made at off-tail or crossing targets, the minimum impact area is increased by 20 degrees beyond the heading of the target. The boundaries of the sector of fire must be designated by positioning azimuth limit markers forward of the launcher position. All firings must be accomplished within these limit markers. (3) Area A is the lateral secondary danger zone. This area is normally adequate to contain the effects of warheads functioning at the edge of the impact area. The 600m width for this area and for Area B is the distance required for the MK 48 series warheads. (4) Area B is the downrange secondary danger zone. It is normally adequate to contain the effects of a warhead functioning at the forward edge of the impact area. (5) Area F is the back-blast area that lies totally within Area A. Area F is defined as an area bounded by lines 30

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degrees on each side of the missile axis and extending 100m to the rear which should adequately contain primary and secondary motor exhaust and debris. 126. MIM104 PATRIOT guided missile The PATRIOT service practice and other firings with the PATRIOT guided missile weapon system conducted at or under the control of White Sands Missile Range, NM or McGregor Range, Fort Bliss, TX will be in accordance with the safety requirements of AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C, this pamphlet, and the training or test range SOPs. a. Firing conditions. (1) The PATRIOT guided missile SDZ will be cleared of all personnel prior to firing a missile except as authorized below. (2) A missile flight corridor drawn on a map or a scale drawing of the firing range is provided for use by the trajectory safety officer. The trajectory safety officer is provided with a means of accurately tracking and plotting the course of the missile and a means of causing the destruction of the missile if the missile intersects the flight corridor boundary. The flight corridor has lateral boundaries that are parallel to and 2km closer to the centerline than the lateral boundaries of the impact area. The lateral boundaries of the flight corridor extend to meet the boundary of the impact area beyond the intercept point. Flight corridor boundaries from the launch point intersect the lateral boundaries of the flight corridor at Distance L from the launch point. (3) Only those personnel actively engaged in fire and control of the missile as specified by the appropriate TMs and FMs will be permitted in the SDZ at the time the missile is fired. The number of personnel authorized access should be the absolute minimum that is compatible with efficient operation. Personnel should, when possible, occupy shelters that are located a minimum of 90m from the launcher and approved by the garrison safety manager. (4) Danger areas for debris from target drones that have normal flight paths should be contained within the impact area for PATRIOT guided missiles. Impact areas for target drones that have abnormal flight paths or which go out of control are not covered herein. b. Surface danger zone. (1) The SDZ includes an impact area, Areas A and B (see fig 125), which represents the areas on the ground that will contain the debris from the PATRIOT missile that is destroyed in flight. Labels for SDZ areas are unique to the PATRIOT guided missile.

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Figure 125. Surface danger zone for firing PATRIOT missiles

(2) The impact area is the area on the ground that contains the ground projections of all of the locations where the missile can be destroyed in flight. The boundary of the impact area is defined by the launch dispersion angle (A), the cross-range dispersion (W), and a line normally (90 degrees) to the centerline located 2km greater than the intercept range. The azimuth dispersion angle (A) is 40 degrees on either side of the centerline. The lines that are drawn at angle A from the launch point intersect cross-range lines drawn parallel to the center line at a downrange distance of L meters from the launch point. (3) Area A (lateral secondary buffer zone) is the area on the ground that contains debris from a missile that is destroyed on the lateral boundary of the impact area. Action is taken by the trajectory safety officer to initiate the destruction of the missile when the missile intersects the flight corridor boundary. The debris from the missile follows trajectories that are determined by the kinetic, gravitational, wind and aerodynamic forces that act on the debris. (4) Area B is the area beyond the intercept point that contains the debris from a missile that passes the intercept point without being destroyed by the fuze functioning. The missile is automatically destroyed within 2.2 seconds after passing the target if the missile is not destroyed by the warhead when the fuze functions. The debris from the missile that is destroyed after passing the intercept point impacts the ground within Area B. The automatic termination interval varies and is classified as confidential for MIM104, MIM104A, MIM104B, and MIM104C, stand off jammer counter (SOJC). (5) Distances Y and Z are based upon missile altitude at detonation and speed of cross winds. 127. MIM23 Improved Hawk guided missile (Army) a. Firing conditions. (1) The Improved Hawk guided missile SDZ will be cleared of all personnel prior to firing a missile except as authorized below.

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(2) The trajectory safety officer must be provided with layouts of the training complex on which the SDZ and trajectory corridor for the particular firing have been defined. The trajectory safety officer must also be provided a means of accurately tracking and plotting the course of a missile during trajectory. Firings normally will be made to a moving aerial target rather than a point in space. In this case, a composite SDZ, which is based on the two extreme azimuth intercept points, will be required. Target azimuth, target elevation, and target velocity will establish the intercept locus (path of moving intercept points). Control of the time interval for launch will establish boundaries for the intercept locus. Figures 126 and 127 can be used for developing a composite SDZ. Dimensions for Area B will be as shown in table 121. Distance X will be based upon the maximum altitude for the predicted intercept point as given in table 121. Maximum range for predicted intercept point will establish the inner boundary for Area B. Distance W must be maintained between the predicted intercept point and Area B.

Figure 126. Surface danger zone for Improved Hawk guided missile firing at a point in space

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Figure 127. Typical trajectory corridor

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(3) Only those personnel actively engaged in firing and control of the missile as specified by appropriate TMs and FMs will be permitted in the SDZ at the time of missile firing. The number of personnel thus engaged should be held to an absolute minimum compatible with efficient operation. These personnel should, when possible, occupy appropriate protective shelters that have been located a minimum distance of 61m from the launcher and constructed in accordance with approved Corps of Engineers drawings. (4) Danger areas for debris from target drones which have normal flight paths should be contained within the impact area for the Improved Hawk missile. Areas of impact for target drones which have abnormal flights or which go out of control are not prescribed. b. Surface danger zone. (1) SDZ requirements for the Improved Hawk guided missile are given in table 121 and figure 126 that consists of an impact area and Areas A and B. This SDZ is constructed on the basis that the trajectory safety officer may accomplish actual destruction of the missile after 8.5 seconds from the time of firing or 5.5 seconds after leaving the trajectory corridor. The labels for the SDZ areas below are unique to the Improved Hawk guided missile. (2) Impact areas are considered adequate to contain the debris from missiles and the impact of missiles that have a normal flight. Trajectory corridor dimensions (W) include the maximum lateral displacement of the missile due to lead angles and maneuvers associated with intercepting a moving aerial target. The area extends 2,500m to the rear of and to either side of the firing point and opens to a varying Distance (W) at 15,000m downrange in the direction of fire to either side of the direction of fire depending on the altitude of the intercept (see table 121). This area is continued to a Distance (X) meters beyond the intercept point and to a Distance (Y) or (W), whichever is larger, to either side of the predicted intercept point (see table 121). The resulting area is considered adequate for firings to a point in space within the trajectory corridor. Range (Distance Y) will be the predicted point of ground impact or target intercept and may vary between minimum intercept and maximum ground impact range capability of the missile if the missile can be destroyed upon departure from the predetermined trajectory path by employing techniques which will reliably predict range to go. Distance X must be equal to the maximum ground impact range capability of the missile only when trajectory corridors do not provide for destructive points to control the range as well as azimuth of the missile. (3) Area A is an area 4,200m wide paralleling the lateral edge of the impact area. This area is normally adequate to contain the debris from missile intercepts, missiles destroyed in trajectory corridors, and the impact of missiles that have an abnormal flight or go out of control and must be destroyed by the trajectory safety officer. Range area to the rear of the firing point is adequate when early prediction of missile trajectory and destruction of the missile can be accomplished in the event the missile is heading in the direction opposite the planned trajectory. The 4,200m width of Area A is based on the use of trajectory corridors. If trajectory corridors are not used, the width of Area A must be increased to 6500m to provide time for the trajectory safety officer to recognize abnormal trajectory characteristics and destroy the missile. (4) Area B is an area 7,500m wide and is an extension of the impact area and Area A in the direction of fire. (5) Area F is defined as the area within 61m of the launcher that is endangered at the time of launch. Hazards are hot rocket exhaust and high velocity aggregate. (6) The Improved Hawk guided missile SDZ is constructed in the following manner: (a) Lay out the target flight path on a map or scaled drawing of the firing range. Mark the minimum and maximum intercept points on the target flight path. The two lines joining the intercept points with the launcher define the minimum and maximum firing azimuths. Alternatively the minimum and maximum firing azimuths define the appropriate intercept points. (b) At a range of 15km from the launcher, draw lines perpendicular to the firing azimuths. (c) Along the line perpendicular to the maximum firing azimuth in the direction of increasing azimuth, mark point (1) at 4,000m (trajectory corridor width), point (2) at the Distance W (maximum debris distance from table 121 as determined by intercept altitude), and point (3) at the distance of W plus 4,200m (the outer boundary of the lateral secondary danger area, Area A). (d) Similarly, along the line perpendicular to the minimum firing azimuth in the direction of decreasing azimuth, mark the points (4), (5), and (6) at 4,000m, the Distance W, and the Distance W plus 4,200m respectively. (e) Draw lines in the downrange direction from points (1), (2), and (3) parallel to the maximum firing azimuth and from points (4), (5), and (6) parallel to the minimum firing azimuth. (f) At the firing section draw lines perpendicular to the firing azimuths. Along the line perpendicular to the maximum firing azimuth in the direction of increasing azimuth, mark point (7) at a distance of 1,000m. Connect point (7) with points (1) and (2) with straight lines. Along the line perpendicular to the minimum firing azimuth in the direction of decreasing azimuth, mark point (8) at a distance of 1,000m. Connect point (8) with points (4) and (5) with straight lines. (g) Draw a semicircle with center at the firing section with a radius of 2,500m to the rear of the firing section. (h) Draw straight lines tangent to the semicircle to points (3) and (6).

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(i) With the firing section as the center, draw the arc of a circle with a radius equal to the sum of the maximum intercept range and the Distance X from table 121 as determined by intercept altitude to intersect the lines defining the trajectory corridor, the primary danger area, and the lateral secondary danger area. This arc defines the maximum range boundary of the primary danger area. (j) With the firing section as the center, draw the arc of a circle with a radius equal to Distance X, plus 7,500m (the width of Area B) intersecting the lines defining the outer boundaries of the lateral secondary danger area. This arc defines the boundary of the maximum secondary danger area (Area B). (k) If the intercept range is less than 16km, the inner boundary of Area A is the Distance W from the intercept point and the width of Area A is 4,200m at that range. All other procedures listed above apply. 128. Trajectory corridor Trajectory corridors are constructed by scribing concentric semicircles indicating the position of missiles for various times of trajectory (see fig 127). By computing range-to-impact on ballistic trajectories for destruct times corresponding to time intervals for selected range positions, it is possible to establish destruction points which will ensure that missiles impact within respective impact areas. By calculating an angle of trajectory that is required to place a missile on the limits of a known impact area for each side of the line of firing, points may be fixed on the range time semicircles, both to the left and right of the line of fire, indicating the position at which the missile must be destroyed if impact is to be within the impact area. By connecting these points with a solid line, the trajectory corridor may be established for the training complex or range. Missiles will not be permitted to go beyond the limits of the trajectory corridor.

Chapter 13 Chemical Agents and Smoke

131. Chemical agents The use of lethal or incapacitating chemical agents in training is not authorized. Chemical agent use must be addressed case-by-case in special safety analyses. The exception is the Chemical Decontamination Training Facility, Fort Leonard Wood, MO, where training regularly involves live chemical agents. 132. Riot control agents a. Except when prohibited by regulations or higher authority, commanders may use riot control agents (RCAs) in training, subject to the following: (1) Use of RCAs in training is limited to 0-chlorobenzyl denemalononitrite (CS). All other RCAs are prohibited for training use. (2) Use of RCAs in training requires supervision by personnel specially trained in field behavior, individual protection, and first aid for RCAs. Army personnel that meet these criteria are chemical officers (branch code 74), chemical NCOs (MOS 54B), school-trained chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) officers (SSI 3R) and NCOs (SQI C). USMC personnel that meet these requirements are MOS 5702 CBRN Systems Defense Officer, and MOS 5711, CBRN Defense Specialist. (3) RCAs will not be used under conditions that are dangerous to life or property. Minimum safe distances to heavily traveled installation roads, railroad right of ways, airfields (including all aircraft landing areas), or inhabited areas are: (a) CS chambers will be at least 100m away from heavily traveled roads, 500m from aircraft operations and

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inhabited areas, and 1,000m from the nearest installation boundary unless the CS chambers are designed to contain and filter all CS gas. (b) Field training exercises involving RCAs will be 500m or more away from public traffic routes, the nearest inhabited buildings, and 1,000m from installation boundaries. (4) Prior to a scheduled RCA exercise, training supervisors must conduct a readiness evaluation of personnel. Before being exposed to RCAs, all personnel with respiratory ailments, recent eye surgery, or eye infections, open wounds, severe facial acne, or any active dermatitis, and pregnant personnel must be referred to a medical officer for evaluation. The medical officer will evaluate the health records of these individuals and, when necessary, examine the personnel to determine their readiness to undergo training without undue medical risk. The examination results (stating can/cannot participate in training with RCAs ONLY) will be documented in the personnel medical records. (5) OICs and RSOs must ensure protective masks are available for all personnel participating in training. (6) When CBRN protective equipment is worn, the OIC/RSO will consider the additional heat stress placed on personnel. When using the wet-bulb globe temperature to determine the heat category, add 10 degrees fahrenheit if personnel are in body armor and mission-oriented protective posture (MOPP) level two through four. High ambient temperatures, high humidity, and heavy workload are factors that increase the potential for heat injuries. To reduce the heat stress risk, commanders will (a) Provide an ample water supply and encourage all personnel to drink plenty of water. OICs and RSOs will monitor personnel undergoing training to ensure personnel frequently drink water to replace lost fluids. (b) Reduce the MOPP level under high heat stress conditions when possible. (c) Schedule additional rest breaks during training to allow personnel to cool off. These periods also can be used for critiques. Where possible, use vehicles to move personnel who are wearing protective equipment. (d) Ensure subordinate commanders and leaders check their personnel for early signs of heat stress. Authorize frequent breaks while operating in protective equipment. (7) Wearing of contact lenses while masked is not authorized. Personnel who wear contact lenses must remove them and use standard prescription eyeglasses during chemical defense training that includes wearing the protective mask. Unnecessary eye irritation will occur if RCA particles are trapped under contact lenses. All individuals requiring corrective lenses must have masks with correctly fitted optical inserts. (8) Unprotected personnel will not be exposed to RCAs longer than 15 seconds. b. Personnel specified in paragraph 132a(2) will supervise the mask confidence course. c. Employment conditions. (1) CS will be used in training only under the supervision of an officer/staff noncommissioned officer/NCO who has received formal training in the characteristics, capabilities, and training applications of these agents. (2) Only CS in capsule form may be used in the CS chamber. (3) For the Marine Corps, when CS is used in outdoor confidence courses, the RSO must have been trained in the CS chamber within the past year. The use of a 5702 CBRN Defense Officer and 5711 CBRN Defense Specialist is not required. (4) RCAs will not be released when personnel without proper respiratory protective equipment located downwind will be affected, unless exposure to a controlled concentration is desired. CS agents will not be released within 50m of spectators. (5) Marine Corps personnel handling or dispensing CS capsules will wear MOPP level four. (6) Army personnel handling or dispensing CS capsules will wear rubber boots, protective mask with hood, and field clothing secured at neck, wrists, and ankles. (7) Individuals affected by RCAs will move to fresh air and face into the wind for 5 to 10 minutes, avoid rubbing the eyes, and remain well-spaced from other affected personnel. If accidentally exposed to an RCA, clothing will be removed from the affected skin as soon as possible. Flush the exposed area(s) with large volumes of cool water for not less than 15 minutes, and then seek prompt medical attention. If available, mild soap should be used to cleanse the contaminated skin. (8) Hot water should not be used when showering as it will raise the vapor point of the CS, resulting in further spreading of contamination. (9) When eyes are contaminated with a CS agent, treat them with a 1 percent solution of sodium bicarbonate (baking soda). If not available, hold the eyes open with fingers, flush with water for not fewer than 15 minutes, then seek medical attention. (10) Contaminated clothing will be removed from the area to prevent accidental contamination of unprotected personnel. d. When riot control agents are transported in Army or Marine Corps aircraft, compliance with AR 951, AR 9527, MCO 4030.25B, and MCO 4030.40B is required. e. For the Marine Corps, the following are requirements for all CS exercises, whether garrison or field training: (1) Corpsman or medic with unit 5 medic bag. (2) Designated safety vehicle with a driver who will not be in the chamber, but will have a protective mask on hand.

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(3) Instructors will be easily/readily identifiable while in the CS chamber. 133. Smoke The use of smoke in training poses special health and safety issues. The following precautions apply to all smoke training with fog oil, hexachloroethane (HC), red phosphorus, WP, plasticized WP, terephthalic acid (TA), and colored and diesel smokes. a. Personnel will carry a protective mask when participating in exercises that include the use of smoke. Personnel will mask (1) Before exposure to any concentration of smoke produced by M8 white smoke grenades, M83 smoke grenades (TA), smoke pots (HC & TA smoke), or metallic powder obscurants. (2) When passing through or operating in dense (visibility less than 50m) smoke such as smoke blankets and smoke curtains. (3) When operating in or passing through a smoke haze (visibility greater than 50m) and the duration of exposure will exceed 4 hours. (4) Any time exposure to smoke produces breathing difficulty, eye irritation or discomfort. Such effects in one individual will serve as a signal for all similarly exposed personnel to mask. (5) When using smoke during military operations in urban terrain training or when operating in enclosed spaces. The protective mask is not effective in oxygen-deficient atmospheres. Care must be taken not to enter areas where oxygen may have been displaced. b. Clothing is to be laundered and personnel will shower after exercises involving exposure to smoke. Personnel exposed to smoke should reduce skin exposure by rolling down their sleeves. c. Special care must be taken when using HC and TA smoke to ensure that appropriate protection is provided to all personnel who may be exposed. When planning for the use of HC smoke in training, consideration must be given to weather conditions and the potential downwind effects of the smoke. Positive controls, (observation, control points, communications) must be established to prevent exposure of unprotected personnel. Detailed hazard information is available on the appropriate materiel safety data sheet(s). d. FS (sulfur trioxide-chlorosulfonic acid solution) and FM (titanium tetrachloride) smoke will not be used in training. e. Smoke will not be used in public demonstrations, displays, or ceremonies unless positive dissipation of the smoke can be assured and no exposure to the public or nonparticipating personnel is expected. A risk management plan will be developed by the agency conducting the public demonstration, in conjunction with the installation RCO and safety director, for all uses of smoke in demonstrations, displays, or ceremonies. 134. Smoke pots a. Personnel manually firing HC and TA smoke pots will mask and keep their head well to one side to the top of the pot and out of the way of sparks and flames to prevent burn injuries. Once HC and TA smoke pots have ignited, personnel will quickly move away a minimum distance of 30m. b. Precautions will be taken to prevent ground fires. HC and TA smoke pots will not be fired inside buildings, tents, or other enclosed areas because of fire and health hazards from associated fumes. Exceptions are building or structures specially designed for smoke training, and only after conducting a thorough risk assessment, developing and implementing controls, and acceptance of the residual risk by the appropriate commander. c. HC and TA smoke pots must be kept dry. Any addition of water to HC and TA smoke mixtures may cause it to burn erratically, explode, or result in spontaneous combustion. HC smoke pots will not be ignited during visible precipitation (snow or rain). d. The M4A2 smoke pot must be vented for at least 5 minutes within 24 hours before use in accordance with TM 3136549010. e. When electrically firing the M5 HC smoke pot, at least 30m of WD1/TT wire will be used. 135. Oil smoke candles Oil smoke candles (M6, SGF2) are used to produce nontoxic smoke in confined areas primarily to simulate fires in buildings or ships for fire drills and to train firefighters. The correct procedure for use is to place the candle on its base atop a stable platform away from combustible materials, pull the safety pin, and release the safety lever.

Chapter 14 Non-Lethal Weapons

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designed and primarily employed so as to incapacitate personnel or materiel while minimizing fatalities, permanent injury to personnel, and undesired damage to property and the environment." Furthermore, unlike conventional lethal weapons that destroy their targets principally through blast, penetration, and fragmentation, NLW employ means other than gross physical destruction to prevent the target from functioning. NLW are intended to have relatively reversible effects on personnel and materiel." 142. General a. The term "non-lethal" does not mean zero mortality or nonpermanent damage. Fatal injuries can occur if munitions are employed at a distance that is less than the determined minimum safe engagement range. b. The Inter-Service Non-Lethal Individual Weapons Instructors Course is the only course in the Department of Defense that is certified to produce instructors who will train individuals in the proper employment of NLWs. c. For the Marine Corps, the use of NLW in force-on-force scenarios with the exception of SESAMS/CCMCK is authorized only under approved deviation per AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C and chapter 1 of this pamphlet and operational risk management procedures have been completed in accordance with FM 71, FM 519, FM 3100.12/MCRP 512, and MCO 3500.27. d. For the Marine Corps, if force-on-force training with NLW is conducted under an approved deviation, Marines may be in the NLW danger zone but must remain outside the minimum target engagement distance at all times. e. For the Army, Soldiers participating in force-on-force training with NLW may be in the NLW SDZ, but must remain outside the minimum engagement distance at all times. f. Head shots with NLW are not authorized. 143. Surface danger zones a. Many non-lethal munitions have both a maximum effective range and minimum target engagement distance. Individuals short of the minimum target engagement distance may suffer severe injuries or death. The effects of most non-lethal munitions are greatly decreased at longer ranges. b. Hazardous effects from certain NLW munitions can be experienced behind the firing line. c. Area R is the portion of the SDZ behind the firer where personnel, equipment and facilities may be endangered by ricochets to the rear of the firing line. 144. 12gauge shotgun, M1012 (AA51), M1013 (AA52), and bean bag (AA29) projectiles a. The M1012 (AA51) projectile is a fin-stabilized projectile made of rubber designed for point targets. The M1013 (AA52) is a ball projectile and consists of 18 PVC rubber compound balls designed for crowds/groups. b. For the M1012 (AA51) and M1013 (AA52), minimum engagement is 10m with a maximum effective range of 20m. c. The tabular data for the M1012 (AA51) and M1013 (AA52) is contained in table 141. d. The SDZ for M1012 (AA51) and M1013 (AA52) is contained in figure 141. e. When firing the 12gauge shotgun with the rubber ball grenade launch cup attached, carbon can build up in the barrel. This carbon build up may create a malfunction if the launcher cup is removed and the 12gauge bean bag (AA29) rounds are fired. Bean bag rounds may get stuck in the barrel. f. Gas operated shotguns may malfunction when shooting nonlethal ammunition. This may result in increased stoppages/malfunctions or require the weapon to be cycled manually. g. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

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145. 40mm M1006 (BA06) sponge grenade a. The M1006 (BA06) is a sponge grenade cartridge comprised of a 40mm bullet-shaped foam rubber round. b. Minimum engagement for this NLW is 10m, with a maximum effective range of 20m. c. The tabular data for M1006 is contained in table 142. d. The SDZ for M1006 is contained in figure 142. e. The round is most effective against point targets. At distances of 10m to 50m, aiming point should be center mass of target. f. DO NOT skip fire this round. g. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

146. 40mm grenade foam rubber baton (BA07), rubber ball grenade (BA08), and M1029 (BA13) a. The BA07 is a foam rubber baton; the BA08 is a rubber ball grenade that will be superseded by the BA13. The M1029 (BA13) is a crowd-dispersal grenade consisting of 48 rubber balls. b. Minimum engagement range for this NLW is 10m and the maximum effective range is 30m. c. The tabular data for foam rubber baton (BA07), rubber ball grenade (BA08), and M1029 (BA13) is contained in table 143. d. The SDZ is contained in figure 143. e. The width of Area R encompasses Distance W and lateral limits as appropriate. For the 40mm grenade foam rubber baton (BA07), rubber ball grenade (BA08), and M1029 (BA13) Area W width is 55m to each side of the weapon firing location. f. At distances of 10m to 30m, the aiming point should be center mass of the group of individual targets. g. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

147. Rubber ball grenade (GG04) a. The rubber ball grenade (GG04) has a rubber molded body and consists of 100 rubber balls. The rubber ball grenade (GG04) is both a handheld and 12gauge shotgun launched non-lethal device and is the only non-lethal munition that can be delivered in defilade. The rubber ball grenade (GG04) is an area target munition. b. The employment distance for the hand thrown rubber ball grenade (GG04) is 16m (50ft). For the shotgun launched rubber ball grenade (GG04), the employment distance is 61m (200ft). c. The minimum safe distance for the rubber ball grenade (GG04) hand thrown grenade is 3m and has an effective range of 20m. Debris may also travel out to a distance of 35m. d. SDZ data for the hand thrown rubber ball grenade (GG04) is contained in figure 144.

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e. SDZ data for the shotgun launched rubber ball grenade (GG04) is contained in figure 145. f. When employing these grenades local fire conditions must be considered due to possible fire hazards. g. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

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148. M5 modular crowd control munition (WA97) a. The modular crowd control munition (MCCM) (WA97) is a munition which resembles the M18A1 Claymore Mine. The rubber balls are launched in a fan-shaped distribution pattern. b. This weapon has a minimum engagement range of 5m and a maximum effective range of 15m. c. Detonation of the MCCM (WA97) presents a rearward danger zone, Area R. d. The SDZ is contained in figure 146. e. When firing the MCCM (WA97) from vehicles, use mounting systems in accordance with applicable technical manuals. Mount the MCCM (WA97) on armor-hardened vehicles only. f. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

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149. M84 stun grenade (GG09) a. The M84 stun grenade (GG09) is a non-lethal diversionary device. It is used to apply the minimum force necessary by tactical and non-tactical forces while performing hostage rescue and capture of adversary missions. b. The daily exposure limit within the noise hazard contour is as follows: (1) Double hearing protection is required when employing 41 rounds or more per day at 2m. (2) Single hearing protection is required when employing 2 rounds or more per day at 2m. (3) Single hearing protection is required when employing 1,000 rounds or more per day at 3m. (4) The SDZ is contained in figure 147. c. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

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Figure 147. Surface danger zone for M84 stun grenade (GG09)

1410. M98 (FZ16) and M99 (FZ17) 66mm non-lethal grenade a. The M98 (FZ16) and M99 (FZ17) 66mm non-lethal grenades are launched from vehicle-mounted tubes. The grenades are packaged three-to-a-tube. b. The non-lethal grenade M98 (FZ16) is a distraction grenade with a flash and a loud report shortly after impact. c. The non-lethal grenade M99 (FZ17) is a blunt-trauma grenade that functions with a similar flash/bang followed by the discharge of approximately 420 plastic balls (140 per canister). d. The SDZ is contained in figure 148. e. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

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1411. Launched electrode stun device a. The device is used to propel wire probes which conduct energy to affect the sensory and motor functions of the nervous system. The launched electrode stun device (LESD) provides the capability for non-lethal incapacitation of an individual at close range. b. The two probes are propelled by compressed gas and are connected to the weapon by 25 or 35 ft long high voltage insulated wires. c. The SDZ is contained in figure 149. d. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required.

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Figure 149. Launched electrode stun device

1412. M104 non-lethal bursting hand grenade a. The M104 non-lethal bursting hand grenade has a rubber molded body and has an output that combines a bright flash and loud explosion which consists of 100 pliable rubber projectiles to disorient and confuse targeted personnel. b. PPE including eye and neck protection (Army) is required within a 17m radius. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 0 is required. c. Single hearing protection is required by all personnel within 195m. d. The SDZ is contained in figure 1410.

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1413. Special Effects Small Arms Marking System (Marine Corps) a. The Special Effects Small Arms Marking System (SESAMS) is a Marine Corps training system that fires a marking cartridge (colored dye) to enhance realism for force-on-force training. Improper use of the SESAMS training system may cause serious personal injury and/or damage to equipment. b. The mixing of live ammunition and SESAMS rounds is prohibited. c. Installation commanders should establish a range safety officer (RSO) program that specifically addresses SESAMS training system requirements. SESAMS training systems will also be addressed in the installations range SOP. d. Upon completion of the SESAMS RSO requirements, installation commanders will certify Marine staff sergeants (and above), or other Service equivalent, as SESAMS RSO. e. Before SESAMS firing: (1) Ensure that ONLY Marine Corps procured adapter kits and marking cartridges are used. (2) Force-on-force training with SESAMS 9mm DODICs (AA12) and (AA21) is prohibited when temperatures are below 38 degrees Fahrenheit. Training with SESAMS 5.56mm DODICs (AB05) and (AB06) is prohibited when temperatures are below 18 degrees or above 104 degrees Fahrenheit. (3) Account for and remove all live ammunition from the designated training area prior to commencement of SESAMS training exercises. (4) Instruct all participants that head shots are not authorized. (5) Ensure that all personnel within the 150m safety distance (zone) wear PPE Level 0 protective equipment and clothing. The use of groin protection and gloves is highly encouraged.

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(a) The FX 9000 and 9003 Protective Face Masks are authorized for use. The FX 9003 Protective Face Mask is specifically authorized for use with DODICs (AB05) and (AB06). (b) The MCU2A/P Chemical Biological Mask may be used for face and eye protection ONLY if the hard outer eye shields and the C2 canister are attached prior to use with the SESAMS training system. (c) A balaclava, towel, or neck scarf will be worn so as not to expose any portion of the neck and throat. A commercially produced neck protector is also available from Simunition, the FX 8000 Protective Throat Collar. (6) Ensure that the 150m safety distance (zone) remains clear of unprotected personnel. f. During SESAMS firing: (1) Ensure that qualified medical personnel and appropriate medical equipment are available during all SESAMS training exercises (same as live-fire). (2) Ensure all personnel wear approved hearing protection during all SESAMS training exercises. (3) Ensure that a minimum safe engagement distance of 2m (6.5ft) for the 9mm SESAMS training system and 4m (13ft) for the 5.56mm system is established and maintained from the muzzle. g. After SESAMS firing: (1) Ensure all weapons are returned to their operational state and a function check is performed. (2) Account for and return all unused ammunition to the appropriate location in accordance with current applicable directives. 1414. Close combat mission capability kit (Army) a. All personnel engaged in close combat mission capability kit (CCMCK) force-on-force training will wear PPE in accordance with the procedures, restrictions, and other guidance contained in technical/operator manuals, references, and/or pamphlets (TM 96920370010). No personnel will be allowed within 75m of the outermost boundary of the training area when force-on-force training is being conducted without meeting the minimum PPE safety requirements. b. All participants will be instructed that no head shots will be taken. c. The minimum engagement distance is 5m (17ft). d. All participants will be inspected by the RSO, NCOIC, or OIC prior to the initiation of training to ensure that PPE is worn and that employed individual weapons (M16/M4/M249/M9/M11) have been properly converted to fire low-velocity marking ammunition. e. Single hearing protection is required to be worn within 5m of 9mm and 5.56mm weapons using CCMCK marking ammunition during firing. f. Tabular data is contained in table 144. The SDZ is contained in figure 43.

Chapter 15 Mines, Firing Devices, Trip Flares, Simulators, and Explosive Charges151. General a. Basic procedures for handling and detonating explosives, mines, firing devices, trip flares, and simulators used by personnel in training are addressed in this chapter. These procedures do not include projectiles, rockets, bombs, fuzes, or firing devices covered in other paragraphs of this pamphlet unless otherwise stated. b. The following safe practices pertain to standard military and commercial explosives used by the Army, and the Marine Corps, except where noted. They also pertain to items containing explosives such as demolition blocks and mines. Marine Corps units will use the requirements contained in NAVSEA OP5, Volume 1, NAVSEA SWO60AAMMA010, EODB/TM/TO 60A series, and the Guidebook for Assault Entry Techniques. (1) For the Army, general safe practices for handling and transporting explosives are prescribed in TM 9137521312, FM 334.214, and DA Pam 38564. For Marine Corps units, information regarding transportation and

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handling of explosives are in NAVSEA OP5, Volume 1, NAVSEA SWO20AFABK010, NAVSEA SWO20ACSAF010, NAVSEA SWO20ACSAF020, NAVSEA SWOACSAF030, and MCO 8020.10. (2) Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) demolition activities will be conducted in accordance with the provisions of AR 7515 and EODB 60 series publications for U. S. Army EOD personnel, and NAVSEA OP5 and EODB 60 series publications for Marine Corps EOD personnel. (3) Commercial dynamite will not be stored for prolonged periods at temperatures above 90 degrees because exudation of the nitroglycerin is likely to occur. Storage below 32 degrees tends to make it sensitive to shock. Dynamite will not be moved or transported if there is evidence of exudation or if it has been frozen. In such cases, the dynamite will be considered unserviceable and will be disposed of by EOD personnel. When possible, avoid the use of commercial dynamite in a combat environment due to its storage requirements, sensitivity to moving, and possible detonation from direct fire rounds or artillery fragments. Commercial explosives cannot be burned without risk of explosion. EOD personnel will dispose of commercial explosives. (4) Unserviceable explosives and any ammunition not to be used as designated for training or operations will be returned to the issuing ASP for disposition. (5) Some foreign military explosives are not as stable as U.S. explosives. EOD personnel will dispose of foreign explosives under U.S. military control, as appropriate. (6) Gases released by detonation of explosives are toxic. Avoid exposure to fumes. Position personnel upwind from detonation points and wait until smoke and fumes disperse before proceeding down range. (7) Buried charges will be primed with detonating cord leading to above ground electric or non-electric blasting caps. Blasting caps will not be buried underground as they are sensitive to shock and may detonate if hit by a metal tool or other hard object. (8) Detonating cord should be used to prime charges on above ground charges to minimize the need to use blasting caps. Once the explosives charges are primed with detonating cord, the detonating cord will be initiated with an aboveground electric, non-electric blasting cap, or a modernized demolition initiator (MDI). (9) Lightning and other sources of extraneous electricity (for example, static electricity, high power lines, radio transmitters, and cellular phones) can initiate electro-explosive devices. Electro-explosive devices are subject to hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance. Non-electric blasting techniques are invulnerable to most extraneous electric signals but not to lightning. All demolition training operations must be discontinued at the approach of an electric or severe dust storm. (10) Detonation circuits will not be connected or armed on any munition unless the intent is to detonate the munition. When munitions are to be detonated, the area will be cleared of all non-mission-essential personnel with a minimum crew remaining to connect the detonation circuit. Live blasting caps or other live detonators will not be located at training sites if munitions are not to be detonated. (11) All personnel within the SDZ will wear approved protective helmets and hearing protection for all detonations, including while in the confines of missile-proof shelters. IBA, helmet, and hearing protection (Army)/PPE Level 1 (Marine Corps) will be worn by personnel within the SDZ but outside the missile-proof shelter. Eye protection should be worn. (12) Only mission-essential personnel (Army)/ participating personnel (Marine Corps) will be allowed in SDZs during firing. c. When temporary open storage of explosives is used, stacks will not exceed 227kg (500lbs) of explosives. Distance between stacks should not be less than 45m (150ft). The RMTK On Range Ammunition Handling Tool (ORAHT) will be used to produce explosive danger zones for single or multiple DODICs when the munitions to be stored are in total support of the training mission. (1) For the Marine Corps, the RMTK ORAHT should be used to produce explosives danger zones for single or multiple DODICs when the munitions to be stored are in total support of the training mission. (2) For the Army, the RMTK ORAHT may be used to produce explosives danger zones for single or multiple DODICs when the munitions to be stored are in total support of the training mission. d. Live and inert munitions/demolitions will not be mixed. e. Demolitions effects simulators (DES) which contain live explosives, as well as other simulators, are considered live munitions. f. Basic demolition training will include the following procedures: (1) Procedures in FM 334.214 will be used for all training in the use of demolitions. Field expedient methods outlined in applicable field manuals are authorized for use. Unit commanders will receive prior approval from the installation range control officer with concurrence of the installation safety manager (Army) prior to conducting activities employing field expedient procedures or explosives. (2) While engaging in demolition training, the minimum distances given in paragraph 151h may be reduced to 50m (165ft) if bare charges of not more than 2.27kg (5lbs) are used on the surface of specially prepared sites. The site condition will conform as follows: (a) Charges will be detonated on a sand cushion that has been screened and is pebble or stone free (material passes

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through a #10 sieve). The sand cushion will not be less than that specified in table 151. Subsequent charges will not be placed where cratering from previous detonations has reduced the depth of sand. (b) Charges will be detonated on soil free from gravel, rock, metal or other possible missiles to a depth of at least 0. 15m (6in). Ground preparation will include loosening and raking the soil. A barricade constructed of sandbags or other suitable protective material at least 1m above the surrounding level of ground will be provided between the location of the charge and personnel. Charges will be placed not less than 1m or more than 2m from the barricade. The detonation site will be maintained to prevent formation of clods or exposure of gravel or rock on or near the surface. It is helpful to place a layer of porous, water permeable matting (geo-textile fabric consisting of woven nylon, and polyester) between a rocky layer of soil and the upper layer of soil that must be free of gravel, rock, metal, or other potential missiles. This will help prevent contamination of the upper soil layer from the migration of gravel and rock and help reduce long-term maintenance costs. (3) During basic or familiarization demolition training, instructors will supervise not more than five students while they are priming individual charges. Not more than five students will prime charges at a time. The remainder of students and observers will withdraw to a safe position before priming occurs. (4) Single charges placed against steel, concrete, wood, or other solid material during training or demonstrations will be emplaced on the side nearest observers so that major fragments are propelled away from the observers. (5) Dual initiation systems are preferred over single initiation systems to increase reliability. Consult FM 334.214 and use the best combination of initiation systems to decrease the possibility of misfires. g. Explosives can propel lethal fragments and debris hazards great distances. (1) The distance explosion-propelled fragments or debris will travel in air depends mainly on the relationship between weight, shape, density, initial angle of projection, and initial velocity. Fragment and debris hazards from steelcutting charges extend a greater distance under normal conditions than that from cratering, quarrying, or surface charges of bare explosives. (2) Fragment and debris hazard distances at which personnel in the open are relatively safe from missiles created by bare charges placed in or on the ground, regardless of type or condition of the soil, are as follows: (a) Charges more than 227kg (500lbs): Minimum 800m fragment and debris hazard distance. (b) Charges from:12kg (27lbs) to 227kg (500lbs) charges, computed from the formula: Safe distance in meters = 100 times the cube root of the pounds of explosive (D = 100 x W1/3). (c) Less than 12kg (27lbs): Minimum 300m fragment and debris hazard distance. (d) See table 152 for computed safe distances for personnel near bare charges. (3) For 0.25-pound charges used to simulate enemy artillery fire and mortar fire that are detonated in specially constructed demolition pits constructed as described in paragraph 1510e(8), the minimum distance may be reduced to not less than 3m. h. Blast effects generate hazards. (1) Generally, the greatest danger to personnel is missiles thrown by an explosion. However, blast effect (such as an increase in air pressure) also generates hazards to personnel located within the SDZ. Special protective features used at detonation or demolition sites to eliminate or confine missiles may not reduce or mitigate overpressure and noise hazards. (2) Hearing protection is required for any exposure to noise greater than 140 dBP. Follow the hearing protection recommendations listing in the technical manuals for the explosive devices used. If the hearing protection recommendations are not listed in the manuals, compute the 140 dBP contour from the formula: Distance to 140 dBP contour in meters = 300 times the cube root of the weight of explosive in kilograms (D=300 x W1/3). Table 153 contains the distances for various weights of explosives. i. The following methods are used for charges placed on steel and concrete (1) Charges placed on steel. (a) The preferred method of employing steel cutting charges is in a bunker designed for that purpose. Steel cutting charges (amount of explosives and placement) will be calculated based on appropriate formulas and tables in FM 334. 214. (b) If a steel-cutting bunker is not available, charges will be fired in an excavated pit that is at least 1m deep. Steelcutting charges fired outside of a steel-cutting bunker will not exceed 0.9kg (2lbs). (c) Personnel must be a minimum of 100m from the charge at detonation in a missile-proof shelter, 300m in defilade, or 1,000m if in the open. (2) Charges placed on concrete. Charges placed on concrete will not exceed 18kg (40lbs) and should be placed on the side nearest observers. Observers must be at least 100m away in a missile-proof shelter, 300m away in defilade, or 900m away in the open. An unoccupied distance of 900m will be provided on the opposite side of the charge where most missile hazards will be thrown. (3) For the Army, all personnel will wear approved protective helmets, IBA and single hearing protection. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 2. Eye protection is recommended. j. Explosive entry techniques are used in special missions where assault personnel require immediate access to the

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target. To train for this type of mission, individuals may be required to be closer to the detonation than authorized by this pamphlet in paragraph 1512. Such operations will require a deviation in accordance with chapter 1 of this pamphlet. 152. Firing devices a. Electrical firing will be used with caution and will be replaced by non-electric firing systems when the possibility exists of unintentional detonation from extraneous electrical energy sources (for example power transmission lines, cellular telephones, generators, radios, or any weather conditions which produce static electricity or lightning). Electric blasting circuits must be checked for stray electromagnetic energy by using a test set. Test sets will not detect nontransmitting portable equipment that may be in the vicinity. Therefore, total reliance must not be placed on these detection methods to ensure the safety of personnel. Areas selected for demolition training sites will be surveyed for electromagnetic energy. This survey is an installation responsibility. Areas will be controlled to prevent entry of portable transmitting equipment from the surrounding area. The data in tables 154, 155, and 156 showing transmitter and radiative power in watts and minimum separation distances to electric blasting operation apply to operation of a radio, radar, and television transmitting equipment. b. Electric firing will not be used for demolition training when surveys show that the transmitted field strength exceeds energy levels shown in tables 154, 155, and 156. c. Static electricity will be eliminated or non-electric firing systems will be used. d. Approved firing devices (for example, M1, M1A1, M3, M5, M122, XM122, M142, and M152) employed in accordance with Army and Marine Corps FMs and TMs are authorized for use with practice mines. Since these firing devices can be configured with practice and HE activators, care must be taken to ensure the proper activator is assembled to the proper mine. HE activators will not be used with training mines. e. A dual electric disconnect system will be used when installing electrical firing systems on demolitions. The main source of power will be turned off and a lockout device will be used. 153. Shaped charges a. Shaped charges will be oriented so that gas jets will be directed toward the target. When practicable, charges should be placed on the side of the target nearest to observers, so that the blast is directed away from them. Observers will be at least 100m away in a missile-proof shelter, 275m in defilade, or 1,000m for unprotected personnel, from shaped charges when fired. b. For the Army, all personnel will wear approved protective helmets, IBA, and single hearing protection. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 1. Eye protection should be worn. c. The MK47 demolition shaped charge, Mod 1, requires a safe separation distance of 300m for protected personnel. For unprotected personnel, the stand-off distance is 1,610m. 154. Bangalore torpedoes a. Bangalore torpedoes will only be fired while on the ground in a horizontal position. Personnel will be in a missile-proof shelter 100m from the charge, or 200m away in defilade. For unprotected personnel in the open, the minimum safe distance (MSD) is 1,000m at right angles to axis of the Bangalore torpedo, 200m for personnel in the line of axis. If a field expedient Bangalore torpedo, in which the explosive weight exceeds the standard, is used against a steel target, fragments (missiles) could be produced which may fly further than the MSD. Prior to construction and use of a field expedient Bangalore torpedo a SDZ will be developed per FM 334.214 and this pamphlet. This SDZ must be approved by the installation range control officer. b. For the Army, all personnel will wear approved protective helmets, IBA, and single hearing protection. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 1. Eye protection should be worn. 155. Mine-clearing line charge a. Firing conditions. (1) Because of high exhaust temperatures, the mine-clearing line charge will not be towed behind an M1 Abrams tank. (2) Non-participating personnel will not be allowed within the mine-clearing line charge SDZ or noise hazard contour during firing. (3) Only participating personnel are allowed within Area F. Such personnel will be in an armored vehicle in a button-up mode with approved single hearing protection. (4) The M68 inert charge should not be fired more than three times as additional firings may result in breakage of charge blocks and erratic flight of the rocket. Units will record number of firings in accordance with unit SOP. (5) When firing the M154 Kit, all amphibious assault vehicle hatches will be closed (Marine Corps). b. Surface danger zone. (1) SDZ requirements for firing the mine-clearing line charge with M58 HE charge are provided in figure 151.

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(2) The SDZ requirements for firing the mine-clearing line charge with M68 inert charge are provided in figure 152. (3) Distance X takes into account the most probable event of charge or cable separation or an unrestrained rocket motor impacting downrange. (4) If the detonation command link severs during a charge or cable separation, detonation of the HE charge will not occur. (5) The fragmentation zone required for the HE charge is for containment of fragments and debris of a normal mineclearing line charge impact. (6) Mine-clearing line charges will not be destroyed by burning. They contain booster charges that detonate when exposed to heat or pressure. Misfired or dud line charges will be destroyed by EOD personnel only after all misfire procedures have been performed by the firing unit.

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Figure 151. Surface danger zone for firing a mine-clearing line charge with the M58 HE charge

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c. Anti-Personnel Obstacle Breaching System. (1) Anti-Personnel Obstacle Breaching System firing personnel shall be at least 50m from the launch point and 75m from the deployed grenades and in a prone position. In the event of a catastrophic detonation at the launch point, the rear exclusion area will protect personnel provided that they are in the prone position and use hearing protection. (2) Personnel without hearing protection shall not be permitted within 1,187m of the launch point. (3) SDZ requirements for firing the Anti-Personnel Obstacle Breaching System are provided in figure 153.

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156. Cratering charges a. The maximum charge to be fired in training will not exceed 145kg (320lbs). b. MSD for personnel not in missile-proof shelters will depend on the net explosive weight of explosive used. MSD for up to 2kg (5lbs) is 100m; for up to 30kg (66lbs) is 300m; over 30kg (66lbs) is 500m. c. For the Army, all personnel will wear approved protective helmets, IBA and single hearing protection. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 1. Eye protection should be worn. d. Missile-proof shelters, if strong enough to withstand any material propelled onto it by the detonation, located not less than 100m from the detonation site may be occupied by personnel. e. All cratering charges will be dual primed with detonating cord. Blasting caps will not be placed underground. Electric or non-electric caps or MDI will be attached to the detonating cord above ground. 157. Mines a. Practice and inert mines will be color coded in accordance with MILSTD709A and TM 91300200, paragraph 86, and will have the appropriate identification marking stenciled on them. Service, practice, and inert mines and fuzes will not be mixed. (1) Inert mines and mine fuzes do not present a safety hazard. They will be color-coded and marked in accordance with MIL STD709C to prevent mixing with practice and HE mines.

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(2) Practice mines and their fuzes contain a small, low explosive charge or a smoke producing increment. They will be color coded in accordance with MIL STD709A. b. Training with non-self destruct (NSD) mines is prohibited. c. Claymore antipersonnel mines will be operated under the following conditions: (1) Firing conditions. (a) Range OIC will ensure mines are installed correctly and facing into the impact area. (b) All mines will be secured until the range OIC directs their issue. (c) Emplaced mines will not be disarmed except by order of the range OIC. (d) Firing devices will only be connected at the command of the range OIC. (e) When more than one mine is to be fired, the range OIC will ensure that previous firings have not dislodged the other mines in the impact area. (f) After firing, the impact area will be inspected to ensure that all mines have detonated. (g) Misfires will be handled in accordance with FM 2323. (h) Personnel will not be allowed within 16m to the rear of the mine. Firing personnel may occupy an area between 16 and 100 m to the rear of the mine if they are located in a covered position, lying prone in a depression, or behind a physical barrier. All personnel will wear approved protective helmets, IBA and single hearing protection. Eye protection should be worn. When the mine is tied to a tree or fired in an area that attenuates the secondary missile hazard, friendly troops within a 16m to 50m radius behind the mine must be in a covered position. (2) Surface danger zone. (a) SDZ requirements for firing the M18 and M18A1 Claymore mine are provided in figure 154. (b) Care must be exercised when installing mines to prevent the creation of secondary fragment and debris hazards. (c) For the Army, all personnel will wear approved protective helmets, IBA and single hearing protection. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 1. Eye protection should be worn.

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Figure 154. Surface danger zone for firing Claymore mines

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d. The Volcano multiple delivery mine system is a rapid mine-dispensing system for launching antitank mines from various vehicles. The air system uses UH60 Black hawk helicopters. SDZ requirements for the air system are shown in figures 155 and 156. The SDZ for the air system is dependent upon aircraft speed, altitude, and the dispenser control setting. The ground system uses cargo or dump truck. SDZ requirements for the ground system are shown in figures 157 and 158.

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158. Firing devices a. Instructions in TM 9137521312 will be followed when installing, arming, and disarming firing devices. b. Firing devices and fuzes, either with or without the standard bases, will not be pointed at personnel. c. Standard bases containing unfired percussion caps, firing devices, and fuzes will not be carried in the pocket. d. Standard bases containing unfired percussion caps will be kept separated from firing devices and fuzes until the firing device or fuze is ready to be installed in the mine or booby trap. e. Safety pins on firing devices and fuzes should be checked for ease of movement before attaching the standard base. The safety pins for locking and positive safeties should easily move. f. Before removing the tripwire, the positive safety will be installed on armed firing devices or fuzes having a tripwire attached. g. The assembly, arming, and disarming of antipersonnel mine fuze M605 will be in accordance with TM 9134520312. 159. M48 and M49 trip flares a. Use inert flares to instruct students in the use, emplacement, and fuzing of service flares. b. Fence or guard each service trip flare used in training to prevent personnel from approaching within 2m of the emplaced flare. c. Clear trip flare firing positions of flammable material to prevent accidental fires. Do not use the M48 trip flare in areas where fire could cause serious damage. 1510. Simulators a. M80 explosive simulators detonate 3 to 5 seconds after ignition of the fuse cord and are capable of causing serious injury. Fuse cord tips should not be split since this reduces burning time and increases the potential for injury to personnel. Do not use M1 and M2 type fuse igniters to ignite the M80 fuse cord or hold the M80 simulator when ignited. b. Procedures for the safe use of other simulators are contained in TM 9137020610, TM 9137020710, and TM 9137020810. No attempt will be made to disarm or disassemble simulators. c. See TM 9137020710 for the M142 atomic explosion simulator firing precautions. d. Commercially manufactured fireworks (designated for civilian use) will not be handled, stored, or used in any way by military personnel on an installation. e. When explosive charges (TNT blocks or composition C4) are used to simulate detonation of mines and incoming artillery projectiles, mortars, and bombs during exercises or on the infiltration course, the following procedures will be used: (1) Charges will be fired in specially prepared detonation pits with the charge positioned in the center of the pit. See paragraph 1510e(8) for demolition pit requirements. (2) Only charges of standard issue TNT blocks or composition C4 of one-quarter pound will be used. Composition C4 may be cut into 0.25-pound blocks in accordance with FM 334.214. TNT blocks will be cut in accordance with the instructions in the corresponding TM. (3) Charges will be detonated electrically from a position that allows a clear view of the pit and the immediate vicinity. Follow safety precautions in paragraph 152, and tables 151 through 153 when using electric blasting caps and circuits. (4) Blasting circuit wires leading to charges in the detonation pits will be buried, preferably in conduit, or otherwise secured to prevent personnel from becoming entangled in or tripping over the wires. (5) Only one charge will be emplaced in a pit at a time. (6) Pits will be inspected and cleared of objects prior to emplacing charges to remove potential hazardous missiles. (7) Charges may only be detonated when crawling personnel are 3m or more from the center of the pit and erect personnel are 25m or more from the pit. (8) Detonation pits will be constructed in the following manner: (a) Pits will be excavated in the shape of a cone at least 1.5m in diameter by 0.6m deep. Excavated pits will be backfilled 0.3m with clean, clay-free sand that has passed through a #10 screen. Any object larger than sand grain size is considered a pebble. Pits will be free draining so that the sand filled area will quickly drain clear of water. Soil conditions may require that drains be constructed. (b) A ring of sandbags or other suitable barrier material (for example, treated timbers) 0.6m high with an inside diameter of 2m will be constructed around each pit. Construct a barrier at least 1m outside of the sandbag rings that does not project above the top of the sandbags. These detonation pit barriers will be physically different from any other

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barrier which personnel are expected to negotiate and will be sufficient to keep personnel 1m away from the detonation pits. (c) Dimensions given above for detonation pits and sandbag rings with barriers are minimum requirements and will not survive extensive use without frequent maintenance. Larger diameters and depths, as well as double-walled sandbag rings, are recommended for detonation pits used more than once a week. (d) A dual electrical disconnect system will be used when charges are being placed in the pits. The main source of power will be turned off by the individual placing the charge in the pit. Once the power is turned off, a lockout device will be used. f. Demolitions effects simulators (DES) charges are explosives which use detonating cord, blasting caps, a modern demolition initiator, cardboard, and sand or chalk to simulate other explosives. Extreme care must be exercised when using DES. DES is an explosive and all safety guidance contained in this pamphlet and FM 334.214 must be followed. All procedures and MSDs for the charge that is simulated must be followed. For example, a DES bangalore torpedo would require the same MSDs and procedures for an actual bangalore torpedo. All demolitions effects simulators must be marked as DES. g. Improvised explosive device (IED) simulators provide visual and audible effects with minimal risk to participants. These devices can be remote-detonated or hard-wired for direct firing. (1) The use of non-pyrotechnic IED simulators with pyrotechnics and/or explosives is not authorized. (2) The use of flour or starch-based products in place of the recommended smoke simulation powders is not authorized. Flour and starch-based products can be flammable and the resulting plume of flour or starch-based product could ignite should an ignition source be present. (3) Non-pyrotechnic IED simulators can produce extreme recoil reaction when initiated. Simulators must be secured using ground stakes and/or sandbags. (4) Never attempt to alter non-pyrotechnic IED simulators or operate them with any altered, broken, or missing parts. The misuse of this equipment may cause serious injury or death. (5) Remote initiators must be in the possession of the individual making the electrical or pneumatic connections. Initiators will not be connected to the non-pyrotechnic IED simulator until all safety requirements have been met. (6) Hazard areas for IED simulators are contained in equipment instruction manuals and must be enforced at all times. Personnel within the hazard area of a non-pyrotechnic IED simulator will wear the following PPE: eye protection, single-hearing protection, and helmet. (7) Do not place a non-pyrotechnic IED simulator in such a manner that it will be pointed at personnel when initiated. (8) Should a non-pyrotechnic IED simulator fail to function, a wait time of 10 minutes is to be observed prior to approaching the simulator. Simulators are to be disarmed (disconnect the device from the initiator) and approached from the base end. Ensure discharge end is pointed down range and that the device is secured to prevent movement. (9) All setup, training, and disassembly involving live (armed) non-pyrotechnic IED simulators will be conducted outdoors. (10) Non-pyrotechnic IED simulators will not be stored, carried, or transported live. They are not to be assembled until they are on site and being readied for immediate use. (11) OICs, RSOs, and personnel using non-pyrotechnic IED simulators will receive training prior to receiving equipment and the use of it in training exercises. Only those personnel who complete the required training will be authorized to draw the equipment from issue sites. (12) Strict accountability must be maintained of non-pyrotechnic IED simulators as they are functional and realistic in appearance. (13) The compressed CO2 gas used to activate the cuing devices can cause serious injury or death if improperly handled. Follow safety instructions in equipment instruction manuals regarding the use of the CO2 gas and its containers. 1511. Safety requirements for firing aerial pyrotechnics (Marine Corps only) a. Personnel participating in exercises that include the firing of aerial pyrotechnics such as Smokey Sams or Smokey Guns will wear PPE Level 1 and other protective equipment required by SOPs. b. Inspect Smokey Sam rockets prior to use and report all rockets that appear to have moisture damage. Damaged rockets will not be fired. c. When firing these pyrotechnics, anyone may stop the firing sequence if it is not safe to fire, or if the dispensing aircraft is within 610m (2,000ft) as prescribed in NAVAIR TM 117563. 1512. Training conducted in explosive entry techniques a. Explosive entry techniques are used in special missions where assault personnel require immediate access to the target. To train for this mission, individuals must be closer to the detonation than is authorized elsewhere in this chapter. Because of the unique character and requirements of this training, the following special safety guidelines are established to support this training.DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012 189

(1) Stand-off distance for personnel will be determined using the formula D(ft) = K x W1/3 where D = distance, K = a constant (the K factor for explosive entry techniques is set at 18) and the W1/3 = cube root of weight of the explosives in pounds. This is the limit at which the possibility of eardrum damage is less than 1 percent. This stand-off distance is related to blast pressure and does not reflect fragmentation damage. When a barrier is used, the safe overpressure standoff distance may be divided by 2. (2) Fragmentation standoff will equal the blast standoff when a protective barrier is provided between the explosive and the personnel. This barrier may be in the form of wood, cement, metal, or a ballistic blanket barrier. The barrier must be able to absorb all fragmentation. (3) All personnel within the fragmentation distance of a detonation will wear appropriate protective gear. For the Army, all personnel will wear approved protective helmets, IBA and single hearing protection. For the Marine Corps, PPE Level 2. Eye protection will be worn. Personnel conducting the detonation will also wear fire-resistant hoods, coveralls, and gloves. Clothing with short sleeves is not authorized when conducting this training. b. For the Marine Corps, SDZs for ranges dedicated to the conduct of explosives entry techniques will be set and approved by CG, MCCDC (C465).

Notes: 1 Computed missile hazard distance in meters=100 times the cube root of the pounds of explosive: (D=100 X W1/3). 2 When charges less than five pounds are placed on specially prepared or selected sites (paragraph 151f(2)(a)) to eliminate a missile hazard, distance may be reduced to not less than 50m.

watts 51 10 50 100 1802 250 5003 6004 1,0005 10,0006

Notes: 1 Citizens band radio (walkie-talkie) (26.96 to 27.41MHz) minimum safe distance is 1.52m. 2 Maximum power for 2-way mobile units in VHF (150.8 to 161.6 MHz) range and for 2-way mobile and fixed-station units in UHF (450 to 460 MHz) range. 3 Maximum power for major VHF 2-way mobile and fixed-station units in 35 to 44 MHz range. 4 Maximum power for 2-way fixed-station units in VHF (150.8 to 161.1 MHz) range. 5 Maximum power for amateur radio mobile units. 6 Maximum power for some base stations in 42 to 44 MHz band and 1.8 MHz band.

Chapter 16 Laser Range Safety

161. General The fundamental concept of laser range safety is to prevent direct and collateral injury or damage resulting from laser use. Personnel using or supervising the use of lasers will be thoroughly familiar with all aspects of laser operations, systems employed, and associated dangers during training. a. Safe use of military lasers and laser systems. This chapter provides guidance for the safe use of military lasers and laser systems on military ranges as listed in MILHDBK828B and Joint Publication 309. b. Lasers will be treated as direct-fire weapons. c. Laser systems. Laser systems will be directed only at approved targets and from approved operating positions/ areas or on designated headings and altitudes. d. Laser usage. Unfiltered Class 3B, 4, or DOD-exempt lasers will be used only on certified laser ranges approved for laser usage in accordance with paragraph 163.

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e. Nominal ocular hazard distance. The nominal ocular hazard distance (NOHD) is the distance from an operating laser to the point where the laser is no longer an eye hazard (for example, the irradiance or radiant exposure during operation is not expected to exceed the appropriate maximum permissible exposure (MPE) level). f. Unprotected personnel. Unprotected personnel must not be exposed to laser radiation within the NOHD of the laser system. g. Protected personnel. Personnel within the laser surface danger zone will wear Laser Eye Protection (LEP) during laser operations. Eyewear must be appropriate for the wavelength and corresponding optical density (OD) required of the laser system in use. Skin protection should be worn when appropriate. h. Aided viewing. Aided viewing involves the use of optical devices including binoculars, scopes, rangefinders, and so forth. The magnification of laser energy can significantly increase the NOHD of the laser. The use of magnifying optical devices to observe the target during laser operation is permitted if specular surfaces have been removed from the laser surface danger zone, appropriate laser filters are used, or it is being viewed beyond the NOHD-magnified. Optical devices not marked with the level of protection at the laser wavelength should be assumed to offer no protection unless verified. Personnel should not deliberately view direct laser radiation with magnifying optical instruments within NOHD-magnified unless the optical devices have the appropriate filtration to limit the exposure to below the MPE level. i. Optical Interrupt laser systems. Optical Interrupt (OI) laser systems use intense light to cause visual field obscuration in targeted individuals. OIs are intended to be primarily a warning device, with an inherent and secondary capability to achieve ocular suppression effects as the situation dictates. The OI device should meet stringent safety criteria and be able to deliver a warning effect to targeted personnel by obscuring their vision. The devices currently in use may be Class 3R or greater laser systems that can be safely employed for training. However, due to the intensity of the laser beam, it can pose an eye hazard within the NOHD if incorrectly employed. If exposure distances are known and briefed prior to use which are equal to or less than the NOHD of the system, the OI laser system must be terminated. j. Backstops. Backstops, natural or manmade, are features downrange from the target which terminate the beam, thus limiting the hazard distance. The optimal use of backstops is key to minimizing laser hazards. k. Buffer zones. The buffer zone is a conical volume starting at the laser exit port and extending to the backstop or NOHD, expanding over this distance as defined by the divergence of the laser plus buffer angle. The buffer angle depends on the aiming accuracy and stability of the laser device and is usually greater than the divergence. The laser horizontal buffer zone could be partially or completely included in the danger zones of other weapons used on ranges. l. Laser surface danger zone designation. The laser surface danger zone is the designated region or ground area where laser radiation levels may exceed MPE levels, thereby requiring control during laser operation. When used in conjunction with live-fire weapons, the laser surface danger zone might be more elongated than the SDZ/weapon danger zone if not terminated by an adequate backstop. Laser surface danger zones can be generated, either manually or by using the RMTK laser range management tool, to support training plans, map data, information requests, and so forth. This effort includes inputting the laser system and range data (for example, firing points and targets) and performing analysis to mitigate risk to ensure the laser training can be safely conducted on a given operational training range. m. Hazardous laser output. Unless otherwise specifically authorized, when lasers are not in use, hazardous laser output should be prevented by removing batteries, installing such devices as output covers, or rotating the laser into the stowed position. n. Laser exit port. The laser exit port must be covered or stowed and the device turned off when not engaged in training. Non-laser operations such as viewing through common optics can be conducted in a non-laser controlled area with the laser exit port cover removed if the laser is turned off. o. Laser systems modes. When laser systems have both training and combat operating modes, the combat mode will be employed only if safely contained in the laser training ranges controlled area. SOPs will enforce this measure. p. Force-on-force operations. Force-on-force laser operations involve combat simulation, target acquisition, illumination and/or pointing, target designation, weapons guidance, or range-finding against friendly and/or opposing forces. Force-on-force laser tactical exercises are approved on a case-by-case basis, dependent on the scheme of maneuver and risk analysis submitted by the using unit. Tactical exercises involving force-on-force units using laser systems other than Multiple Integrated Laser Engagement System (MILES) may require approval by the senior commander (Army)/ installation commander (Marine Corps). Only Service-approved laser devices are used in force-on-force tactical exercises. Composite risk management (CRM)/operational risk management (ORM) procedures are completed in accordance with FM 519, MCRP 512, and MCO 3500.27B. 162. Procedural guidance The policies and responsibilities for laser usage on ranges and training areas are defined in AR 38563/MCO 3570.1C. Provided is procedural guidance on how to fulfill those policies and responsibilities. a. Specific institutional guidance for laser range safety. The institutional laser range authority provides guidance to installations via Service-specific regulations. The institutional laser range authority maintains publications relating to

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laser use on ranges and establishes or recommends the requirements for training programs. They ensure certification of ranges for laser use in accordance with paragraph 163 of this pamphlet. (1) Army. The Commanding General, U.S. Army Public Health Command (USAPHC), Laser Optical Radiation Program (LORP) (MCHBTSOLO) provides laser range specific technical expertise to the CG, TRADOC (ATICTCT) on laser hazards to personnel operating lasers. USAPHC expertise includes evaluation of laser systems and recommendations on policies and procedures to limit exposure to lasers on ranges. A non-ionizing radiation protection study by USAPHC and a safety confirmation by the Developmental Test Command (DTC) of the U.S. Army Test and Evaluation Command should be performed on the laser system prior to use on laser ranges. Non-fielded lasers systems or laser systems not in their original configuration (such as, a laser was fielded for use in a helicopter and now is planned to be mounted on a vehicle), the organization using the laser must obtain a safety release from DTC prior to use on the laser ranges. (2) Marine Corps. CG, MCCDC (C465) serves as the proponent for all matters pertaining to the oversight and coordination of laser ranges within Marine Corps RTAs. Additionally, CG, MCCDC (C465) serves as the single point of contact for all Marine Corps laser range management issues in coordination with installations and other Services for laser range requirements. b. Specific installation guidance for laser range safety. The installation commander normally assigns responsibilities for the following laser range safety procedures to the RCO: (1) Develop SOPs pertaining to laser range safety that include proper controls of hazardous laser radiation. SOPs should include details on laser radiation and other laser related hazards such as releasing guided ordnance that may unintentionally acquire radiation sources within the field of detection other than the target, or lasing an unapproved target. Update SOPs as necessary to account for new laser systems, training areas, and targets. (2) Review the laser range certification process and range SOP annually or when changes are made. (3) Use the Range Facility Management Support System to record date, start and stop time for lasing periods, and type of laser or other appropriate information for each laser operation (such as, laser firing log). (4) Review unit laser training/use plans as part of the range approval process to identify potential deficiencies in the training plan and monitor compliance with safety policies and procedures. Guidelines for unit laser training/use plans are included in this chapter. The installation should ensure the following guidelines have been incorporated into the unit training/use plan. (a) Laser systems are approved and appropriate for the designated range. (b) Limits of the laser surface danger zone are properly identified and are contained within the certified laser range area. (c) Ground personnel locations requiring PPE are identified. (d) Access to hazardous areas for unprotected personnel is limited. (e) Targets, laser firing area/line/points, orbit points, and laser-to-target orientation are verified to ensure they can be supported by the laser system and the range. (f) PPE requirements are verified to ensure they are appropriate for the wavelength and optical density requirements of the laser and weapon systems being used. (g) Training mode/filter requirements are evaluated and implemented if necessary. (h) Signs warning of potential laser hazards are at the access points to the laser range. (i) Emergency response procedures are identified and up to date. (5) Provide laser briefings and indoctrination on laser operations and testing, to the affected public. The information in the briefing will be at the user level (that is, complex scientific data or terminology will be avoided). (6) Laser range incident investigations will include: (a) Review incident in accordance with local SOP and training plan. (b) Request technical advice on laser capabilities and laser hazard effects. (c) Gather information about the incident. (d) Prepare and submit data for the investigation report. (e) Request unit perform a proper investigation which includes notification of the particular units change of command and, for the Marine Corps, the institutional laser range authority. c. Specific unit level guidance on laser range safety. (1) Implement the policies and procedures set forth by the installation to ensure safe use of lasers. (2) Prepare and submit laser training plans for approval to perform laser activities on a specific laser range or training area. A unit laser training plan should include the following factors: (a) Determine laser operations in support of training requirements. (b) Review training to be accomplished against local SOPs. (c) Coordinate to select a range whose laser range certification supports the laser system(s) to be used and training exercise to be accomplished. (d) Review laser modes/tactics to be employed to ensure they support the laser system and range. (e) Identify targets, laser firing area/line/points, laser-to-target orientation, and orbit points that can be supported by194 DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

the laser surface danger zone. The laser must be terminated or the NOHD fully contained within the controlled area of the range. (f) Identify ground personnel locations. (g) Identify range hazard concerns (such as, conflicts, impact areas, and clearing requirements). (h) Employ CRM or ORM in order to identify administrative controls to be implemented by the units. (i) Identify PPE requirements. (j) Identify communications requirements. (k) Review the installation SOP to be aware of local emergency response procedures and laser injury response protocol. (3) Range Laser Safety Inspection. The unit conducts laser safety inspections of the range and its operations prior to use and confirm the following areas are covered: (a) Laser warning signs are posted. (b) Range configuration is acceptable (targets/backstop, range boundaries, laser firing area/line/points). (c) laser surface danger zone is clear of specular reflectors (this can be conducted via range sweep in accordance with local SOPs). (d) Laser range or training area is clear of non-participating personnel and equipment (this can be conducted via range sweep in accordance with local SOPs). (e) Participating personnel in the area are aware of lasing activities and using appropriate PPE. (f) Laser systems are authorized per the training plan. (g) Training filters/modes are used, as applicable. (h) Communication and terminology are agreed upon with range control. (i) Correct any discrepancies prior to training. (4) Safety Brief/Pre-mission Brief. The range OIC or laser range safety officer (LRSO) provides safety briefs/premission briefs to laser range users and observers prior to laser operations. At a minimum, the brief should include as appropriate (a) Laser systems to be used and their purpose (for example, range finding, target acquisition/pointing, designating, or sensor disruption). (b) Control measures specific to the lasers employed and the range upon which they are used. (c) Authorized tactics, laser firing positions (ground and air), laser-to-target orientation, weapons release points, and weapon performance. (d) Drawings, photographs, descriptions or grid points of authorized targets. (e) Communication procedures that include specific frequencies (or channels), controlling authorities, and standardized terminology. (f) Acquisition, identification, and tracking procedures for targets. (g) Missile/ordnance mode of operation. (h) Requirements for beam termination and means to accomplish it. (i) Control measures to minimize the risk of unauthorized personnel, vehicles, or aircraft entering the range area. (j) Run-in headings and flight profiles to be used for airborne laser operations or permissible laser surface danger zone for ground-based laser operations. (k) Review of mission profiles to prevent misdirection of laser guided weapons. (l) Type of eye protection to be worn and description of proper use. (m) Potential hazards posed by the laser system (for example, backscatter, ignition of flammables, sensor disruption, or misdirection of laser guided weapons) and any other associated non-laser hazards. (n) Risk considerations for location of personnel within the SDZ/weapon danger zone for observing/lasing the target area to weapons impact. (o) A review of applicable range SOP information. (5) Guidance prior to laser operations. The OIC and LRSO also perform the following functions in advance of laser operations: (a) Review and approve laser systems and targets. (b) Use only approved lasers on the range. (c) Laser systems are used only at the approved operating position or firing points and always pointed toward the target; verify laser firing area/line/points and laser-to-target orientation. (d) Laser systems engage only authorized targets. (e) Target is positively identified in accordance with appropriate safety procedures before operation of a laser system. (f) Ensure all non-participating personnel in the immediate area of the laser firing position are outside the laser surface danger zone. (g) Target area is clear of all non-participating personnel.

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(h) Supervise pre-fire checks. Pre-fire checks that require operation of the laser system may be made in a controlled area with the laser beam terminated by an approved backstop. Pre-fire checks that do not require operation of the laser, but require use of the optics, may be safely made in any area. To use the optics without firing the laser, follow SOP to ensure power to the laser is turned off. (6) General guidance during laser operations includes the following: (a) Communications are maintained between the laser system operators, Range Control, and all affected range personnel. (b) Personnel follow safety procedures in accordance with local SOP. (c) Training filters/modes are used, as required. (d) PPE are being used, as required. (e) Approved training plan is followed. (f) Coordinate emergency response, as necessary. (7) Cease Fire Operations. If unsafe conditions are observed laser operations must be stopped. All/any personnel have the responsibility to call a CEASE FIRE when appropriate. The following are reasons to cease laser operations: (a) Any specular reflection is detected in the target area. (b) Poor target tracking is observed. (c) Non-participating personnel and/or traffic enter the laser range or training area. (d) Loss of communication with Range Control. (8) Procedures for laser incident investigations include the following actions: (a) Ensure laser system involved in the incident is quarantined. (b) Report the incident to the installation laser range authority in accordance with the local SOP and in accordance with paragraph 166. (c) Provide information on training activity/exercise, as necessary. (d) Provide information on what happened, where, when, and how. (e) Provide information on personnel who may have been exposed to a laser hazard. (f) Provide the essential parts of the pre-operational briefing. 163. Laser range certification The certification process is the approval of a range or training area for laser usage. a. Army. The certification of Army ranges for laser use is delegated to the installation under institutional authority oversight. The RCO will certify laser ranges using guidelines contained in the current MILHDBK828B. The certification data will be held on file at the installation range control office for future reference. Questions regarding laser safety or certification should be directed to the CG, TRADOC (ATICTCT). b. Marine Corps. (1) Certification of Marine Corps laser ranges will be accomplished by a range laser safety specialist (RLSS) or an approved Marine Corps laser range certifier in coordination with CG, MCCDC (C465). Laser ranges will be certified using guidelines contained in MILHDBK828B, MCO 3550.9, and MCO 5104.1C and in conjunction with the RMTK laser range management tool. The certification data will be held on file at the installation range control office and CG, MCCDC (C465) for future reference. Questions regarding laser safety or certification should be directed to the institutional laser range authority. (2) The installation RCO will assist the institutional laser range authority in performing range certification for the safe use of lasers. 164. Laser range design During the design phase of ranges upon which lasers will be used, the following procedures will be performed in order to ensure safe laser use. For the Army, this is done during site selection by the installation as a preliminary part of the laser range certification process. For the Marine Corps, the institutional laser range authority may be asked to provide input to the design of the range with regard to technical requirements. a. Conduct site analysis to determine range design requirements. b. Determine whether an existing range can be modified or a new range must be established to meet the training requirements. c. Perform risk analysis. d. Provide technical guidance on range design to support safety, mission, and environmental requirements. e. Request technical guidance on construction requirements from the appropriate installation agency. f. Consult the institutional range authority. 165. Other safety considerations a. Laser-guided munitions and other laser detectors may unintentionally acquire radiation sources within the field of detection other than the target. Fields of detection vary and are specific to individual weapons and detectors or sensors.

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Training will be planned to ensure that the angle between the laser designator line of sight and laser detectors (such as laser-guided munitions or laser-spot trackers) will not allow the munitions to impact on the laser source or scattered radiation from the laser platform. b. Extreme caution will be taken when using a target designating laser in conjunction with ordnance delivery aircraft. The potential exists for the laser seeker of the munition to lock onto the designator or its radiated energy (beam or reflected beam) instead of the target. The following procedures will be followed to reduce this risk. (1) The pilot of the attacking aircraft will confirm the location of the designator and the target before releasing munitions. (2) Approach paths will be designated and briefed to both the designating and forward air controller personnel and the aircrews prior to conducting the mission. Aircraft approach paths will be planned to preclude crossing laser designator beams with the laser seeker. The laser seeker should intersect the designator beam well forward of the laser firing point, angling toward the target. (3) Only participating personnel will be within the danger zone of the weapon employed. Additionally, only participating personnel will be located at the designator or close to a direct or reflected beam of the laser designator during operations. (4) Munitions will not be launched or released toward the laser designator. See applicable TMs, FMs, current MILHDBK828B, and doctrinal publications for recommended employment procedures. c. NVDs can detect laser energy but they will not be used for LEP. These devices are not cover-all goggles; laser energy may enter the eye from offset angles where protection is not afforded. The damage threshold for NVDs may be as low or lower than the damage threshold for the human eye. These devices can be bloomed (white out), damaged, or destroyed from exposure to laser radiation thus creating ancillary safety hazards. 166. Laser accident/incident reporting Report all suspected laser accidents/incidents, regardless of injury, in accordance with AR 38510, DA Pam 38524, DA Pam 38540, TB MED 524, MCO 5104.1C, BUMEDINST 6470.23, and AFOSH 48139. The expeditious examination and treatment of laser eye injuries is critical in minimizing loss of visual acuity. Expeditious medical guidance is available through the Tri-Service Laser Injury Hotline at 18004733549 or 9379383764, DSN (312) 7983764, or esoh.service.center@wpaf.af.mil.

Chapter 17 Live-Fire Exercises

171. Safety during live-fire exercises a. Live-fire phases of training exercises are conducted with maximum realism and safety. If safety or terrain limitations do require some unrealistic actions to be taken, personnel should be briefed, in detail, on why artificial actions are required and what the unit would do if confronted with a similar situation in combat. b. CALFEX (Army)/CAX (Marine Corps) involve the participation of two or more combat arms and/or DOD services. Air and ground weapons shall be used in accordance with current doctrine unless specifically prohibited from use by this pamphlet. Because of the dangers and complexities associated with CALFEXs/CAXs, commanders will thoroughly review training scenarios (scheme of maneuver and fire support) and ensure close coordination among participants. Commanders will apply risk management to all aspects of the CALFEX/CAX. 172. Information for commanders a. Training to permit highly realistic maneuvers and live-fire exercises involves specific personnel safety requirements. Senior commanders (Army)/installation commanders (Marine Corps) will publish specific range guidance (for example, range regulations, SOPs, and so forth) that applies specifically to their installations. This guidance will define safety requirements to support live-fire training exercises. Directives developed for a particular location are not authorized for use at a different location. b. Commanders whose units participate in live-fire exercises will (1) Make certain that all individual gunners who will take part in live-fire exercises, including fighting vehicle, tank, and aviation gunners, have fired and passed a qualification course for the weapon or system they will fire in the exercise. (2) Conduct rehearsal (dry run) exercises prior to the live-fire and maneuver exercise. The commander will assess the proficiency and experience level of their unit and the degree of risk involved to determine the scope and duration of the rehearsal and if it should be executed on the same range on which the live-fire and maneuver training will be conducted. The rehearsal should be scheduled as close to the actual event as is feasible to retain individual situational awareness and skills. Additionally, whenever feasible, rehearsals will replicate as closely as possible the conditions involved in the actual event. Such conditions should include, but are not limited to, time of day, similar terrain, and the status of the personnel (that is, uniforms, equipment, and camouflage). In addition, rehearsals will include a review ofDA PAM 38563 30 January 2012 197

range safety requirements for the live-fire and maneuver range. The review should include, but is not limited to, lateral limits, danger zones for weapons and ammunition fired, air limitations and restrictions, both for live-fire and medical evacuation, and emergency and/or casualty evacuation procedures. For the Army, the Commanding General, U.S. Army Special Operations Command (USASOC), may approve deviation from this requirement for Army Special Forces (ARSOF) units. If ARSOF units are training on a non-USASOC installation, host senior commander concurrence is required. (3) Orient participants on the capabilities of the weapons used by other components in the CALFEX/CAX. (4) Designate individuals (such as observer-controllers) who are not part of the tactical or administrative scheme to monitor safety. These individuals will maintain visual contact with maneuvering elements and should have some means of signaling a cease-fire. Communications with the tactical operations center is mandatory. c. For battalion/squadron or larger exercises, a field grade officer will be appointed as the exercise OIC. d. For the Marine Corps, the commander will assess the proficiency and experience level of their unit in determining the quantity of observers-controllers (that is, ARSOs) required for the event. Other factors influencing this decision should include, but are not limited to, the scheme of maneuver, geometry of the attack, composition of forces, dispersion of forces, visibility, weather conditions, and fatigue. Marine Corps observers-controllers report to the exercise RSO, and will have training in local range safety procedures and SDZ employment. 173. Exercise planning a. Units will conduct live-fire exercises in support of properly identified and trained-to-standards mission essential task list (METL) tasks. Tactics, techniques, and procedures employed during the live-fire exercises must be consistent with the standards published in the applicable Army Training Evaluation Program mission training plan and/or battle drills. Command approval from the next higher command is required for any live-fire exercise not consistent with the units established METL. b. Detailed written plans will be developed between the RCO and the unit OIC. It will require submission of formal risk management documentation prior to execution. For the Army, if residual risk is extremely high, ACOM/ASCC/ DRU commander approval is required. The garrison safety manager will review the completed plan and risk management documentation that will include: (1) A detailed plan of maneuver and fire support. (2) A list of weapons, ammunition, pyrotechnic or smokes, and chemicals to be used. (3) Unit control measures, including means of communication. (4) Terrain feature and facilities required. c. Impact distance and limits of advance are as follows: (1) The distances to which unprotected troops can safely move near the impact are (that is, areas A, B and C) indicated in the chapter on each weapon or weapons system. (2) To determine how close unprotected troops may maneuver to the target area, an impact area and a danger zone must be established for each target area used. Danger zones must be computed and issued to leaders and safety personnel before starting the exercise. When several types of weapons are being fired into one target area, the combined total danger zone (composite danger zone) will govern. These restrictions normally should not preclude unit commanders from selecting tactically sound supporting weapon positions for their scheme of maneuver, provided the positions and directions of fire do not exceed the total range area available for the exercise. When feasible, leaders and safety personnel will be shown the physical limits of the danger zone by ground survey. (3) The short limit of the impact area may be moved in the direction of the target area by definite pre-arrangement to permit forward movement of troops. (4) Demolitions may be used during live-fire exercises according to chapter 15 of this pamphlet. (5) Selection of weapon positions will be the responsibility of unit leaders taking part in the exercise. (6) Terrain will be used to enhance safety features when it is being selected for live-fire exercises involving overhead and/or flanking fire. d. During live-fire exercises planning, the risk management process must address possible hazards from friendly fire and control measures to reduce or eliminate them, while executing the METL task to published standards. 174. Firing precautions a. Overhead fire of personnel may be authorized, provided they have positive protection from the munitions being fired. Protected positions for personnel and vehicles are discussed in FM 5103. b. The senior commander (Army)/installation commander (Marine Corps) (or designated representative) can authorize overhead fire above unprotected personnel except for specifically prohibited weapon systems. c. Weapons specifically authorized for overhead fire of unprotected personnel are: (1) All artillery cannon firing indirect fire. See chapter 10 for safety precautions. (2) Machine-guns (5.56mm, 7.62mm, and .50 caliber) on ground tripods or vehicle mounts (ring mounts excluded) firing from a stationary position.

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d. Only ammunition certified for overhead fire will be used. e. All firing of direct-fire weapons will be from positions that provide an unobstructed field of fire. f. Overhead fire with machine guns in live-fire exercises will be as follows: (1) Bullets will not be permitted to impact between the firing position and the rear of the line of unprotected personnel. All impacts should be a minimum of 50m beyond the forward line of unprotected personnel. (2) Positive stops must be used to prevent crossfire and depression of the muzzle during firing. (3) A minimum clearance or safety limit must be established using the guidelines for overhead fire in FM 322.65 and FM 322.68. Marine Corps personnel use Marine Corps Warfighting Publication 315.1. (4) The rate of fire will not exceed 70 rounds per minute for 5.56mm and 7.62mm machine guns and 40 rounds per minute for .50 caliber machine guns. (5) Weapons will be test fired before delivery of overhead fire to verify effectiveness of the positive traverse and depression stops. (6) Tracer ammunition may be used as a check to track the projectile flight path. g. In addition to the requirements of paragraph 174f, the following precautions will apply to overhead fire with machine guns for a confidence infiltration course: (1) Firing will be from approved platforms as described in FM 321.75. (2) Qualified field maintenance/ordnance personnel will inspect the mounts and weapons before being declared safe to deliver overhead fire. (3) A minimum clearance of 2.5m over the heads of personnel or the highest obstruction within the field of fire will be maintained. Minimum clearance is the distance between the lowest shot in the dispersion pattern (as determined by the test firing) and the bodies of individuals in erect positions on the highest point of ground, log, or other obstacle over which personnel must travel, or heights of barbed wire strands or posts on the course, whichever is higher. h. All firing of indirect fire weapons will be from positions in which the site to mask allows engagement of the targets nearest to the forward line of troops. Selection of firing positions, direction of fire, and fall of shot must prevent the projectiles from striking trees or other obstacles in the area from the weapon position to a point forward of unprotected personnel. The forward point is defined as the bursting radius of the round, plus 12 range probable errors. i. When field artillery is fired during CALFEX/CAX with maneuvering personnel, the impact area will be adjusted according to the maneuver location of troops to maintain safe separation distance. The troop side of the impact area will be determined in relation to the movement of the personnel. Unprotected troops must not be permitted to enter danger zones after firing has commenced. j. Weapons will be grouped by muzzle velocity as cited in FM 640 or pertinent Marine Corps TMs. Weapons will be bore-sighted as prescribed in FM 650. Tubes will be clean and dry before start of exercise and will be cleaned during the exercise in accordance with appropriate weapon TMs. k. All ammunition to be fired should be uniformly conditioned to ambient temperature consistent with the tactical situation. l. Registration. (1) At least two rounds should be fired for registration. Targets should be selected in the central portion of the target area. After registration, corrections must be applied to deflection and quadrant elevation limits. If no registration is fired, meteorological and velocity error (MET + VE) corrections will be applied immediately before the exercise starts. (2) To compensate for drift in high-angle fire, the right deflection limit will be moved to the left by the amount of the maximum drift listed within the range limits for the charges being fired. The left limit will be moved to the right by the amount of the minimum drift listed within the range limits for the charges being fired. To determine the appropriate drift, the tabular firing table and graphical firing scale must be examined and the safer value used. If a drift value is not listed in the tabular firing table or on the graphical firing scale for the ranges to the near and far edge of the target area, the nearest safer value will be used. m. Overhead fire above unprotected personnel from a moving vehicle or aircraft is prohibited. n. Cannon and mortar flanking fire must not impact any closer to unprotected personnel than the fragmentation radius (Area A) prescribed for each weapon. o. Small arms (5.56mm, 7.62mm, and .50 caliber), ground-mounted or vehicle-mounted machine guns may be fired at low angles of elevation (near the flank of an individual or unit). For the cone SDZ, there must be an angle of 15 degrees or more between the limit of fire and the near flank of the closest individual or unit and all impacts are beyond the individual or unit. For the batwing SDZ, all personnel must be outside of the SDZ. Traversing and depression stops will be provided on machine guns to maintain the required angle and distance between the line of fire and the near flank of an individual or unit. p. Range SOPs will address firing and maneuver unit locations to ensure no unprotected personnel are exposed to training fires. 175. Fire control The unit commander makes the final decisions on fire control measures. The following conditions must be met:

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a. The ammunition in (1) through (7) below may be authorized for use in live-fire exercises only when it is fired into designated (dedicated high hazard) impact areas through which personnel are not permitted to maneuver. (1) 40mm HE. (2) 66mm light antitank weapon (HE). (3) Hand grenades (HE), except as noted in paragraph 175d. (4) MAAWS (HE & HEAT). (5) 25mm (HE). (6) M74 66mm TPA. (7) HE ICM munitions (Marine Corps). b. Final coordination lines must be identified to all participating units. c. Weapons used in live-fire exercises will be controlled so that danger zones do not overlap areas in which unprotected personnel are maneuvering. d. A RSO will directly supervise and control the throwing of fragmentation grenades. The following procedures apply: (1) Hand fragmentation grenades may be thrown during live-fire exercises. Hand grenades will be carried in accordance with FM 323.30. The fragmentation characteristics of the grenades must be considered and appropriate safety precautions taken to include the following: (a) Impact areas will be free of obstacles (such as trees, thick vegetation, tank hulls, deep snow, or standing water). (b) A minimum side-to-side distance of 5m between each individual during the throwing exercise is required. (c) Throwing positions will protect the throwers from fragments. (d) EOD personnel will destroy dud grenades in place or safe and remove before troops enter the grenade impact area. If EOD personnel are unable to locate or destroy any dud grenades, troop maneuver through the impact area is not authorized. (2) Individuals being transported by vehicle or aircraft will not carry fragmentation, offensive, or WP grenades attached to web equipment. 176. Maneuver in temporary impact areas a. The senior commanders (Army)/installation commanders (Marine Corps) may approve maneuver through temporary impact areas containing unexploded munitions, except those identified in paragraph 175a. b. The senior commanders (Army)/installation commanders (Marine Corps) may approve maneuver through temporary impact areas after reviewing a risk assessment and accepting residual risks. The following munitions, although not identified in paragraph 175a, may present high or extremely high risk if present. (1) .50 caliber SLAP M903. (2) 20mm HE. (3) 30mm HE. (4) All HEAT ammunition because of type of fuze action and sensitivity. (5) All ordnance fuzed with mechanical time fuzes. 177. Air support a. During live-fire exercises, the following control measures are required prior to firing aircraft-mounted weapons or dropping air-delivered ordnance: (1) Positive identification of personnel locations. (2) Positive identification of the target(s). (3) Positive clearance to drop/fire ordnance as given by the controlling ground or airborne forward air controller (Marine Corps). (4) Approved abort procedures and locations to drop unexpended bombs when necessary. (5) Attack flight paths, location of bomb safety lines, and access corridors will be known and visually verified by ground personnel and participating aircrews. (6) Direct communications will be established and maintained between the OIC, the forward air controller, and the fire support coordination center that coordinates the direct support artillery fire in the vicinity of an air strike. (7) Minimize danger to attacking aircraft from ricochet of ground-fired HE projectiles, and ceasing fire of flat trajectory weapons in the vicinity of air targets under attack within the SDZ (see chapter 4 for vertical hazard distances). (8) Firing across, within, or through access corridors will not be permitted without coordination with the forward air controller. (9) Close air support conducted by Marine Corps fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft will be conducted in accordance with appropriate TMs, MAWTS1 publications, training and readiness manuals, and squadron SOPs. b. Fire support by Air Force fixed-wing aircraft will be conducted in accordance with AFI 13212 (vols. 1 thru 3) and area of critical concern supplement.200 DA PAM 38563 30 January 2012

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UAASA U.S. Army Aeronautical Services Agency UAS unmanned aircraft system UAV unmanned aerial vehicle USACE United States Army Corps of Engineers USAIPH U.S. Army Institute of Public Health USASOC U.S. Army Special Operations Command USATCES U.S. Army Technical Center for Explosives Safety USMC United States Marine Corps UXO unexploded ordnance VI vertical interval VMC visual meteorological conditions VT variable time WP white phosphorous Section II Terms 140 dBP contour The distance at which the impulse noise produced by the weapon or explosive is 140 decibels peak level. See also hearing hazard zone. ammunition lot A quantity of components, each of which is manufactured by one manufacturer under uniform conditions, and which is expected to function in a uniform manner. The lot is designated and identified by assignment of an ammunition lot number and preparation of an ammunition data card. Angle P The angle beginning at the firing point, located to the left and right of the dispersion area, which defines the area which contains projectiles after making initial contact with the target medium. Angle Q The angle beginning at distance Y, located to the left and right of the dispersion area, which defines the area which contains projectiles after making initial contact with the impact medium.

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approved hearing protector (or protection) Hearing protector types that are approved for use by the Army and are listed in DA Pam 40501. Area A The secondary danger area (buffer zone) that laterally parallels the impact area or ricochet area (depending on the weapon system) and contains fragments, debris, and components from frangible or explosive projectiles and warheads functioning on the right or left edge of the impact area or ricochet area. Area B The secondary danger area (buffer zone) on the downrange side of the impact area and Area A which contains fragments, debris, and components from frangible or exploding projectiles and warheads functioning on the far edge of the impact area and Area A. Area C The secondary danger area (buffer zone) on the up range side of the impact area and parallel to Area B which contains fragments, debris, and components from frangible or exploding projectiles and warheads functioning on the near edge of the impact area. Area D The safe area between Areas C and E for indirect, overhead fire of unprotected personnel in training. Area E The danger area between an indirect fire weapon system and Area D. This area is endangered by muzzle debris, overpressure, blast, and hazardous impulse noise. Personnel in service batteries firing from approved tactical configurations may occupy Area E. Area F The danger area to the rear of a weapon system that is endangered by back-blast debris, overpressure, blast, and hazardous impulse noise. Area H The area to the rear of a weapon system (for example, TOW missile) that contains warhead particles (collapsed shape charge and warhead fragments) during an eject only firing event. Area I The area immediately in front of certain missile weapon systems designated as the initial zone of impact for eject only firing events. Area I may not be occupied under deviation. Area R The portion of the SDZ behind the firer where personnel, equipment and facilities may be endangered by ricochets to the rear of the firing line. Area S The radius of S value around a laser target, from which all specularly reflective surfaces must be removed, covered, painted, or destroyed before laser operations commence. Area T The area within an established laser surface danger zone measured from the laser device to t meters downrange where no object will be lased. Personnel should avoid direct exposure to unprotected skin up to t meters from the laser device. Exposure hazards to the eye are far greater within Area T than those exposure hazards to the skin. Army Special Operations Forces Those active and reserve component Army forces designated by the Secretary of Defense that are specifically organized, trained, and equipped to conduct and support special operations. assistant range safety officer Officer, warrant officer, or noncommissioned officer designated and briefed by the OIC and RSO, who assists the RSO in carrying out the safety responsibilities for the range or activity. backstop, laser Opaque structures or terrain in the controlled area of a laser surface danger zone such as a hill, dense tree line, or a

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windowless building that would completely obstruct any view beyond it and completely terminate a laser beam that may miss the target. barrier A permanent or temporary impediment to foot and or vehicular traffic which personnel are prohibited to pass without approval from range control. A barrier may be sentinel, wire fencing, gate, sign, or other access-limiting device. buttoned-up All hatch covers are in a closed and secure position. cease-fire A command given by anyone observing an unsafe firing condition on any training complex to immediately terminate an active (hot, wet) firing status of a weapon system(s). central register An official record of range safety deviations held at the respective ACOM/ASCC/DRU. certified ammunition Ammunition, to include fuzes, propellants, and projectiles, which have been cleared by the U.S. Army Materiel Command for overhead fire of unprotected personnel. cold firing status A firing condition where authorization to fire a weapon system has not been given or has been revoked by the installation range control office. Also referred to as a dry firing status. combined arms live-fire exercises (Army)/combined arms exercise (Marine Corps) A combat exercise in which Army/Marine Corps combined arms teams in combat formation conduct coordinated combat firing and maneuver practice in executing the assault, seizure, and defense of appropriate objectives. Tactical air support may be included. command responsibility As it relates to range safety, commanders down the entire chain of command are responsible for the safety of their personnel. conservation The protection, improvement, and use of natural resources according to principles that will provide optimum public benefit and support of military operations. contaminated area Any area where there are known or suspected unexploded munitions (dud ammunition or explosives) regardless of type. control tower A structure usually situated behind the firing line or position from which range operations of a training event is controlled. cookoff A functioning of any or all of explosive components due to high temperatures within a weapon system. crew-served weapon system Any weapon system requiring two or more personnel to fire the system. cross-sectional terrain profile A profile of the surface danger zone being considered for deviation at a point laterally downrange where a hill mass is expected to attenuate projectiles and/or hazardous fragments. decibel peak level A logarithmic method of expressing the peak pressure caused by an explosion.

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dedicated impact area See impact area. deviation A departure from the requirements of this pamphlet and the policy in AR 38563/MCO 3570.1B, Range Safety. direct fire Fire delivered on a target when the weapon system is laid by sighting directly on the target using the weapon system sighting equipment. dispersion area The area within the surface danger zone located between the GTL and the ricochet area. This area accounts for human error, gun or cannon tube wear, propellant temperature, and so forth. Distance D Distance along specific angle, measured from the weapon target line, at the firing position down range for selected direct fire weapons. Distance D defines maximum projectile distance along this line. Distance L The distance down range from the launch point where the launch dispersion angle intersects the flight corridor boundaries for the PATRIOT missile. Distance W The maximum lateral distance a projectile will ricochet after impacting within the dispersion area. Distance W defines the maximum lateral edge of the ricochet area. Distance X The maximum distance a projectile (to include guided missiles and rockets) will travel when fired or launched at a given quadrant elevation with a given charge or propulsion system. Distance Y The maximum distance downrange at which a lateral ricochet is expected to occur when a projectile is fired at a given quadrant elevation. double hearing protector (or protection) Wearing earplugs in combination with noise muffs or noise attenuating helmets. Impulse levels can be so high that single hearing protection does not adequately protect hearing. downrange A descriptive term used to address the orientation of personnel, materiel, or property relative to the direction or path of ammunition and or explosives (to include guided missiles and rockets) fired or launched from weapon systems. The direction of orientation is from the firing line or position toward the target. dud An explosive item or component of a weapon system that fails to function as intended when fired. eject only firing event A firing sequence where the launch motor of a missile functions, ejecting the missile out of the launcher, but the flight motor fails to ignite, causing the missile to tumble. As the missile tumbles and strikes the ground, sufficient GForce initiates the warhead causing warhead particles to be projected outward. far edge The boundary of the impact area that borders the outside edge of Area B and is farthest from the firing point or position. field expedient explosive device A standard item of explosive that is combined with other standard explosive items or non-explosive items using techniques and procedures outlined in doctrinal publications (FMs and TMs). final safety acceptance inspection Army Commands, Army Service Component Commands, and Direct Reporting Units safety inspection of new

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construction or modification of a range prior to release from the contractor or other contracting agent, Government or non-Government. firing lane The area within which a weapon system is fired. It consists of a start-fiire line, cease fire-disarm line, and left and right limits of fire. firing line The line which consists of firing points or positions, from which weapon systems are fired downrange. firing position The point or location at which a weapon system (excluding demolitions) is placed for firing. For demolitions, the firing position is the point or location at which the firing crew is located during demolition operations. flak jacket Fragmentation body armor protective vest (CTA 50900 update.) fork The change in angle of elevation necessary to produce a change to the center of impact equivalent to four probable errors. guided missile An unmanned vehicle moving above the surface of the earth whose trajectory or flight is capable of being altered by an external or internal mechanism. gun target line An imaginary line drawn between the firing position and target position. Also referred to as the line of fire. HC smoke Hexachloroethane-zinc oxide used to generate screening smoke. hangfire An undesired delay in the functioning of a firing system. A hangfire for a rocket occurs if the rocket propellant is ignited by the firing impulse but the rocket fails to exit the launcher within the expected time. hearing hazard, hearing hazard zone All personnel exposed to levels of 140 dBP and above must wear hearing protection. The area where the impulse noise levels are 140 dBP or higher and hearing protection is required. hearing protection zone Area on the range within which all personnel must wear hearing protection during weapons fire. It may be larger than the hearing hazard zone, but never smaller. high-hazard impact area See impact area. hot firing status A firing condition where authorization to fire a weapon system has been given by the installation range control office. Also referred to as a wet firing status. impact area The ground and associated airspace within the training complex used to contain fired or launched ammunition and explosives, and the resulting fragments, debris, and components from various weapon systems. A weapon system impact area is the area within the surface danger zone used to contain fired, or launched ammunition and explosives, and the resulting fragments, debris, and components. Indirect fire weapon system impact areas include probable error for range and deflection. Direct fire weapon system impact areas encompass the total surface danger zone from the firing point or position downrange to Distance X. a. Temporary impact area. An impact area within the training complex used for a limited period of time to contain fired or launched ammunition and explosives and the resulting fragments, debris, and components. Temporary impact areas are normally used for non-dud producing ammunition and explosives, and should be able to be cleared and returned to other training support following termination of firing.

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b. Dedicated impact area. An impact area that is permanently designated within the training complex and used indefinitely to contain fired or launched ammunition and explosives and the resulting fragments, debris, and components. Dedicated impact areas are normally used for non-sensitive ammunition and explosives. c. High-hazard impact area. An impact area that is permanently designated within the training complex and used to contain sensitive high explosive ammunition and explosives and the resulting fragments, debris, and components. High hazard impact areas are normally established as part of dedicated impact areas where access is limited and strictly controlled due to the extreme hazard of dud ordnance (for example, ICM, HEAT, 40-mm, and other highly sensitive ammunition and explosives.) improved conventional munitions Munitions characterized by the delivery of two or more antipersonnel or antimateriel and/or antiarmor sub-munitions. indirect fire Fire delivered on a target when the weapon system is not in line of sight with the target. installation An aggregation of contiguous or near contiguous, common mission supporting real property holdings under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense within and outside the continental United States. Examples include, but are not limited to, posts, camps, bases, and stations. installation range control officer A commissioned officer, warrant officer, non-commissioned officer, or civilian who serves as the central point of control and coordination for all activities conducted within the installation/community training complex and implements and enforces the installation/community range safety program. This may include the scheduling and maintenance of the training complex. intrabeam viewing Looking directly into the path of a laser beam or reflected beam. intraline distances The distance used for separating certain specified areas and locations within explosive establishments. instructor pilot A qualified warrant or commissioned officer that is placed on military orders and is assigned the responsibility for the safe operation of assigned aircraft and associated weapon systems. large rocket A stabilized, free ballistic trajectory, long range field artillery type rocket with a range capability of greater than 100 km when using a nonnuclear warhead. laser A device capable of producing a narrow beam of intense light (LASER-light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation). See TB MED 524 and JP 309 for more information on lasers. laser buffer zone A safety margin on either side, above, and below the approved target area extending to a distance at which the beam is terminated by a backstop extending across the target zone or the NOHD limit is reached. A vertical buffer zone covers the angular distances below the highest point on a backstop or above the non-lasing area. The laser horizontal buffer zone covers the angular distance to the left of the left most target and to the right of the right most target. laser range finder A range finder employing a laser device to emit a pulsed laser beam that is aimed at the target. The range is determined automatically by electronically measuring the time it takes for the light beam to travel from the laser to the target, be reflected from the target, and return to the range finder. laser safety eyewear Protective eyewear designed specifically to permit the user to be exposed to either a direct or reflected laser beam from a specific laser device without eye injury.

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laser surface danger zone A V-shaped zone designed to contain a laser beam (while lasing) with buffer zones on either side, above, and below the approved target. logistics assistance representative Department of Army civilian personnel in the grade of GS11 and above who have received training in specific weapon systems and are qualified in accordance with AR 751 to assist in performing malfunction investigations. low-angle fire Fire delivered at angles of elevation equal to or below the angle corresponding to the maximum range of the gun and ammunition. malfunction Failure of an ammunition item to function as expected when fired, launched, or when explosive items function under conditions that should not cause functioning. Malfunctions include hangfires, misfires, duds, abnormal functioning and premature functioning of explosive items under normal handling, maintenance, storage, transportation, and tactical deployment. Malfunctions do not include accidents or incidents that arise solely from negligence, malpractice, or situations such as vehicle accidents or fires. military operations in urban terrain A terrain complex where manmade construction impacts on the tactical options available to commanders. Military operations in urban terrain facilities replicate urban sprawl environments. misfire A complete failure to fire that is not necessarily hazardous. Because it cannot be readily distinguished from a delay in functioning (hangfire), it must be handled as worst case in accordance with procedures for the weapon system. mission-essential area The area within the surface danger zone located adjacent to the impact area that is allowed to be occupied only by essential personnel needed to accomplish the assigned task or mission. mission-essential personnel Those individuals who are directly involved or in support of weapon systems firing without whom the firing mission could not take place. navigable waterway Any body of water open to the free movement of marine vessels. near edge The boundary of the impact area that borders Area C and is nearest to the firing point or position. nominal ocular hazard distance The intrabeam distance within which the laser beams irradiance or radiant exposure falls below the applicable exposure limit. nominal ocular hazard distance-optical The nominal ocular hazard distance when viewed with optical aids. nominal ocular hazard distance-magnified The nominal ocular hazard distance for intrabeam viewing through 7x50 binoculars that transmit 70 percent at 1064 nanometers and 85 percent at 694.3 nanometers. nominal ocular hazard distance-single The nominal ocular hazard distance for a laser device operating in the single pulse mode. nonstandard explosive item An explosive device, material, or component that has not been type classified by AMC, or is a standard explosive item that has been altered to change its characteristics and function.

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officer in charge The officer, warrant officer, or noncommissioned officer responsible for personnel conducting firing or operations within the training complex. operational area Multiple firing points contained in a designated area from which weapons such as artillery can be fired safely. overhead fire Weapon system firing that is delivered over the heads of unprotected personnel in training or personnel located anywhere in the surface danger zone. primary danger area An area within the surface danger zone where hazards are known to exist and in which no unprotected Soldier/Marine or materiel is permitted since injury or death to such personnel and damage to materiel is probable. Target, dispersion, and ricochet areas are primary danger areas. probable error A measure of the impact distribution in the dispersion pattern around the center of impact dimensionally expressed in firing tables as one interval of the dispersion rectangle. proper eye protection (or eye armor) Approved eye protection, as a minimum, when required by safety and or installation/community range regulations and or standing operating procedures. proper hearing protection Approved single or double hearing protection, as a minimum, when required by safety or installation range regulations or standing operating procedures. public traffic route distance The distance in feet used to separate any public highway, navigable stream, passenger railroad, or aircraft taxiway from potential explosion sites. (See DA Pam 38564 for Quantity-Distance Tables.) quality assurance specialist (ammunition surveillance) Department of Army Civilian personnel in the grade of GS09 or above who have received 2 years of ammunition training and are qualified in accordance with AR 751 to assist in performing malfunction investigations. range error Difference between the range to the point of impact of a particular projectile and the range to the mean point of impact of a group of artillery projectiles fired with the same data. range officer See installation range control officer. range personnel Persons designated to assist the range control officer in executing the Installation Range Safety Program. range safety officer The officer, warrant officer, or noncommissioned officer who is the direct representative of the OIC of firing or other operations. The RSO is responsible to the OIC for insuring the adequacy of safety of firing, training operations, and ensuring compliance with laser range safety requirements and local standing operating procedures. rear range The orientation of personnel, materiel, or property to the rear of a weapon system. ricochet area The area located to the left and right of the dispersion area that contains projectiles after making initial contact with the target medium. For surface danger zones having Angles P and Q, it is also the area located to the left and right of the dispersion area. The ricochet area is defined by Distance W.

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right and left range The orientation of personnel, materiel, or property within the surface danger zone relative to the GTL. risk management The process of weighing (analyzing) training realism and the expected benefits of an exercise or operation against the known risks. safe area An area within the surface danger zone where the probability of injury is minimal to exposed Soldiers/Marines or those provided with protective cover. safety certification program A program established and maintained by the battalion/squadron commander to ensure that personnel under their command designated as OICs and RSOs are competent and qualified to carry out the responsibilities and duties of the respective positions. secondary danger zone An area outside of the primary danger area which provides containment of fragments, debris, and components from frangible or high explosive projectiles and warheads functioning on the far edge of the primary danger area. Areas A, B, and C are secondary danger areas. senior range safety officer The officer designated as the range safety officer for crew served guided missiles and heavy rockets, excluding direct fire antitank missiles and rockets. single hearing protector (or protection) Wearing either earplugs, noise muffs or noise attenuating helmets. special use airspace Airspace of defined dimension identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and or wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities. specularly reflective surface A mirror like surface capable of reflecting a laser beam. subcaliber ammunition Practice ammunition of a caliber smaller than standard for the weapon system. Subcaliber ammunition is economical and may be fired in relatively smaller areas. It is used with special subcaliber equipment and devices to simulate firing conditions with standard ammunition. surface danger zone The ground and airspace designated within the training complex (to include associated safety areas) for vertical and lateral containment of projectiles, fragments, debris, and components resulting from the firing, launching, or detonation of weapon systems to include explosives and demolitions. target area The point or location within the surface danger zone where targets (static/moving, point/array) are emplaced for weapon system engagement. For demolitions, it is the point or location where explosive charges are emplaced. temporary impact area See impact area. training complex Firing ranges and weapons training facilities designated for firing ammunition and explosives, heavy rockets, and guided missiles for training and target practice, and non-live fire sites for maneuver exercises and operations. training site A designated location to train, usually within the confines of the training complex. A specific firing range and or

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weapons training facility designated for firing ammunition and explosives, heavy rockets, and guided missiles for training and target practice, and non-live-fire sites for maneuver exercises and operations. trajectory safety officer Assists the senior range safety officer and is responsible for determining when crew served guided missiles and heavy rockets should be destroyed or thrust terminated. unexploded ordnance Ammunition and explosives which have been primed, fused, armed, or otherwise prepared for action and which have been fired, dropped, launched, projected or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations, installations/communities, personnel, or materiel, and remains unexploded either by malfunction or design or any other cause. unit commander A commander of an Army or Marine Corps element whose structure is prescribed by competent authority, such as a table of organization and equipment. uprange The orientation of personnel, materiel, or property relative to the direction or path of ammunition and explosives (to include guided missiles and rockets) fired or launched from weapon systems. The orientation is from the target area or impact area toward the firing line or position. weapon system qualified An individual, military or civilian, who has completed a standard program of instruction for a particular weapon system. weapon system knowledgeable An individual, military or civilian, who has completed a standard program of instruction for a particular weapon system or has completed familiarization training established by the Senior Commander. Familiarization training may involve live-fire training. Familiarization training should be approved by proponent school. Section III Special Abbreviations and Terms This publication uses the following abbreviations, brevity codes, and acronyms not contained in AR 31050. These include use for identifying weapons systems, types of military training activities, U.S. Marine Corps organizations and publications, range hazard descriptions and name changes to Army organizations and offices. NOHD nominal ocular hazard distance TCML TRADOC Capability ManagerLive