Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?

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gram negative

Which of the following is NOT associated with Corynebacterium?

cytoplamic membrane

What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?

Endospores

can be produced when nutrients are scarce.

Bergey's Manual contains

classification schemes for prokaryotes.

C. the deoxiribonucleotides

Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?

A) the types of transfer RNA used

B) the rRNA sequences present

C) the deoxyribonucleotides

D) cell wall composition

E) cell membrane composition

E. are members of the euryarchaeota and require salt conentrations above 9%

The archaea known as halophiles

A) require temperatures above 45C to survive.

B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive.

C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota.

D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45C.

E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.

D. methanogens

The largest known group of archaea is the

A) thermophiles.

B) halophiles.

C) cyanobacteria.

D) methanogens.

E) hyperthermophiles.

E. Halophiles

Which of the following types of microbes might be found in the Dead Sea?

A) hyperthermophiles

B) phototrophic bacteria

C) methanogens

D) actinomycetes

E) halophiles

A. deeply branching bacteria

Which of the following groups of bacteria lives in environments similar to those that may have existed on the early Earth?

A) deeply branching bacteria

B) cyanobacteria

C) mycoplasmas

D) thermophiles

E) proteobacteria

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D. they may have given rise to the mitochondria

Which of the following statements regarding cyanobacteria is FALSE?

A) They are oxygenic.

B) Many perform nitrogen fixation.

C) They contain chlorophyll a.

D) They may have given rise to mitochondria.

E) Some are motile.

C. Cyanobacteria

Heterocysts are associated with

A) mycoplasmas.

B) alphaproteobacteria.

C) cyanobacteria.

D) myxobacteria.

E) chlamydias.

E. in the phylum Firmicutes and include Clostridia and Mycoplasma.

Low G + C Gram-positive bacteria are

A) Mycoplasma.

B) in the phylum Firmicutes.

C) Clostridia.

D) in the phylum Actinobacteria.

E) in the phylum Firmicutes and include Clostridia and Mycoplasma.

E. diphtheria

Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with clostridia?

A) tetanus

B) diarrhea

C) gangrene

D) botulism

E) diphtheria

A. have no cell walls

Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they

A) have no cell walls.

B) are low G + C Gram-positive bacteria.

C) exhibit snapping division.

D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.

E) produce endospores

E) both Bacillus and Clostridium

Which of the following bacterial genera produce(s) endospores?

A) Bacillus

B) Clostridium

C) Lactobacillus

D) both Bacillus and Lactobacillus

E) both Bacillus and Clostridium

C) Lactobacillus

Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens?

A) Staphylococcus

B) Listeria

C) Lactobacillus

D) Mycobacterium

E) Corynebacterium

B) Actinomyces

Which of the following groups of bacteria is named for its resemblance to fungi?

A) Corynebacterium

B) Actinomyces

C) Clostridium

D) Lactobacillus

E) Staphylococcus

E) Nocardia

Which of the following bacterial genera is used for the degradation of environmental pollutants?

A) Actinomyces

B) Streptomyces

C) Corynebacterium

D) Rhizobium

E) Nocardia

E. protection of plats agaist catepillars

Which of the following is NOT associated with bacteria in the genus Streptomyces?

A) the "musty" smell of soil

B) nutrient recycling in soil

C) antibiotic production

D) microbial antagonism

E) protection of plants against caterpillars

D. ribosomal RNA sequences

Which of the following characteristics is the basis for distinguishing classes of proteobacteria?

A) outer membrane carbohydrates

B) cell wall structure

C) G + C ratio

D) ribosomal RNA sequences

E) cytoplasmic membrane lipid composition

C. gammaproteobacteria

Proteobacteria, which are facultative anaerobes commonly found in mammalian intestines, are members of the

A) alphaproteobacteria.

B) betaproteobacteria.

C) gammaproteobacteria.

D) deltaproteobacteria.

E) epsilonproteobacteria.

C. Chlamydia

Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?

A) Bacteroides

B) Rickettsia

C) Chlamydia

D) Helicobacter

E) Treponema

D. Borrelia

Which of the following genera does NOT include intracellular parasites of other cells?

A) Bdellovibrio

B) Chlamydia

C) Rickettsia

D) Borrelia

E) Legionella

A. Alpha

Unusual cellular extensions called prosthecae are associated with which of the following groups of proteobacteria?

A) alpha

B) beta

C) gamma

D) delta

E) epsilon

E) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, and Azospirillum

Which of the following bacterial genera plays an important role in environmental nitrogen cycles?

A) Nitrobacter

B) Rhizobium

C) Azospirillum

D) both Nitrobacter and Rhizobium

E) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, and Azospirillum

C. hyperthermophiles

) Microbes growing in boiling hot mineral springs are generally

A) methanogens.

B) halophiles.

C) hyperthermophiles.

D) purple sulfur bacteria.

E) cyanobacteria.

D. both DNA and protein sequences

Classification of bacteria into different phyla is based on comparisons involving which of the following?

A) DNA sequences

B) cell wall composition

C) protein sequences

D) both DNA and protein sequences

E) DNA and protein sequences, as well as cell wall composition

A. Green phototrophic bacteria

Bacteria that require hydrogen sulfide are generally members of the

A) green phototrophic bacteria.

B) cyanobacteria.

C) halophiles.

D) methanogens.

E) thermophiles

B. they are symbotic withplants and nitrogen fixation

Which of the following statements regarding pseudomonads is FALSE?

A) They are Gram-negative rods.

B) They are symbiotic with plants for nitrogen fixation.

C) They often contaminate food products.

D) They include Pseudomonas and Azotobacter.

E) They cause urinary tract infections.

D. zoogloea

Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for sewage treatment?

A) Burkholderia

B) Thiobacillus

C) Neisseria

D) Zoogloea

E) Nitrosomonas

A. spirochete

A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a

A) spirochete.

B) vibrio.

C) coccobacillus.

D) spirillum.

E) sarcina.

E. viviparity

The "giant" bacterium Epulopiscium reproduces by means of

A) binary fission.

B) snapping division.

C) budding.

D) sexual reproduction.

E) viviparity.

B. they gram stain positive

Which of the following statements regarding mycoplasmas is FALSE?

A) They are low G + C bacteria.

B) They stain Gram-positive.

C) They are pleomorphic.

D) They exhibit a "fried egg" appearance on solid media.

E) They are the smallest free-living cells.

A. endospore production

The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens largely because of their capacity for

A) endospore production.

B) rapid reproduction.

C) oxygen production.

D) biofilm production.

E) high salt tolerance.

E. thermophiles

Prokaryotes of the genus Pyrodictium are

A) endospore formers.

B) intracellular parasites.

C) members of the deeply branching bacteria.

D) halophiles.

E) thermophiles.

C. deeply branching bacteria

) The __________ include the genus Aquifex.

A) archaea

B) proteobacteria

C) deeply branching bacteria

D) high G + C Gram-positive bacteria

E) clostridia

E) an endospore former responsible for food poisoning from rice.

The bacterium Bacillus cereus is

A) an endospore former.

B) a frequent contaminant of milk and meat.

C) responsible for food poisoning from rice.

D) the cause of gastric ulcers.

E) an endospore former responsible for food poisoning from rice.

B. contaminated milk and meat

Listeria is responsible for

A) gastric ulcers.

B) contaminated milk and meat.

C) urinary tract infections.

D) tuberculosis.

E) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.

D. "flesh-eating" bacterial infections

One species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of

A) tuberculosis.

B) urinary tract infections.

C) contaminated milk and meat.

D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.

E) food poisoning from rice.

A. turberculosis

The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for

A) tuberculosis.

B) urinary tract infections.

C) food poisoning from contaminated dairy products.

D) gastric ulcers.

E) food poisoning from rice.

C. gastric ulcers

The genus Helicobacter is responsible for

A) food poisoning from contaminated meat.

B) food poisoning from rice.

C) gastric ulcers.

D) tuberculosis.

E) urinary tract infections

B. intracellulaar parasites

Members of the genus Chlamydia are

A) thermophiles.

B) intracellular parasites.

C) classified with the deeply branching bacteria.

D) endospore-formers.

E) Gram-positive bacteria.

E. urinary tract infections

Pseudomonas species are occasional causes of

A) food poisoning from contaminated meat.

B) food poisoning from rice.

C) food poisoning from dairy products.

D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infection.

E) urinary tract infections.

False

The majority of archaea are extremophiles

True or false

False

True or false

When an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells

True

True or false

Members of the Streptomyces are environmentally important because they can degrade a wide range of compounds including lignin from trees, chitin and keratin from animals, and latex.

False

True or false

Halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations.

False

True or false

Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a and carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis.

true

true or false

Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped.

true

Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as pneumonia and bacteremia.

True or false

false

Mycoplasmas are named for the large quantities of mycolic acid in their cell walls.

true or false

true

Most of the methane produced by methanogens is oxidized by other types of bacteria before it affects the Earth's climate.

True or false

True

Myxobacteria exhibit traits, such as cooperation and differentiation, that are not normally observed in prokaryotes.

True or false

vegetative

A bacterial cell that produces an endospore is called a(n) ___________ cell.

halophiles

Bacteria that can colonize and spoil meats preserved with high concentrations of salt are called __________.

cyanobacteria

Bacteria that use chlorophyll a and engage in oxygenic photosynthesis, just like plants and algae, are called __________.

akinetes

Thick-walled spores produced by some species of cyanobacteria are called ___________.

tetrads

Regular clusters of cocci that resemble a square are called __________.

genetic

The G+C ratio is a ______ determination used in classifying the different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria.

actinomycetes

The ___________ are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that form branching filaments resembling those of fungi.

Streptococcus

The genus of pathogenic cocci responsible for a wide range of human disease and whose members grow in chains is ___________. (Be sure your answer is italicized.)

prosthecae

Unusual structures associated with the alphaproteobacteria that consist of an extension of the cytoplasm surrounded by the cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall are called __________.

fixation

The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen __________.

Mycobacterium

Slow-growing bacteria in the genus ___________ are able to withstand long exposure to air because of the presence of mycolic acid in their cell wall structure. (Be sure your answer is italicized.)

galls

Plant tumors caused by Agrobacterium infections are called ___________.

bacteroids

The ___________ are a group of Gram-negative bacteria that include obligate anaerobes normally found in the intestinal tracts of animals and humans.

elementary

The infective stage of chlamydia is called the __________ body.

B. number of microbial cells

1) In microbiology, the term growth usually refers to an increase in

A) a microbe's size.

B) the number of microbial cells.

C) the amount of ATP produced.

D) the number and size of microbial cells.

E) the number and size of microbial cells and the amount of ATP produced.

A. photoheterotroph

A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a

A) photoheterotroph.

B) lithoautotroph.

C) photoautotroph.

D) chemoheterotroph.

E) chemoautotroph.

d. obligated aerobic

A(n) __________ organism is one that requires oxygen for growth.

A) anaerobic

B) facultative anaerobic

C) aerotolerant

D) obligate aerobic

E) both aerotolerant and anaerobic

A. phototroph

An aquatic microbe that can grow only at the surface of the water is probably which of the following?

A) a phototroph

B) a heterotroph

C) a chemotroph

D) a lithotroph

E) an anaerobe

C. peroxide anion

Which of the following forms of oxygen is detoxified by the enzyme catalase?

A) singlet oxygen

B) hydroxyl radical

C) peroxide anion

D) superoxide radical

E) molecular oxygen

D. protease

All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT

A) carotenoids.

B) superoxide dismutase.

C) peroxidase.

D) protease.

E) catalase.

E. obligate anaerobe

A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)

A) obligate aerobe.

B) facultative anaerobe.

C) aerotolerant anaerobe.

D) microaerophile.

E) obligate anaerobe.

E) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis

Nitrogen is a growth limiting nutrient for many organisms because

A) it is necessary for the biosynthesis of amino acids.

B) it is required for synthesis of nucleotides.

C) it is required for lipid synthesis.

D) only a small number of bacteria are able to extract it from the atmosphere.

E) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

A. heme

Which of the following growth factors would NOT be required by microbes which do not utilize electron transport chains?

A) heme.

B) selenium.

C) NADH.

D) vitamins.

E) amino acids.

E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.

At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,

A) proteins are permanently denatured.

B) membranes become too fluid for proper function.

C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken.

D) hydrogen bonds are broken, and proteins are permanently denatured.

E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.

C) mesophiles.

Human pathogens are classified as

A) thermoduric.

B) thermophiles.

C) mesophiles.

D) hyperthermophiles.

E) psychrophiles.

A. hydrostatic pressure

The term barophile refers to which of the following growth requirements?

A) hydrostatic pressure

B) temperature

C) nitrogen source

D) pH

E) osmotic pressure

C) an acidophile

Which of the following organisms would be most likely to contaminate a jar of pickles?

A) a neutrophile

B) a thermophile

C) an acidophile

D) an obligate anaerobe

E) a mesophile

E. either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.

Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are

A) obligate aerobes.

B) facultative anaerobes.

C) aerotolerant anaerobes.

D) obligate anaerobes.

E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.

C. enriched media

A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?

A) transport media

B) reducing media

C) enriched media

D) differential media

E) selective media

A. in a reducing medium

Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory

A) in a reducing medium.

B) in a candle jar.

C) in standard Petri plates.

D) on blood agar plates.

E) on blood agar plates in a candle jar.

D. enrichment culture

Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the following refers to the process she should use?

A) cell culture

B) chemostat

C) quorum sensing

D) enrichment culture

E) nitrogen fixation

B. 7 hours

A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium with 100 bacterial cells/ml. If the generation time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase, how long will it be before the culture contains more than 10,000 cells/ml?

A) 24 hours

B) 7 hours

C) 2 hours

D) 3 hours

E) 10 hours

D. inoculation of cell cultures

An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful?

A) culturing on blood agar plates

B) inoculation of EMB plates

C) incubation in a candle jar

D) inoculation of cell cultures

E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth

microscopic counts

Which of the following measurement techniques would be useful to quantify a species of bacteria that is difficult to culture?

A) membrane filtration

B) viable plate counts

C) MPN

D) microscopic counts

E) metabolic activity

d. both a differntial and selective

MacConkey agar plates represent __________ medium.

A) a minimal

B) a selective

C) a differential

D) both a differential and a selective

E) both a minimal and a selective

A) a glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope.

A Petroff-Hauser counting chamber is

A) a glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope.

B) a device that counts cells as they interrupt an electrical current.

C) a device that measures the amount of light that passes through a culture.

D) an apparatus that traps bacterial cells on a membrane filter where they can be counted.

E) a device used to count numbers of bacterial colonies on a Petri plate.

Answer:A

B. exponential growth

Another term for the logarithmic growth of bacterial cells is

A) generation time.

B) exponential growth.

C) arithmetic growth.

D) absorbance.

E) binary fission.

E. Chemostat

A device that removes wastes and adds fresh medium to bacterial cultures in order to prolong the log phase of a culture is called a(n)

A) Coulter counter.

B) cytometer.

C) spectrophotometer.

D) pellicle.

E) chemostat.

C. 30,000

A specimen of urine is determined to contain 30 bacterial cells per microliter. How many cells would be present in a milliliter?

A) 3

B) 300

C) 30,000

D) 3,000

E) 30 million

B. turbidity

Which of the following is NOT a direct method for measuring the number of microbes in a sample?

A) viable plate counts

B) turbidity

C) Coulter counter

D) MPN

E) membrane filtration

B. log phase

During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs?

A) lag phase

B) log phase

C) stationary phase

D) death phase

E) the susceptibility is the same for all phases

B. osmotic pressure

The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the following concepts?

A) nitrogen fixation

B) osmotic pressure

C) pH

D) hydrostatic pressure

E) quorum sensing

E. the lungs

A clinical sample labeled as "sputum" was collected from

A) the skin.

B) the blood.

C) the central nervous system.

D) a piece of tissue.

E) the lungs.

C. steak plate technique

The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to dilute specimens is called

A) the pour-plate technique.

B) serial dilution.

C) the streak-plate technique.

D) transport media.

E) enrichment culturing.

D. biofilms

__________ are complex communities of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces.

A) Aggregates

B) Colonies

C) Isolates

D) Biofilms

E) Media

b. that produces one colony

A colony-forming unit is the number of cells

A) in a colony.

B) that produces one colony.

C) in a particular specimen.

D) that is in exponential phase in a culture.

E) that can be placed on a Petri plate.

A. hydrogen peroxide

All of the following ingredients might be found in complex media EXCEPT

A) hydrogen peroxide.

B) yeast extract.

C) blood.

D) soy extract.

E) milk proteins.

D. reducing media

Sodium thioglycollate is associated with which of the following types of media?

A) transport media

B) differential media

C) complex media

D) reducing media

E) selective media

C. metabolic activity

Which of the following quantification techniques can distinguish living cells from dead cells in a culture?

A) microscopic counts

B) dry weight

C) metabolic activity

D) a Coulter counter

E) turbidity

D. stationary phase

during the __________ of growth, new cells are being produced at the same rate as other cells are dying.

A) lag phase

B) log phase

C) death phase

D) stationary phase

E) intermediate phase

A. death phase

During the __________ of growth, cells are dying faster than new cells are being produced.

A) death phase

B) lag phase

C) log phase

D) stationary phase

E) longitudinal phase

C. lag phase

When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the

A) stationary phase.

B) log phase.

C) lag phase.

D) death phase.

E) exponential phase.

B. log phase

Metabolic activity is at maximum level in the __________ of growth.

A) lag phase

B) log phase

C) death phase

D) stationary phase

E) intermediate phase

C. log phase

Cells are rapidly growing and dividing during the __________ of growth.

A) death phase

B) lag phase

C) log phase

D) stationary phase

E) indeterminate phase

B. salt concentrations

An organism that tolerates high __________ is called a halophile.

A) hydrostatic pressure

B) salt concentrations

C) pH

D) carbon dioxide levels

E) oxygen levels

A. carbon dioxide levels

A capnophile is a microorganism that thrives in conditions of high __________.

A) carbon dioxide levels

B) hydrostatic pressure

C) oxygen levels

D) pH

E) salt concentration

C. hydrostatic pressure

A microorganism found living under conditions of high __________ is a barophile.

A) pH values

B) oxygen concentrations

C) hydrostatic pressure

D) carbon dioxide levels

E) salt concentrations

d. oxygen levels

Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low

A) carbon dioxide levels.

B) pH values.

C) hydrostatic pressure.

D) oxygen levels.

E) salt concentrations.

E. pH

An acidophile thrives under conditions of low

A) carbon dioxide levels.

B) salt concentrations.

C) oxygen levels.

D) hydrostatic pressure.

E) pH.

FALSE

Obligate anaerobes have enzymes such as superoxide dismutase to protect them from the damaging effects of oxygen.

TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE

Nitrogen fixation is a process that occurs in all bacteria.

TRUE ORFALSE?

TRUE

Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods.

TRUE OR FALSE

TRUE

An obligate halophile will burst if placed in freshwater.

TRUE OR FALSE

FALSE

The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their metabolism by freezing.

TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE

Quorum sensing is a process by which bacteria respond to the density of other bacteria in their environment.

Answer:TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE

An obligate anaerobe can be cultured in a candle jar.

Answer: TRUE OR FALSE

FALSE

Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria.

Answer:FALSE OR TRUE

TRUE

A selective medium can be formulated either by including inhibitory chemical substances or by leaving out a single crucial nutrient.

Answer:TRUE OR FLASE

TRUE

In spectrophotometry, 40% light transmission is the same thing as 60% absorbance of light.

Answer:TRUE OR FALSE

fixation

The conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen __________.

chemoheterotrophs

Organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy are called __________.

superoxide

The __________ radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O2during electron transport in aerobes.

optimum

The __________ growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.

mesophiles

Bacteria that thrive at human body temperatures are classified as __________.

11.5

Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH __________. (Be sure your answer is a numeral.)

crenation

Cells that are exposed to hypertonic environments will exhibit __________.

inoculum

A(n) __________ is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth medium.

colony

A pure culture is composed of cells that arise from a single __________.

agar

A gelling agent derived from algae that is useful for creating solid growth media is called __________.

lag

A sample placed into fresh medium is typically initially in the __________ phase of microbial growth.

number

A growth curve plots the __________ of organisms in a growing population over time.

cytometry

Flow __________ is a method of counting cells that have been stained or tagged with fluorescent dyes.

pellicle

A film of cells at the surface of a broth is called a(n) __________.

spectrophotometer

A(n) __________ can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture.

C. prions

Standard methods of sterilization are not effective in inactivating

A) viruses.

B) bacterial cells.

C) prions.

D) bacterial endospores.

E) fungi.

D) Disinfectants are used on inanimate surfaces.

Which of the following statements is true of disinfectants?

A) Disinfectants are effective in destroying endospores.

B) Disinfectants are used on living tissue.

C) Disinfectants are used for sterilization.

D) Disinfectants are used on inanimate surfaces.

E) Disinfectants are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes).

E) It is not an effective means of evaluating the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.

Which of the following statements concerning microbial death is FALSE?

A) It can be used to evaluate the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.

B) It is constant over time of exposure to an antimicrobial agent.

C) It is the permanent loss of a microbe's reproductive ability.

D) It is the permanent loss of a microbe's ability to reproduce and can be used to evaluate antimicrobial agents.

E) It is not an effective means of evaluating the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.

A.A public toilet is treated with disinfectants

Which of the following is an example of sanitization?

A) A public toilet is treated with disinfectants.

B) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery.

C) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice.

D) An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar.

E) A nurse prepares an injection site with an alcohol swab.

E. free of pathogens

Aseptic means

A) sterile.

B) free of all microbes.

C) clean.

D) sanitized.

E) free of pathogens.

D. autoclaving

Which of the following would NOT be bacteriostatic?

A) desiccation

B) freezing below 0°C

C) lyophilization

D) autoclaving

E) refrigeration of mesophiles

E. protein synthesis

Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect

A) the cell wall.

B) the cell membrane.

C) the viral envelope.

D) endospores.

E) protein synthesis.

A. enveloped viruses

Seventy percent alcohol is effective against

A) enveloped viruses.

B) nonenveloped viruses.

C) bacterial endospores.

D) protozoan cysts.

E) prions.

b. low-level germicide

An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n)

A) high-level germicide.

B) low-level germicide.

C) intermediate-level germicide.

D) degerming agent only.

E) germistatic agent only.

C. lyophilization

Which of the following is NOT an effective means of sterilization?

A) ionizing radiation

B) incineration

C) lyophilization

D) autoclaving

E) dry heat

B. heating at 72°C for 15 seconds

Which of the following describes flash pasteurization?

A) heating at 63°C for 30 minutes

B) heating at 72°C for 15 seconds

C) heating at 72°C for 15 minutes

D) heating at 134°C for one second

E) passing liquid through steam at 140°C

D. UHT sterilization

The dairy creamer used in restaurants is usually sterilized by

A) filtration.

B) ionizing radiation.

C) lyophilization.

D) UHT sterilization.

E) autoclaving.

E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses.

Boiling water for 10 minutes is effective in ridding it of

A) actively growing bacteria.

B) enveloped viruses.

C) bacterial endospores.

D) protozoan cysts.

E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses.

C) varying thicknesses of membrane filters used

Which of the following is NOT a feature associated with filtration?

A) nitrocellulose or plastic membrane filters

B) sterilization of heat-sensitive materials

C) varying thicknesses of membrane filters used

D) use of HEPA filters to filter air

E) ability of some filters to trap viruses and proteins

E. Brucella melitensis

Which of the following is a target of pasteurization?

A) Bacillus stearothermophilus

B) Clostridium botulinum

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D) Chlamydia trachomatis

E) Brucella melitensis

A. ultraviolet rays

Which of the following types of radiation is nonionizing and has the shortest wavelength?

A) ultraviolet light

B) infrared radiation

C) microwaves

D) X rays

E) gamma rays

E. gamma rays

Which of the following is used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables?

A) X rays

B) ultraviolet light

C) electron beams

D) microwaves

E) gamma rays

D. both HEPA fileters and ultraviolet light

Which of the following can be used to disinfect air?

A) HEPA filters

B) ethylene oxide

C) ultraviolet light

D) both HEPA filters and ultraviolet light

E) both ethylene oxide and ultraviolet light

B. phenolics

Lysol is an example of which of the following groups of chemical antimicrobial agents?

A) halogens

B) phenolics

C) alcohols

D) aldehydes

E) surfactants

D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2

Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level?

A) E. coli, BSL-3

B) anthrax, BSL-1

C) Ebola, BSL-2

D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2

E) tuberculosis, BSL-1

C. halogens

Betadine is an example of which of the following groups of antimicrobial agents?

A) alcohols

B) heavy metals

C) halogens

D) phenolics

E) surfactants

D. they function by cross-linking proteind

Which of the following statements about quaternary ammonium compounds is FALSE?

A) They are a type of detergent.

B) Zephiran is an example of a quat.

C) They are not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

D) They function by cross-linking proteins.

E) They are harmless to humans except at high concentrations.

C. peracetic acid

Which of the following is a sterilizing agent?

A) ozone

B) hydrogen peroxide

C) peracetic acid

D) dish soap

E) ozone and hydrogen peroxide

E. silver nitrate

Which of the following was used in the past to prevent the transmission of gonorrhea from an infected mother to her newborn?

A) hydrogen peroxide

B) beta-propiolactone

C) thimerosal

D) hexachlorophene

E) silver nitrate

A. ethylene oxide

Which of the following is used to sterilize items that should not, or cannot, be exposed to heat or water?

A) ethylene oxide

B) formaldehyde

C) hydrogen peroxide

D) calcium hypochlorite

E) triclosan

A. they are used only to preserve dead tissues

Which of the following statements about aldehydes is FALSE?

A) They are used only to preserve dead tissues.

B) They denature proteins.

C) Some aldehydes can sterilize after long periods of exposure.

D) They are usually hazardous to humans.

E) They are used in aqueous solutions.

B. antimicrobials

Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are

A) aldehydes.

B) antimicrobials.

C) halogens.

D) quats.

E) triclosans.

B. germicide

A chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes in general is a(n)

A) sanitizer.

B) germicide.

C) disinfectant.

D) fungicide.

E) antiseptic.

D. it only arrests growth of vegetative cells.

Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial agent?

A) it is inexpensive.

B) it is stable during storage.

C) it is harmless to humans.

D) it only arrests growth of vegetative cells.

E) it acts quickly.

C) Bacillus stearothermophilus

The endospores of which of the following microbes are used to measure the effectiveness of autoclave sterilization?

A) Clostridium botulinum

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C) Bacillus stearothermophilus

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E) Mycobacterium bovis

b. filtration

A scientist develops a new medication that is a protein compound and that must be administered by injection. Which of the following would be the most effective and safest means of preparing a sterile solution of the new medication?

A) autoclaving

B) filtration

C) dilution with alcohol

D) lyophilization

E) ultraviolet irradiation

A. use-dilution test

Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants?

A) use-dilution test

B) microbial death rate

C) in-use test

D) thermal death point

E) phenol coefficient

C. ethylene oxide

Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress?

A) autoclaving

B) formaldehyde

C) ethylene oxide

D) heavy metals

E) radiation

E. both alcohol and phenolics

Disinfectants that damage membranes include

A) alcohol.

B) phenolics.

C) iodine.

D) hydrogen peroxide.

E) both alcohol and phenolics.

B. ethylene oxide

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans?

A) 70% alcohol

B) ethylene oxide

C) quats

D) chloramines

E) iodophors

B. sterilizing method

The process of filtration is a(n)

A) disinfectant method.

B) sterilizing method.

C) sanitization method.

D) antiseptic procedure.

E) ineffective method for removing microbes.

D. disinfecting and sterlizing agent

Hydrogen peroxide is a(n)

A) sterilizing agent.

B) disinfecting agent.

C) antiseptic.

D) disinfecting and sterilizing agent.

E) ineffective method of disinfecting.

A. sterilization

The process of incineration is used for

A) sterilization.

B) disinfection.

C) sanitization.

D) both disinfection and sanitization.

E) degerming.

E. both antisepsis and disinfection.

Alcohols are used for

A) disinfection.

B) sterilization.

C) antisepsis.

D) both sterilization and disinfection.

E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

B. disinfection

The chemical agents known as "quats" are used for

A) antisepsis.

B) disinfection.

C) sterilization.

D) quantifying antimicrobial activity.

E) neither antisepsis nor disinfection.

B. sterilization

The compound ethylene oxide is used in

A) sanitization.

B) sterilization.

C) antisepsis.

D) degerming.

E) disinfection.

E) both disinfection and sterilization.

Glutaraldehyde is used for

A) antisepsis.

B) disinfection.

C) sterilization

D) sanitization.

E) both disinfection and sterilization.

A. disinfection

__________ may be achieved using chlorine dioxide.

A) Disinfection

B) Sterilization

C) Degerming

D) Antisepsis

E) Both antisepsis and degerming

A. sterilization

Gamma irradiation is a process for

A) sterilization.

B) disinfection.

C) antisepsis.

D) degerming.

E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

E) Both disinfection and sanitization

__________ can be accomplished using boiling water.

A) Sanitization

B) Disinfection

C) Sterilization

D) Antisepsis

E) Both disinfection and sanitization

true

An environment may contain some microbes and still be considered sterile.

true

Some viruses are inactivated by the same chemical or physical agents that damage cytoplasmic membranes.

false

UV light has the most effect on protein structure.

false

Antimicrobial agents usually work best at high temperatures and pH levels.

false

The phenol coefficient is one of the most widely used measurements of an antimicrobial agent's effectiveness.

false

No chemical or antimicrobial agents inactivate prions.

false

The decimal reduction time is the time required to kill all the microbes in a given sample.

true

Slow freezing is more damaging to microbial cells than quick freezing.

false

Hydrogen peroxide is an effective antiseptic.

true

By themselves, soaps have only degerming activity, not antimicrobial activity.

lyophilization

The process of freeze-drying microbes to preserve them is __________.

phenolics

Natural antiseptics such as pine or clove oil are examples of antimicrobial compounds called __________.

iodophor

A(n) __________ is an iodine-containing organic compound found in such antiseptics as Betadine.

aldehydes

Disinfectants known as __________ have the chemical group -CHO, which reacts with and damages both proteins and nucleic acids.

thermal

The lowest temperature that kills all cells in a broth in 10 minutes is knows as the __________ death point.

less

The amount of time needed to sterilize materials using moist heat is __________ than the time needed to sterilize using dry heat.

autoclave

A(n) __________ is an instrument that sterilizes by exposing materials to steam under pressure.