Was Homosexuality Just Equated With Ritual Uncleanness In The Old Testament?

Of course the Old Testament law severely condemned homosexuality in passages like Leviticus 18:22, 20:13 – “If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.” Many might wonder how the gay church people get around these clear passages. One way they do it is by saying this particular practice was criticized then based upon it being just “ritual uncleanness” (similar to the prohibition of mixing of linen and wool – Lev 19:19).

But does that mean the adultery (Leviticus 18:20, 20:10) and the bestiality (Leviticus 18:23, 20:15-16) of the same contexts are just “ritual uncleanness” also? I think not.

The same Hebrew word for “abomination” used to condemn homosexuality is found in:

· Ezek 22:11 one hath committed abomination with his neighbor’s wife

· Deut 12:31 abomination … their sons and their daughters they have burnt in the fire to their gods

· II Kings 16:3 made his son to pass through the fire, according to the abominations of the heathen

· II Chron 28:3 burnt his children in the fire, after the abominations of the heathen

· Deut 27:15 Cursed be the man that maketh any graven or molten image, an abomination unto the Lord

· Prov 6:16-19 seven are an abomination – lying, murder, etc.

· Ezek 33:26 ye work abomination, and ye defile every one his neighbor’s wife

Are all the above sins also just examples of “ritual uncleanness”?

Violators of the Levitical censure against Homosexuality were put to death. Why, if it was only ritual uncleanness?