Modi was called “Maut ka Saudagar” (merchant of death) by beloved Sonia Gandhi, but that was considered “Freedom of Speech”.

Modi was called “Jawano ke khoon ka dalaal” (broker of soldiers’ blood) by beloved Rahul Gandhi. That was “Freedom of Expression”.

Modi was called “Devil with blood stained hands” by TMC party member Derek O’Brien. That was “Freedom of Speech”.

Modi was called “Rakshas” (demon) by Laloo Prasad Yadav. That was “Freedom of Expression”.

Mamata Banerjee said- “I would have jailed Modi with rope around his waist”. That was also considered “Freedom of Speech”.

Mallikarjun Kharge went to the extent by dragging Modi’s family into political attacks. He said- “Gandhi ji sacrificed his life for the country; Indira ji too sacrificed her life. Who came from your house?”. I am removing the last sentence of his statement because I don’t know if quoting the extreme foul language of a politician where he abuses someone’s family member’s could violate any of the Quora’s policies. The full statement is given in this link.

If the above things can be categorized as Freedom of Speech or Freedom of Expression, then how did Modi’s speech become insult to Manmohan Singh?

What did Modi say?

“Only Dr Saab (Manmohan Singh) knows the art of bathing while wearing a raincoat in the bathroom.”

“We have the capability to give you back the same. If anyone speaks in such fashion, he should also be ready to hear similar words.”

How are these statements derogatory, abusive or insulting?

Congress party brought allegations against the current PM that he and his party are involved in scams and corruptions, without providing any proof or moving into court. The PM just replied to that allegations and gave an example of numerous scams that happened during the Manmohan Singh era. How is that an insult, especially when it is proved that the scams really happened during Mr. Singh’s tenure? If replying to such an allegation is called an insult, then I think anybody who speaks out against baseless accusations insults the accuser.

If Manmohan Singh or anybody else thinks that Modi’s statement was insulting, then why did Manmohan Singh remain silent when numerous scams were happening during his rule? Didn’t he think that such questions would arise? Didn’t he feel that it is an insult to his self-respect for remaining silent on such looting of public money?

The height of irony is this. Manmohan Singh failed to see the “organized loot” of public property when his party was involved in numerous scams but he was able to judge demonetization as an “organized loot” with his experienced eyes.

When and how was Manmohan Singh actually insulted?

Congress is calling Modi’s statement an insult to Mr. Singh. I just wonder, did Congress really ever care for Mr. Singh?

He was insulted when the current PM was sidelined to give more importance to the Congress president.

He was insulted when the PM had to fold his hand to pay respect to an unworthy guy who is of his son’s age.

The Congress party always centers around the Gandhi family and sidelines every other members. It is the Congress party who insults Manmohan Singh.

Remember the “Save Democracy” rally? Remember Mr. Singh’s statement on demonetization? Congress brings back Manmohan Singh only when they need to use him. Else, they keep him in sideline. What could be more insulting than being used at times and then kept aside when immediate need is over?

To end the answer with-

Pakistani PM Nawaj Sharif had mocked Manmohan Singh by calling him a “dehati aurat” (village woman) in September 2013. The only person in india to revert back to Nawaz sharif was the then CM of Gujarat, Narendra Modi.