4) From the point of view of human resources, employer branding has ________.
A) supplanted the profit motive in boardrooms around the world
B) little to do with attracting and retaining employees
C) evolved into the nexus of corporate culture and workplace interaction
D) become a driving force to engage and retain the firm’s most valuable employees

5) Being on which list of “100 best” is so desirable that some organizations try to change their culture and philosophies to get on the list?
A) Working Mother list of 100 best companies
B) Fortune magazine’s 100 Best Companies to Work For
C) Business Ethics magazine list of 100 Best Corporate Citizens
D) Computerworld list of Best Places to Work

6) Avid Technology, Inc. was recently included on BusinessWeek’s list of 100 best small companies. Which HR function will most significantly be affected by this achievement?
A) performance appraisal
B) safety and health
C) recruitment
D) research

9) Lauren is an HR manager at a marketing firm. Which of the following functions is LEAST likely to be an aspect of Lauren’s job?
A) staffing
B) employee safety
C) product testing
D) employee and labor relations

10) Which term refers to the process through which an organization ensures that it always has the proper number of employees with the appropriate skills in the right jobs, at the right time, to achieve organizational objectives?
A) staffing
B) recruitment
C) selection
D) HR planning

Chapter 2: Business Ethics and Corporate Social Responsibility

1) In the legal use of the term, a whistleblower is someone who ________.
A) serves as a part-time referee in sporting events
B) has an ethical obligation to shield his or her employer from lawsuits
C) participates in an activity that is protected by federal law
D) serves as a majordomo at political dinners

3) The use of whistleblowers has been around since ________.
A) the passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
B) the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010
C) the Federal False Claims Act of 1863
D) the Whistleblowers Anonymity Act of 2005

4) Companies are concerned about the whistleblower part of the Dodd-Frank Act for all of the following reasons except that informants might ________.
A) skip internal channels and go straight to government authorities
B) use the whistleblower provision to settle other grievances with their companies
C) overload internal compliance channels and thus hinder internal compliance efforts
D) All of the above

5) Which term refers to the discipline that deals with what is good and bad or right and wrong?
A) morals and traditions
B) social responsibility
C) cultural norms
D) ethics

6) Which of the following firms has NOT been exposed for ethical abuses and corrupt conduct?
A) Enron
B) Lehman Brothers
C) WorldCom
D) General Electric (GE)

7) In a recent survey, what percent of investors said they would move their account if they discovered the company was involved in unethical behavior?
A) 17%
B) 37%
C) 67%
D) 97%

9) What do most of the 500 largest corporations in the United States have?
A) social responsibility audits
B) environmental audits
C) codes of ethics
D) podcasts

10) With regards to ethics, most of the 500 largest corporations in the U.S. now have a code of ethics. Which of the following would LEAST likely be included in the codes?
A) ethics offices
B) social accounting
C) conduct standards
D) performance appraisals

Chapter 3: Workforce Diversity, Equal Employment Opportunity, and Affirmative Action
1) President Obama decided that the 1996 Defense of Marriage Act that bars federal recognition of same sex marriages ________.
A) was constitutional
B) was immune from constitutional questions
C) was unconstitutional
D) was neutral from a constitutional point of view

3) Polls in the USA show that the public is evenly divided on ________.
A) equal rights for gay people
B) same-sex marriage
C) equal opportunity for gays in the workplace
D) overturning “don’t ask, don’t tell”

6) According to diversity experts, diversity management requires employers to do all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) develop patience
B) keep an open mind
C) maintain a quota system
D) cultivate cultural awareness

7) In order to achieve diversity in the workplace, management must ________.
A) foster a culture that values individuals and their wide array of needs and contributions
B) walk a fine line between political correctness and protectionism
C) focus on laws, court decisions, and executive orders
D) cultivate the bureaucracy and preserve the status quo

8) In today’s workplace, the definition of diversity is ________.
A) focused on affirmative action
B) constantly changing and expanding
C) understood by everyone in the workplace
D) all about equal employment opportunity

9) What term refers to any perceived difference among people, such as age, profession, lifestyle, or position?
A) diversity
B) culture
C) climate
D) environment

10) Which term refers to ensuring that factors are in place to encourage the continued development of a productive and diverse workforce by melding actual and perceived differences among workers?
A) EEOC management
B) affirmative management
C) diversity management
D) adverse impact management

2) The systematic process of determining the skills, duties and knowledge required for performing jobs in an organization is referred to as a job ________.
A) description
B) specification
C) qualification
D) analysis

3) In today’s workplace, ________ expedites the recovery of computer-related data that is essential to business operations.
A) blue-ray DVDs
B) the cloud
C) social networking
D) USB drives

4) Which term refers to a group of tasks that must be performed if an organization is to achieve its goals?
A) occupational specialty
B) job
C) position
D) post

5) Which of the following refers to the collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by one person?
A) job
B) position
C) job cluster
D) work group

6) In a workgroup consisting of a supervisor, two analysts, and four clerks, how many jobs and positions are involved?
A) 3 jobs; 7 positions
B) 6 jobs; 1 position
C) 7 jobs; 3 positions
D) 1 job; 6 positions

7) Jessie, an HR specialist, has been assigned the task of performing a job analysis for a new position created at the firm. Which of the following questions is LEAST relevant to the job analysis that Jessie will conduct?
A) Where is the job to be accomplished?
B) What qualifications are needed to perform the job?
C) When is the job to be completed?
D) What is the national hourly rate for this job?

8) Which of the following is NOT a time when job analysis is performed?
A) when new jobs are created
B) when an organization is founded
C) when jobs are changed significantly
D) when an organization faces a downturn

9) Why are most job analyses conducted?
A) creation of new jobs
B) obsolescence in jobs
C) changes in the nature of jobs
D) requirements of upper management

Chapter 5: Recruitment
1) The process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in sufficient numbers, and with appropriate qualifications to apply for jobs with an organization is known as ________.
A) development
B) selection
C) recruitment
D) planning

2) What does recruitment involve?
A) encouraging qualified people to apply for employment with a firm
B) selecting qualified people for employment at a firm
C) attracting and selecting employees for the firm
D) determining sources of employees

3) Pro-Cleaning Corporation needs additional employees, but the firm lacks the finances involved in recruiting and selection. All of the following are alternatives to recruiting that would help Pro-Cleaning EXCEPT ________.
A) outsourcing
B) hiring contingent workers
C) implementing e-learning processes
D) using a professional employer organization

4) Ultra Cosmetics is in the process of hiring an external provider to handle all of the firm’s administrative tasks, which were once handled internally. Ultra Cosmetics is most likely participating in ________.
A) broadbanding
B) outsourcing
C) employee leasing
D) recruiting

5) Soundgear Electronics recently shifted all of its customer support services to a vendor in India. Soundgear is most likely involved in the activity of ________.
A) telecommuting
B) offshoring
C) recruiting
D) staffing

6) When the Secretary of Labor referred to the disposable American workforce, the reference was to ________.
A) contingent workers
B) offshored employees
C) retired workers
D) hourly employees

10) All of the following are disadvantages associated with overtime EXCEPT ________.
A) employees become too accustomed to the added income
B) employees become too tired to work at a normal rate
C) employees pace themselves to ensure overtime
D) employees require additional training

Chapter 6: Selection
1) The HR manager at a manufacturing plant is required to use E-Verify to check the information provided on each employee’s ________.
A) I-9
B) W-2
C) W-4
D) 1099

2) Members of Congress who claim that E-Verify fails to prevent employers from hiring illegal immigrants advocate replacing the system with one based on ________.
A) nanotechnology
B) fingerprinting
C) graphology
D) biometrics

3) What is the primary criticism against a national identification system based on biometric data?
A) EEOC laws
B) political risks
C) immigration influxes
D) privacy and security risks

4) Which term refers to the process of choosing from a group of qualified applicants the individual best suited for a particular position?
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) HR planning
D) job bidding

5) Which of the following is the primary factor that determines the success or failure of a company?
A) visionary business strategy
B) high-tech control systems
C) sound organizational structure
D) competent employees

6) Marshall Consulting needs to hire a new CEO in the next two months. As an HR manager at Marshall Consulting, which of the following is your most important task when filling this position?
A) conducting extensive background checks
B) devising new selection tests
C) creating application forms
D) gathering biometric data

7) VRA Technologies needs to hire a data entry specialist. As an HR manager at the firm, which of the following is your most important task when filling this position?
A) conducting multiple background checks
B) requiring a word processing test
C) checking medical histories
D) calling personal references

9) The selection ratio is the number of people hired for a particular job compared to the number of qualified individuals in the ________.
A) workforce
B) population
C) applicant pool
D) labor market

10) If the selection ratio is 1.00, how many qualified applicants are there for one open position at a firm?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 10
D) 100

Chapter 7: Training and Development

1) What percentage of externally hired executives in the private sector fail within the first 18 months?
A) less than 15%
B) over 50%
C) nearly 25%
D) up to 40%

2) When an “outsider” CEO is unsuccessful, usually it is because he or she __________.
A) did not understand the company’s products
B) did not understand how to operate in the new culture
C) did not understand the company’s customers
D) did not understand how to respond to government regulators

3) The heart of a continuous effort designed to improve employee competency and organizational performance is referred to as ________.
A) succession planning
B) organizational planning
C) training and development
D) communicating and integrating

4) The primary purpose of training is to ________.
A) modify inappropriate behaviors
B) offer feedback about job performance
C) provide job-related knowledge and skills
D) supplement high school and college courses

5) Showing a worker how to operate a bulldozer or an administrative assistant how to schedule appointments are examples of ________.
A) training
B) development
C) morale improvement
D) behavioral development

6) Learning that looks beyond today’s job and has a more long-term focus is referred to as ________.
A) training
B) instruction
C) development
D) orientation
7) All of the following are most likely strategic benefits of training and development EXCEPT ________.
A) increased morale
B) higher retention rate
C) more employee satisfaction
D) improved orientation programs

9) Firms that recognize the critical importance of continuous performance-related training and development and take appropriate action are known as ________ organizations.
A) international
B) profitable
C) strategic
D) learning

10) Which of the following is LEAST likely to characterize a learning organization?
A) providing a supportive learning environment
B) offering specific learning processes and practices
C) supporting and reinforcing learning through leadership
D) requiring frequent examinations to ensure quick and accurate learning

Chapter 8: Performance Management and Appraisal
1) Which term refers to the level of commitment that workers make to an employer?
A) organizational fit
B) job recognition
C) employee engagement
D) employee sensitivity

3) Which of the following is LEAST likely to improve employee engagement?
A) treating workers with trust and respect
B) encouraging workers to be innovative
C) identifying workers for job enlargement
D) assigning workers to jobs that utilize their skills

7) A formal system of review and evaluation of an individual or team task performance is referred to as ________.
A) performance appraisal
B) strategic planning
C) performance management
D) succession planning

10) Sam is employed as an account associate at a publishing firm. Which of the following would most likely help Sam with career planning and development?
A) applicant tracking systems
B) compensation programs
C) performance appraisals
D) work sample tests

6) What form of compensation consists of the satisfaction that a person receives from the job itself or from the psychological and/or physical environment in which the person works?
A) nonfinancial compensation
B) direct financial compensation
C) indirect financial compensation
D) total internal compensation

7) Which term refers to the motivation theory that involves people comparing their job contributions and benefits to those of others?
A) expectancy theory
B) equity theory
C) reinforcement theory
D) hierarchy theory

9) Assembly workers at GM receive wages that are comparable to those received by assembly workers at Ford. What form of equity most likely exists at GM?
A) internal equity
B) employee equity
C) external equity
D) team equity

Chapter 10: Indirect Financial Compensation (Benefits) and Nonfinancial Compensation
1) Which of the following best defines Two in a Box?
A) providing two banking services to key customers
B) requiring applicants to interview with two managers
C) giving two executives the same job and responsibilities
D) requiring two employees to work overtime and weekends

2) When a U.S. multinational company is designing a global customized benefits package, it should assume all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) standardized benefits programs for all employees will achieve key benefits objectives
B) it is essential to determine a global corporate benefits strategy and determine what the company’s identity should be
C) the culture of each country will have a major impact on the benefits workers desire
D) U.S. insurance plan designs will not be universally applicable in all countries

3) Executives who participate in two in a box most likely benefit from the increased ________.
A) ability to balance work and life
B) ownership in the organization
C) opportunity to travel overseas
D) reliance on new technology

4) All financial rewards that are NOT included in direct financial compensation are known as ________.
A) bonuses
B) wages
C) commissions
D) benefits

6) Which of the following is an advantage of voluntary benefits?
A) always less costly for small businesses
B) typically linked to worker productivity
C) usually nontaxable to the employee
D) always government sponsored