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"Sure, one can say that metaphysics should be independent of the results of empirical science"

What? How does he think metaphysics comes to its conclusions? In fact, of all the philosophers, Aristotle is the only one who comes to his understanding solely by empirical evidence.

In relation to certitude, these men have it ass backwards. While Aristotle is fully grounded in the empirical, these men are constantly grasping at assumptions as if those assumptions are concrete reality.

Further, formal and final cause were thrown to the wayside by the modernists, which likewise greatly responsible for much of the nonsense espoused by the modern sciences.