For a hypothetical programming language that is LALR(1) and uses
semicolons as statement terminators, would a change that makes semicolons
only required on multi-statement lines and using the newline as an
implicit statement terminator make the language LALR(2)?
[Seems to me that it makes a newline syntactically equivalent to a semicolon, unless you
have some plan for multi-line statements you haven't mentioned. -John]