Another note along the same lines: Look carefully at
the passage in Matthew 5:32. The problem that I did
not note in my off-list reply was that MOICEUQHNAI and
MOICATAI are two_different_words. MOICEUQHNAI is from
MOICEUW (active voice) while MOICATAI is from MOICAW
(which always occurs in the middle/deponent state).
They are not the same word: MOICEUW in the active
voice means "commit adultery" and MOICAW in the active
middle means the same, but what of MOICEUW in the
middle?? (I got this from Strong's Dictionary of
Bible Words, numbers 3249 and 3431.)

Then we are turned again to the same question, yet we
see that it has significance as to its voice. I hope
this will help in the discussion.

--- Polycarp66@aol.com wrote:
> In a message dated 2/23/2000 4:02:37 PM Central
> Daylight Time,
> parousia_occ@yahoo.com writes:
>
> << What of the fact that MOICEUQHNAI is passive.
> Perhaps the idea is that
> the
> divorcee SUFFERS from adultery rather than commits
> it. In this way, she
> would be not viewed as guilty, but as the victim of
> her husbands
> wrongdoing.
>
> What do you think? >>
>
> Consider Matt. 19.9
>
> LEGW DE hUMIN OTI hOS AN APOLUSHi THN GUNAIKA AUTOU
> MH EPI PORNEIAi KAI
> GAMHSHi ALLHN MOICATAI
>
> I tell you that whoever divorces his wife --except
> for infidelity -- and
> marries another commits adultery.
>
> He is the actor here. He cannot be portrayed as the
> innocent victim yet the
> verb is passive in this passage as well.
>
> gfsomsel
>
__________________________________________________
Do You Yahoo!?
Talk to your friends online with Yahoo! Messenger.
http://im.yahoo.com