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"Kahahaha! Let's get lunatic!"-Add LP"And the Devil did grin, for his darling sin is pride that apes humility"-Samuel Taylor ColeridgeOh ye of little fiber. Do you not know what I've done for you? You will obey. ~Cerealman for Prez.

He makes sense....but, I don't agree with it. Mary, and according to the ritual cleansing after birth and the reason for it, would not have been unclean. Although the law of ritual purity had to apply, Chapter 12 of Leviticus describes a category of blood found after birth which is considered ritually pure. Immediately after birth of a male child, the woman is impure for seven days - The woman is forbidden to come to the Temple during this time. As a comparison with Matthew 8:4, "Then Jesus said to him, "See that you don't tell anyone. But go, show yourself to the priest and offer the gift Moses commanded, as a testimony to them."

As a testimony to them.........

Mary - couldn't have been ritually impure after giving birth, to Jesus.

26 In the sixth month of Elizabeth’s pregnancy, God sent the angel Gabriel to Nazareth, a town in Galilee, 27 to a virgin pledged to be married to a man named Joseph, a descendant of David. The virgin’s name was Mary. 28 The angel went to her and said, “Greetings, you who are highly favored! The Lord is with you.”

29 Mary was greatly troubled at his words and wondered what kind of greeting this might be. 30 But the angel said to her, “Do not be afraid, Mary; you have found favor with God. 31 You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him Jesus. 32 He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David, 33 and he will reign over Jacob’s descendants forever; his kingdom will never end.”

34 “How will this be,” Mary asked the angel, “since I am a virgin?”

35 The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God. 36 Even Elizabeth your relative is going to have a child in her old age, and she who was said to be unable to conceive is in her sixth month. 37 For no word from God will ever fail.”

If...this was based off of a "normal" pregnancy - conception, then the laws would follow! However, since "Mary" was not married at the time and since she submitted to God's will - then the birth of Christ would be considered much like creation - focusing on John 1. Reading from Genesis "And God blessed the seventh day and He hallowed it, for thereon He abstained from all His work that God created to do.." The Shabbat! As written, "For the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath," Matthew 12:8

John 1

The Word Became Flesh

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.

How could the laws (Niddah) apply? Especially when discussing the process of a pregnancy and a natural birth verses divine? When God created and sent us his son, Jesus?

John 1:14,
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Mankind's sinful nature is do to disobedience causing the finite man to obtain God's knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:22). God being infinite good, but man being a finite good creation, was corrupted by the knowledge of evil.

Now Jesus being human through his mother inherited that "knowledge of good and evil." But that knowledge was always part of His divine nature (Genesis 3:22, John 1:3, 10, 14, 18).

So it was:

Hebrews 4:15,
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

John 1:14,
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Mankind's sinful nature is do to disobedience causing the finite man to obtain God's knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:22). God being infinite good, but man being a finite good creation, was corrupted by the knowledge of evil.

Now Jesus being human through his mother inherited that "knowledge of good and evil." But that knowledge was always part of His divine nature (Genesis 3:22, John 1:3, 10, 14, 18).

So it was:

Hebrews 4:15,
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

We would have to go to the law - Torah. Apostle Paul stated that the law was a way to recognize sin:

What shall we say, then? Is the law sinful? Certainly not! Nevertheless, I would not have known what sin was had it not been for the law. For I would not have known what coveting really was if the law had not said, "You shall not covet." Romans 7:7

In the same way Jesus came to explain and teach the law - to clarify the law. John 18:37, "Therefore Pilate said to Him, “So-then You are a king?” Jesus answered, “You are saying that I am a king. I have been born for this. And I have come into the world for this: that I might testify to the truth. Everyone being of the truth hears My voice”.

Another entry, Jesus had asked what others viewed in the law, "26“What is written in the Law?” he replied. “How do you read it?” As to listen how others interpreted the law or how they understood it. The (expert in the law) or we could say the person was a posek, continues to ask Jesus for an understanding to that particular part of the law - as to educate. Jesus gives his interpretation and leaves it up to the questioner or immediate community for the understanding. The way Jesus explains the law is very simple and the community than has a way to be guided.

You know, Jesus was amazed at some of the things that people reached out for his guidance and physical needs. However, and reading from scripture, how angry Jesus became at the teachers - calling them blind leaders, and some that didn't practice what they preached, "Then Jesus spoke to the crowds and to His disciples: 2“The scribes and Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. 3 So practice and observe everything they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach.…", and in others Jesus had to condemn them as in John 9:41, "41“If you were blind, Jesus replied, “you would not be guilty of sin. But since you claim you can see,’ your guilt remains.” So Jesus reprimanded them - as well. Good Teachers normally do. We (on this site) have to reprimand others - in order to guide. Some strongly.

Jesus, yes - knew good and evil but he knew, like Moses did, that the Israelite's, if not well guided, would stray from the law but Jesus also knew they needed guidance. Two passages,

Deuteronomy 31

Assemble the people, the men and the women and children and [a]the alien who is in your town, so that they may hear and learn and fear the Lord your God, and be careful to observe all the words of this law

and,

Then it shall come about, when many evils and troubles have come upon them, that this song will testify before them as a witness (for it shall not be forgotten from the lips of their descendants); for I know their intent which they are developing today, before I have brought them into the land which I swore.”......(Reason for the song), 27 For I know your rebellion and your stubbornness; behold, while I am still alive with you today, you have been rebellious against the Lord; how much more, then, after my death?

This is a thought about Jesus coming to us and giving us God's salvation. Jesus came to us, and as sinful in nature as we were, to give us hope of the law - to give it a kind of human understanding. We see the law as being stern and unrelenting and that's how, probably, everyone took it - from John 9, "16 Some of the Pharisees said, “This man is not from God, for he does not keep the Sabbath.” and even Jesus acknowledged healing on the sabbath in Luke 13, he said, "“You hypocrites! Doesn’t each of you on the Sabbath untie your ox or donkey from the stall and lead it out to give it water? 16Then should not this woman, a daughter of Abraham, whom Satan has kept bound for eighteen long years, be set free on the Sabbath day from what bound her?”

When the apostle Paul wrote this passage, "14 Therefore, since we have such a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to what we profess. 15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who was tempted in every way that we are, yet was without sin.…

I believe he wrote it with the idea that Jesus was not only compassionate but knew the law in it entirety - (considering the Torah was given to mankind by God - or as written in the NT, 'The law was given through angels and entrusted to a mediator,Glatians3:19)perhaps sometimes in anger as sometimes he was ( we could look to him with hope - even when we sin. The law, Torah, was handed to man from heaven (Romans 10:5-13)and given to us to choose life but just like the garden, as the Apostle Paul said - sin entered into the law, the same way.

The reasoning's for knowing good from evil - and the only one who would know either one would be God, who is our judge. How could the serpent give such a speech to Eve when God knows the inner most thoughts of man and who is our judge? How could we determine what is truly in someone heart and how (when we have difficulties ourselves) know how to interpret a law that came directly from heaven. Who is the best judge in character?

Makes no sense to me. Sin is an act of the will, not a DNA factor. Did Adam's DNA become mutated when he sinned?

Yes, sin is an act of the will. However, there are degrees of sin as there are degrees of punishments. Many examples of these sins were in the New Testament that Jesus cured. Why couldn't the Rabbis of that time cure them? and if you know scripture than explain the cure of the blind man.

John 9: Jesus Heals a Man Born Blind. Jesus said that "the blind man" parent's weren't the one's who were to blame for this sin. However, the apostles still believed that sin could create its own (generational) punishment. What did Jesus say to this? "3“Neither this man nor his parents sinned,” said Jesus, “but this happened so that the works of God might be displayed in him. 4 As long as it is day, we must do the works of him who sent me. Night is coming, when no one can work. 5 While I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”

Rabbi's said, 31 We know that God does not listen to sinners. He listens to the godly person who does his will. 32 Nobody has ever heard of opening the eyes of a man born blind. 33 If this man were not from God, he could do nothing.”

34 To this they replied, “You were steeped in sin at birth; how dare you lecture us!” And they threw him out.

Jesus added, "39 Jesus said, “For judgment I have come into this world, so that the blind will see and those who see will become blind.”

No sin is not something that's in the DNA - its in the soul. God redeems us from the sin and grant's us His salvation by grace.

John 6:37

36 But as I told you, you have seen Me and still you do not believe. 37 All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will never turn away. 38 For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but to do the will of Him who sent Me.…