>It appears to me that the verse is giving an exception to a rule that
>generally states that brahmins (and not brahmins/ksatriyas) are eligible
>for liberation.
There is no such rule stated or implied in the Gita itself; and if the Gita
is to be contrasted with other, 'general' texts, it should be made clear
which ones and why. The Upanishads mention many rajarshis who knew Brahman,
and even taught it to brahmins.
Regards,
Martin Gansten