Q 1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except: A. Melanocyte B. Adrenal medulla C. Sympathetic ganglia D. Cauda equina Ans. D Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation: A. Establishes all the three germ layers B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to its cephalic end C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks Ans. A Q 3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except: A. They have centrally located nuclei B. They are derived from neural crest cells C. They are multipolar D. They contain lipofuscin granules Ans. C Q 4. Elastic cartilage is found in: A. Auditory tube B. Nasal septum C. Articular cartilage D. Costal cartilage Ans. A Q 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:

stools. The nerve mediating this pain is: A. Hypogastric nerve B. Pudendal nerve C. Splachnic visceral nerve D. Sympathetic plexus Ans. B Q 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve: A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Tensor veli palati D. Posterior belly of digastric Ans. C Q 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following, except: A. Facial nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve Ans. B Q 13. All of the following are features of large intestine, except: A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools B. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction C. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers D. Absorbs salt and water Ans. A Q 14. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures are compressed except: A. Subacromial bursa B. Long head of biceps C. Suprascapular nerve D. Supraspinatus tendon Ans. C

Q 24. “All enzymes are not proteins.” This statement is justified by: A. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis B. RNAs act as ribozymes C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions

Q 51. The histological features of celiac disease include all of the following, except: A. Crypt hyperplasia B. Increase in thickness of the mucosa C. Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes D. Increase in inflammatory cells in lamina propria Ans. B Q 52. In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen in the liver except: A. Fatty degeneration B. Chronic hepatitis C. Granuloma formation D. Cholestatic hepatitis Ans. C

Q 57. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all of the following except: A. Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species B. Incorporating part of host DNA C. Through bacteriophages D. Through conjugation Ans. B Q 58. Neonatal thymectomy leads to:

Q 76. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except: A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy C. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy Ans. D Q 77. All the following are selective beta blockers, except: A. Atenolol B. Esmolol C. Bisprolol D. Celiprolol Ans. D Q 78. All of the following factors increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity, except:

A. Time gap between primary and secondary case B. Time gap between index and primary case C. Time taken for a person from infection to develop maximum infectivity D. The time taken from infection till a person infects another person Ans. A Q 113. All the following are advantages of case control studies except: A. Useful in rare disease B. Relative risk can be calculated C. Odds ratio can be calculated D. Cost effective and inexpensive

Q 114. The association between coronary artery disease and smoking was found to be as follows: CAD No CAD Smokers 30 20 Non smokers 20 30 The Odds ratio can be estimated as: A. 0.65 B. 0.85 C. 1.35 D. 2.25 Ans. D Q 115. In a prospective study comprising 10,000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 were not, 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above results? A. Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer B. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to each other C. The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions D. Beta carotene is carcinogenic Ans. B Q 116. About direct standardization all are true except: A. Age specific death rates are not needed

B. A standard population is needed C. Population should be comparable D. Two propulations are compared Ans. A Q 117. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. Rubella B. Diphtheria C. Tetanus D. Hepatitis B Ans. A Q 118. Which of the following statements is true regarding pertussis? A. Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000 B. Vaccine efficacy is more than 95% C. Erythromycin is useful for prophylaxis D. The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough Ans. C Q 119. Drugs A & B are both used for treating a particular SKIN infection. After one standard application, drug A eradicates the infection in 95% of both adults and children. drug B eradicates the infection in 47% of adults & 90% of children. There are otherwise no significant pharmacological differences between the two drugs, and there are no significant side effects. However, the cost of drug A is twice that of drug B. Dr. Sunil, a general practitioner, always uses drug B for the first treatment, and resorts to drug A if the infection persists. Dr. Sudhir, another general practitioner, always uses drug A for adults and drug B for children. Ignoring indirect costs, which of the following statement is incorrect: A. Drug A is more effective than B for treating children B. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating children C. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating adults D. Dr. Sudhir’s regime achieves a higher level of cost-effectiveness than Dr. Sunil’s Ans. B

Q 120. The infectivity of chicken pox lasts for: A. Till the last scab falls off B. 6 days after onset of rash C. 3 days after onset of rash D. Till the fever subsides Ans. B Q 121. Carriers are important in all the following except: A. Polio B. Typhoid C. Measles D. Diphtheria Ans. C Q 122. Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged: A. 0-3 years B. 0-5 years C. 0-15 years D. 0-25 years Ans. C Q 123. A 2-years-old boy, presented with cough, fever & difficulty in breathing. His RR 50/min. There was no chest indrawing. Auscultation of chest reveals bilateral crepitions. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Very severe pneumonia B. Severe pneumonia C. Pneumonia D. No pneumonia Ans. C Q 124. Active and passive immunity should be given together in all except:

A. Tetanus B. Rabies C. Measles D. Hepatitis B Ans. C

Q 125. Cereals and proteins are considered complemen- tary because: A. Cereals are deficient in methionine B. Cereals are deficient in methionine and pulse are deficient in lysine C. Cereals are deficient in lysine and pulses are deficient in methionine D. Cereal proteins contain non-essential amino-acids, while pulse proteins contain essential amino acids Ans. C Q 126. For a 60 kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein requirement has been calculated to be 40 g (mean) & standard deviation is 10. The recommended daily allowance of protein would be: A. 60 g/day B. 70 g/day C. 40 g/day D. 50 g/day Ans. A Q 127. A population study showed a mean glucose of 86 mg/ dL. In a sample of 100 showing normal curve distribution, what percentage of people have glocose above 86%? A. 65 B. 50 C. 75 D. 60 Ans. B Q 128. The best method to show the association between height and weight of children in a class is by: A. Bar chart B. Line diagram C. Scatter diagram D. Histogram Ans. C Q 129. The correlation between variables A and B in a study was found to be 1.1. This indicates: A. Very strong correlation B. Moderately strong correlation C. Weak correlation

D. Computational mistake in calculating correlation Ans. D Q 130. The biological oxygen demand indicates: A. Organic matter B. Bacterial content C. Anaerobic bacteria D. Chemicals Ans. A Q 131. In a surveillance centre for hepatitis B, in a low prevalance area, the method for testing for hepatitis B was single ELISA. This policy was changed to double testing in series. This would result in the following 2 parameters of the test being affected: A. Increased specificity and positive predictive value B. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value C. Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value Ans. A Q 132. In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test of significance would be: A. Unpaired t test B. Paired t test C. Chi square test D. Fisher test Ans. B

Q 133. Ravi and Ashok stay in the same hostel of the same university. Ravi develops infection with group B meningococcus. After a few days Ashok develops infection due to group C meningococcus. All the following are true statements except:

A. Educate students about meningococcal trans- mission and take preventive measures B. Chemotheraphylaxis to all against both group B and group C C. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ravi D. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ashok Ans. C Q 134. All of the following are common cause of post neonatal infant mortality in India, except: A. Tetanus B. Malnutrition C. Diarrhoeal diseases D. Acute respiratory infection Ans. A Q 135. True about ‘total fertility rate’ is: A. Sensitive indicator of family planning achievement B. Completed family size C. Number of live births per 1000 married women in reproductive age group D. Average number of girls born to a woman Ans. B

Ans. A Q 172. All of the following are features of pheochromocytoma except: A. Hypertensive paraoxysm B. Headache C. Orhtostatic hypotension D. Wheezing Ans. D Q 173. The treatment of choice in young patient suffering from aplastic anaemia is: A. Danazol B. G-CSF C. Bone marrow transplantation D. ATG Ans. C Q 174. Raised anion gap in blood is not seen in which of the following? A. Renal failure B. Antifreeze ingestion C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Chronic respiratory failure Ans. D PEDIATRICS Q 175. A Down syndrome girl has 21/21 translocation and her father is carrier of balanced translocation. Risk of Down syndrome in next pregnancy is: A. 100% B. 0% C. 50% D. 25% Ans. A Q 176. The following signs would warrant further evaluation of developmental status in a healthy 12 weeks old infant: A. Dose not vocalize B. Dose not babble

C. Dose not raise head up to 90° D. Dose not transfer a bright red ring from one hand to the other, even when the ring is directly placed in the hand of child Ans. A Q 177. A 2 years child weighing 6.7 kg presents in the casualty with history of vomiting & diarrhoea for last 2 days. On examination SKIN pinch over the anterior abdominal wall go quickly to its original position. Interpretation of SKIN pinch test in this child will be: A. No dehydration B. Some dehydration C. Severe dehydration D. SKIN pinch can not be evaluated in this child Ans. D Q 178. An infant presents with history of seizures & SKIN rashes. Investigations show metabolic acidosis and increased blood ketone levels. This child is likely to be suffering from: A. Propionic aciduria B. Urea cycle disorder C. Phenylketonuria D. Multiple carboxylase deficiency Ans. D Q 179. With reference to RDS, all of the following statements are true, except: A. Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation B. Is more common in babies born to diabetic mothers C. Leads to cyanosis D. Is treated by administering 100% oxygen Ans. D

Q 180. Which of the following is not a common manifestation of congenital rubella: A. Deafness B. PDA C. Aortic stenosis

Q 194. All of the following are features of hallucination, except: A. Depends on will of the observer

B. Occurs in inner subjective space C. It is a vivid sensory perception D. It occurs in absence of perceptual stimulus Ans. A Q 195. The following is suggestive of an organic cause of the behavioural symptoms: A. Formal thought disorder B. Auditory hallucinations C. Delusion of fruit D. Visual hallucinations Ans. D Q 196. Delusion is not present in: A. Delirium B. Mania C. Depresion D. Compulsive disorder Ans. D Q 197. An alcoholic is brought to the casualty, 3 days after he quit alcohol, with the complaint of irrelevant talking. On examination, he is found to be disoriented in time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. There is no history of head injury. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Dementia praecox B. Delirium tremens C. Schizophrenia D. Korsakoff psychosis Ans. B

Q 198. Ram Lal, a 45 years old male came to the psychiatric OPD complaning of continuous, dull, non- progressive headache for the last 8 years. The patient has seen numerous neurologists in the belief that he has a brain tumor even though all his investigations have been normal. The patient

insisted that he had a brain tumor and requested yet another workup. Psychiatric evaluation reveals disease conviction in the background of normal investigations. The most probable diagnosis is: A. Hypochondriasis B. Somatization disorer C. Somatoform pain disorder D. Conversion disorder Ans. A Q 199. A patient presented with short lasting episodic behavioural changes which include agitation & dream like state with thrashing movements of his limbs. He does not recall these episodes & has no apparant precipitating factor. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Schizophrenia B. Temporal lobe epilepsy C. Panic episodes D. Dissociative disorder Ans. D Q 200. A young lady presented with repeated episodes of overeating followed by purging after use of laxatives. She is probably suffering from: A. Bulimia nervosa B. Schizophrenia C. Aorexia nervosa D. Binge eating disorder Ans. A Q 201. An 11 years old boy is all the time so restless that the rest of the class is unable to concentrate. He is hardly ever in his seat and roams around the hall. He has difficulty in playing quietly. The most likely diagnosis is:

Q 202. A patient suddenly experienced pain radiating along the medial border of the dorsum of foot. Which of the following nerve is most likely to be accidently ligated: A. Sural nerve B. Saphenous nerve C. Deep peroneal nerve D. Genicular nerve Ans. B Q 203. In an adult patient with pleural effusion, the most appropriate site for pleurocentesis done by inserting a needle is in: A. 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line B. 7th intercostal space in midaxillary line C. 2nd intercostal space adjacent to the sternum D. 10th intercostal space adjacent to the vertebral column Ans. B Q 204. Measurements of intravascular pressure by a pulmonary artery catheter should be done: A. At end expiration B. At peak of inspiration C. During mid inspiration D. During mid expiration Ans. A

Q 205. A 24 years old man falls on the ground when he is struck in the right temple by a baseball. While being driven to the hospital, he lapses into coma. He is unresponsive with the dilated right pupil when he reaches the emergency department. The most important step in initial management is: A. Craniotomy

B. CT scan of the head C. X-ray of the skull and cervical spine D. Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck Ans. A Q 206. Kamla Rani, 75 years old woman, presents after 6 weeks with post myocardial infarction with mild CHF. There was past history of neck Surgery for parathyroid adenoma 5 years ago. EKG shows slow artrial fibrillation. Serum Ca2+ 13.0 mg/L and urinary Ca2+ is 300 g/24 h. On examination these is small mass in the paratracheal position behind the right clavicle. Appropriate management at this time is: A. Repeat neck Surgery B. Treatment with technetium -99 C. Observation and repeat serum Ca2+ in two months D. Ultrasound-guided alcohol injection of the mass Ans. D Q 207. Not a feature of de Quervain’s disease: A. Autoimmune in etiology B. Raised ESR C. Tends to regress spontaneously D. Painful & associated with enlargement of thyroid Ans. A Q 208. A 35 years old woman has had recurrent episodes of headache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculi and died of thyroid cancer. Physical observations revealed a thyroid nodule and ipsilateral enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Before performing thyroid Surgery the woman’s physician should order: A. Thyroid scan B. Estimation of hydroxy indole acetic acid in urine C. Estimation of urinary metanephrines, VMA and catecholamines D. Estimation of TSH, and TRH levels in serum Ans. C Q 209. All of the following are associated with thyroid storm, except: A. Surgery for thyroiditis

B. Surgery for thyrotoxicosis C. Stressful illness in thyrotoxicosis D. I131 therapy for thyrotoxicosis Ans. A Q 210. Needle biopsy of solitary thyroid nodule in a young woman with palpable cervical lymph nodes on the same sides demonstrates amyloid in stroma of lesion. Likely diagnosis is: A. Medullary carcinoma thyroid B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid C. Thyroid adenoma D. Multinodular goitre Ans. A Q 211. A 26 years old woman presents with a palpable thyroid nodule, and needle biopsy demonstrates amyloid in the stroma of the lesion. A cervical lymph node is palpable on the same side as the lesion. The preferred treatment should be: A. Removal of the involved node, the isthmus,and the enlarged lymph node B. Removal of the involved lobe, the isthmus, a portion of the opposite lobe, and the enlarged lymph node C. Total thyroidectomy and modified neck dissection on the side of the enlarged lymph node D. Total thyroidectomy and irradiation of the cervical lymph nodes Ans. C

Q 222. All the following indicates early gastric cancer except: A. Involvement of mucosa B. Involvement of mucosa and submucosa C. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and muscularis D. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and adjacent lymph nodes Ans. C Q 223. In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be: A. Antrum

B. Duodenum C. Pylorus D. Pyloric canal Ans. B Q 224. Ramesh met an accident with a car and has been in ‘deep coma’ for the last 15 days. The most suitable route for the administration of protein and calories is by: A. Jejunostomy tube feeding B. Gastrostomy tube feeding C. Nasogastric tube feeding D. Central venous hyperalimentation Ans. A Q 225. A 10 months old infant present with acute intestinal obstruction. Contrast enema X-ray shows the intussusception. Likely cause is: A. Peyer’s patch hypertrophy B. Mekel’s diverticulum C. Mucosal polyp D. Duplication cyst Ans. A Q 226. After undergoing Surgery , for carcinoma of colon, a 44 year old patient developed single liver metastasis of 2 cm. What do you do next: A. Resection B. Chemo-radiation C. Acetic acid injection D. Radiofrequency ablation Ans. A Q 227. Ten days after a splenectomy for blunt abdominal trauma, a 23 years old man complains of upper abdominal and lower chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing. He is anorectic but ambulatory and otherwise making satisfactory progress. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.2° C(108° rectally, and he has decreased breath sounds at the left F) lung base. His abdominal wound appears to be healing well,. bowel sound are active and there are no peritoneal signs. Rectal examination is

negative. The WBC count is 12,500 per mm3 with a shift to left. Chest X-ray shows plate like atelectasis of the left lung field. Abdominal X-rays show a nonspecific gas pattern in the bowel and an air-fluid level in the left upper quadrant. Serum amylase is 150 Somogyi units/ dl (normal 60 to 80). The most likely diagnosis is: A. Subphrenic abscess B. Pancreatitis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Subfascial wound infection Ans. A Q 228. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is an important part of the management of which of the following conditions? A. Carcinoma prostate B. Carcinoma breast C. Carcinoma lung D. Carcinoma nasopharynx Ans. B Q 229. A man who weighs 70 kg (154 pounds) is transfered to a burn center 4 weeks after sustaining a second and third-degree burn injury to 45% of his total body surface area. Prior to accident, the patients weight was 90 kg (198 pounds). The patient has not been given anything by mouth since the injury except for antacids because of previous ulcer history. On physical examination, the patient’s burn wounds are clean, but only minimal healing is evident and thick adherent eschar is present. The patient’s abdomen is soft and nondistended, and active bowel sounds are heard. His stools are trace-positive for blood, and he has a right inguinal hernia, which appears to be easily reducible. He has poor range of motion of all involved joints and has developed early axillary and popliteal fossae flexion contractures. In managing this patient at this stage of his injury, top priority must be given to correcting: A. The presence of blood in stools by the increasing the dose of antacids and H1 receptor blocker B. The open, poorly healing burn wounds treated by surgical excision and

grafting C. The inguinal hernia treated by surgical repair using local Anaesthesia D. The nutritional status by oral supplementation or parenteral hyperalimentation Ans. D Q 230. A 14 years old girl sustains a steam bum measuring 6 by 7 inches over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm. Blisters develop over the entire area of the bum wound, and by the time the patient is seen 6 hours after the injury, some of the blisters have ruptured spontaneously. In addition to debridement of the necrotic epithelium, all the following therapeutic regiments might be considered appropriate for this patient except: A. Application of silver sulfadiazine and daily washes, but no dressing B. Application of polyvinylpyrrolidone foam, daily washes and a light occlusive dressing changed daily C. Application of mafenide acetate cream, but no daily washes or dressing D. Heterograft application with sutures to secure it in place and daily washes, but no dressing Ans. D Q 231. All of the following are the clinical features of thromboangitis obliterans except: A. Raynaud’s phenomenon B. Claudication of extremeties C. Absence of popliteal pulse D. Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis Ans. C Q 232. Rani, a 16 years old girl who has non-pitting edema of recent onset affecting her right leg but no other symptoms is referred for evaluation. True statements about this patient include: A. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated B. A lymphagiongram will show hypoplasia of the lymphatics C. Elastic stocking and diuretics will lead to a normal appearance of the limb

D. A variety of operations will ultimately lead to a normal appearance of the limb Ans. B Q 233. Kamla, a 59 years old woman, has a left femoral vein thrombosis during a pregnancy 30 year ago. The left greater saphenous vein had been stripped at age 21. She now presents with a large non healing ulceration over the medial left calf, which has continuously progressed despite bedrest, elevation, and use of a support stocking. Descending phlebography of the left leg demonstrates a patent deep venous system, with free flow of dye from the groin to foot. The first profunda femoris valve is competent. Appropriate management might include which of the following: A. Division of the superficial femoral vein in the groin and transposition of its distal end onto the profunda femoris vein below the level of the competent profunda valve B. Saphenous venous crossover graft with anastomosis of the end of the right saphenous vein onto the side of competent femoral vein C. Ligated iliofemoral venous thrombectomy with creation of the temporary arteriovenous fistula D. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins in the left calf. Ans. A Q 234. On her third day of hospitalization, a 70 years old woman who is being treated with antibiotics for acute cholecystitis develops increased pain and tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a palpable mass. Her temperature rises to 40° (104° her blood pressure falls to 80/60 mmHg. C F) Hematemesis, and melena ensue and petechiae are noted. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopenia, prolonged prothrombin time, and a decreased fibrinogen level. The most important step in the correction of this patient’s coagulopathy is: A. Exploratory laparotomy B. Administration of heparin -aminocaproic acideC. Administration of D. Administration of fresh frozen plasma

Ans. A Q 235. A 64 years old previously healthy man is admitted to a hospital because of a closed head injury and ruptured spleen following a road side automobile accident. During the first 4 days of hospitalization, following laparotomy and splenectomy, he receives 5% dextrose, 0.5% normal saline solution at a rate of 125 mL/h. Recorded daily fluid outputs include 450 to 600 mL of nasogastric drainage and 700 to 1000 mL of urine. The patient is somnolent but easily aroused until the morning of the 5th hospital day, when he is noted to be in deep coma. By the afternoon, he begins having seizures. The following laboratory data are obtained. Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 130; K+ 1.9; CI- 96; HCO3- 19. Serum osmolality 260 mOsm/L. Urine electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 61; K+ 18. Which of the following statements about diagnosis or treatment of this patient’s condition is true: A. Emergency carotid arteriogram is to be done B. Secondary to metabolic acidosis there is hypokalemia C. A small qantity of hypertonic saline should be given D. IV infusion of 20 ml of 50% MgSO4 is given over a period of 4 hours Ans. C Q 236. All of the following statements about acute adrenal insufficiency are true except: A. Hyperglycemia is usually present B. Acute adrenal insufficiency usually is secondary to exogenous glucocorticoid administration C. Acute adrenal insufficiency presents with weakness, vomiting, fever, and hypotension D. Hyponatremia occurs because of impaired renal tubule sodium resorption Ans. A Q 237. All of the following are correct statements about radiological evaluation of a pateint with Cushing’s syndrome except: A. MRI of the sella turcica will identify a pituitary cause for Cushing’s syndrome B. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish a pituitary

Q 240. All of the following are associated with supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus, except: A. It is uncommon after 15 years of age B. Extension type FRACTURE is more common than the flexion type C. Cubitus varus deformity commonly results following malunion D. Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved Ans. D Q 241. A 40 years old man, was admitted with FRACTURE shaft femur following a road traffic accident. On 2nd day he became disoriented. He was found to be tachypnoeic, and had conjunctival petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is: A. Pulmonary embolism

D. FRACTURE of sustentaculam tali Ans. C Q 246. A previously healthy 45 years old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain & weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true: A. Immediate treatment should include analgesics, muscle relaxants & back strengthening exercises B. The appearance of the foot drop indicates early surgical intervention C. If the neurological signs resolve within 2 to 3 weeks but low back pain persists, the proper treatment would include fusion of affected lumbar vertebra D. If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done Ans. B Q 247. Acute osteomylitis is most commonly caused by: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Actinomyces bovis C. Nocardia asteroides D. Borrelia vincentii Ans. A

Q 252. Complete transection of the spinal cord at the C1 level produces all of the following effects except: A. Hypotension B. Limited respiratory effort C. Anaesthesia below the level of the lesion D. Areflexia below the level of the lesion Ans. B

Q 256. In the normal human right eye , the peripheral field of vision is usually least: A. On the left side (nasally) B. In the downward direction C. In the upward direction D. On the right side (temporally) Ans. C Q 257. Tonography helps you to determine: A. The rate of formation of aqueous B. The facility of outflow of aqueous

C. The levels of intraocular presure at different times D. The field changes Ans. B Q 258. Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the colour for matching than a normal person, then he has a colour anomaly. More red colour is needed in the case of: A. Deuteranomaly B. Tritanomaly C. Protanomaly D. Tritanomaly Ans. C Q 259. The colours best appreciated by the central cones of our foveo-macular area are: A. Red and blue B. Blue and green C. Red and green D. Blue and yellow Ans. C

Q 260. Epiphora is: A. Cerebrospinal fluid running from the nose after FRACTURE of anterior cranial fossa B. An epiphenomenors of a cerebral tumor C. An abnormal overflow of tears due to obstruction of lacrimal duct D. Eversion of lower eyelid following injury Ans. C Q 261. A 35 years old hypermetrope is using 1.50 D sphere both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on his nose he will feel that his near vision: A. Becomes enlarged B. Becomes distorted

responsible for it: A. Timolol B. Latanoprost C. Dipivefrine D. Pilocarpine Ans. C Q 267. A 12 years old child complains of headache and decreased vision. On examination he has a visual acuity of 6/36 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye . On retinoscopy at 66 cm, the left eye showed correction of 1.5 D and the right eye of 5 D. The anterior chamber and fundus of _________________

3 Comments

answer to the 15 th question in physiology section is wrong…its written (c) kPa ….but the answer should be mmHg for B.P. ….i havent rade the whole model but i think there can be more mistakes in this model…