I think its clear, that he gets out but the team gets credited for a run so team B wins.

Look at it this way...If it was not the last run or the last player but just a normal situation say 100-5 and a wide was bowled and the batsman got stumped...the score would become 101-6.

But I have another interesting twist to this....same situation as Marc mentioned, its a wide but the batsman gets hit wicket, will team B be credited with a run for a wide ball, or the out happens first and the innings is over.

Originally posted by royGilchrist
I think its clear, that he gets out but the team gets credited for a run so team B wins.

Look at it this way...If it was not the last run or the last player but just a normal situation say 100-5 and a wide was bowled and the batsman got stumped...the score would become 101-6.

But I have another interesting twist to this....same situation as Marc mentioned, its a wide but the batsman gets hit wicket, will team B be credited with a run for a wide ball, or the out happens first and the innings is over.

Really! Does the team get a run if you're out off a wide ball? If that's the case, what's the difference if it's hit-wicket or a stumping?

I'm pretty sure (someone, eyes_only?, correct me if I'm wrong) that stumping on a wide ball does result in a run. But I'm not sure if hit wicket on a wide ball results in a run, but if I had to guess I'd say no.

As soon as the wide occurs it is one run so the game is over, and the ball is dead.

So in that ING game, the batsman wasn't run out as the game was already over.

Roy has put an interesting spin on that question though - my guess is that if the ball has passed the stumps before the hit wicket, then a wide is called first, otherwise it's a wicket - but I can't be 100% on that!

Ok thats fair enough I did not realize that as soon as team B got the run the match is over and the batsman doenst lose his wicket.

As for my question, I do not know the answer just asking a question, but the way you describe it Marc doesnt seem like an elegant way of deciding, and there is too much left to the discretion of the ump, also the question can be asked which ump makes the decision, is it the leg umpire?

I think it will make more sense if even if the ball goes behind the wkts before the hit wkt, the team doesnt get credit for the wide run, and batsman is out hit wkt. A bit like if a batsman hits a six, and the ball crosses the fence before, but then gets hit wkt, he is not credited for any runs and is proclaimed out. If the ump was judging what happened first, it will be too complicated, and not clear cut enough.

But someone should give us a concrete answer, fro the rule book. I guess, eyes_only is an aspiring umpire among us?

posted by age_master...
the ball cannot be taken from in front of the stumps unless the keeper is completeley in front of the stumps or the batsmen are running (or the rule goes something like that i think)

According to Law 25.8 (The Laws Of Cricket 2000 Code), the only way a batsman may be given out from a wide ball is if he/she:

Handles the ball

Hits the wicket

Obstructs the field

Is run out

Is stumped

According to Law 25.6, all runs that have been completed by the batsmen together with the wide balls will be scored as wides balls.... Apart from any 5 run penalty, all runs resulting resulting from the call of the wide shall be debited to the bowler....

That's what the Laws say...see if you can work it out in this example!! :frog:

PS: For what it's worth...Paid is the only one who has come close to the correct answer!! 8D

[Edited on 12/10/2002 by Eyes_Only]

Simon Taufel---ICC Umpire Of The Year 2005/2006/2007

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Originally posted by age_master
the ball cannot be taken from in front of the stumps unless the keeper is completeley in front of the stumps or the batsmen are running (or the rule goes something like that i think)