Jacobo Tarrio wrote:
> Oops, I have just thought of a case where it isn't so, at least in Spain.
> The Spanish trade mark law allows the owner of a trademark to prohibit its
> removal from a product.
That's true in the US, too; http://jurist.law.pitt.edu/forum/forumnew112.php
says:
> In order to understand the significance of this ruling it is first necessary
> to understand the basics of reverse passing off. In a nutshell, reverse
> passing off is a theory that prevents the selling of a manufacturer?s goods
> after removing the manufacturer?s trademark from the goods and either
> substituting the distributor?s mark or simply leaving the goods unbranded.
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