> You seem to be suggesting that the component of "to do evil" is not
> necessarily present here. But the third PEIRASMON (EAN PESWN PROSKUNHSHiS
> MOI "if you will fall down and worship me" Matthew 4:9) certainly was *not*
> his right as son to do. But even the first two, although note evil actions
> in themselves, were contrary to God's will for Jesus at that time and in
> that way evil.
>

This, I think, confuses result with purpose. In the phenomenon denoted by the PEIRA
root the emphasis is on seeing whether the one "tested" will act in a particular way
or whether the character he/she bears is well established, not provoking or enticing a
person **in order that** he may act in a particular way.

Moreover, the issue in the "kingdom" testing episode is whether the ways of God are
adequate to the son's gaining what is by rights his -- i.e., the kingdoms of he world.

Rather than go on at length here regarding what the Devil is "up" to in the
Matthean/Lukan version of the story, and what the testings narrated there consist of,
let me point you to an (as yet unpublished) study I have done on the story that I have
made available at: http://members.home.net/jgibson000/QWTBIB2_web.htm

> But Satan's appeals to Jesus certainly did involve his own desires: a
> desire to satisfy hunger and a desire to take possession of the kingdoms of
> the earth.

Do they? I know that this is often what is said. But is it the case? I think you need
to have a look at what I say in the article available at the URL above regarding both
the "hunger" Jesus is said to experience in the testing story as well as what's going
on in the Kingdom testing episode.

I will be interested in you -- or anyone else's -- comments on what you find there.