I'm super shit with proper music theory s i need to ask for some help.
I want to know what this means in letters as opposed to chord numbers please

iv6 - iio6 - i - iv6 - V/V - i6 - [Fr 43 - V] of iv

It's relative to the scale you're in. The roman numerals denote the degree of the scale. So, in A minor, the fourth would be D minor. Usually, with these, lowercase denotes a minor chord and uppercase denotes a major chord. The number are added bits, of course. So, in A minor again, a iv6 would be a Dm6

EDIT: Oh, also... there it says "iio6" which is usually written as "ii°6" which denotes a diminished chord. So, Bdim6

I want to know what this means in letters as opposed to chord numbers please

iv6 - iio6 - i - iv6 - V/V - i6 - [Fr 43 - V] of iv

maybe give the example in Em or Am or something as i know those keys well

what candlesayshi said and a little more:

-The 6 means you add a major sixth to the chord. Starting on 1 on the root, count six notes. (A B C D E F G >> the sixth of B for example is G). Then for it to be major, it should be 1 and 1/2 tone under the root.

-"V/V" means "five of five". So the fifth degree of the tonic, well the fifth degree of that one
-"FR 4 3 (four and three should be written on top of each other) is a "French sixth" chord. It usually resolves on V like it does here so you could think of it as a chromatic approach to a V7 chord. Basically, take a V7 and turn all the notes up a semi-tone. That's not absolutely "correct" but that's more or less what a French sixth chord is about.
- and you do that FR4/3 - V relating to the fourth degree. So FR4/3 that resolves on the V of iv, that in its turn resolves on iv.

thanks guys, i kind of understand a bit more now. gonna have to read that FR thing a few times i think lol
It's from a thing i was reading about chord progressions but it all looked far too over my head in that format and no explanation in the article, so thought id better educate meself better

I don't know about that, vashina. I feel like it's something to do with classical vs. jazz/"pop" notation. I've never seen the inversion notated next to either a chord or a roman numeral in jazz progressions.

I'm going to be honest, it's still all a little over my head at the moment. I really need to learn this stuff though it seems.
Thanks for all your help on this, it has helped me a lot, just I'm still a chord notation virgin obviously

It can either mean the interval from tonic or the interval from the bass. It depends on the context. Lettered notation is normally from tonic. Roman numeral is normally from the bass.

Sorry, I still think you're totally wrong. It makes no sense to use a number to indicate where the inversion starts.

Think about it. This would mean that you would have to calculate the numerical value against the scale's root for every single chord. So if you wanted to express the same inversion moving up a scale you'd have to write:

I6, ii7, iii1, IV2, V3, vi4, vii5

I would really like to see some references discussing what you're saying because, logically, it makes zero sense. What happens if you change key? What happens if you transpose? You would literally have to rewrite every chord which defeats the purpose of using numeral notation in the first place.

My understanding has always been that you use lowercase letters to denote an inversion. So first inversion would be IVb, second would be IVc and so on. An accompanying number indicates additional notes beyond the Triad. That's also what every reference I can refer to says as well.

uh. No, Jaded, a 6 next to the roman numeral indicating the first inversion is very often used in classical music; it's very specific to classical chord naming but it does exist.

as I said earlier, the first inversion of D minor would be FDA instead of DFA. The interval between F and D is a sixth. Hence "6". Sometimes it's "6 3" (with 6 and 3 on top of each other) but the 3 is often dropped and leaves only "6" written next to the numeral.

We also thought of the option of 6 meaning added sixth, like it is very often notated in jazz and popular music. But the "FR 4 3" chord clearly suggests classical chord naming.

Also another important element that suggests the "6" here doesn't mean "added sixth" is that we have a diminshed chord with "6" written next to it. But a diminshed seventh and a major sixth is the same interval. It makes no sense to add a major sixth to a diminished chord. If we understand the symbol "6" as meaning "first inversion", it does make sense.

The 6 does not mean add a major 6. It means the triad is in its first inversion. 6/4 means the triad is in its second inversion.

In every major scale there are 3 Primary chords (I,IV,V) they are capitilized because they represent major triads in the major scale

There are also 3 secondary chords (ii,iii,vi) in every major scale. They are not capitilized because they are representing the minor triads in the major scale

And there is one diminished triad in every major scale represented by vii o. The o represents a diminished triad. Diminished triads have minor 3rds for both intervals. Not used as commonly in today's music

The key of Gmaj will be used for this example, Em is the relative minor for Gmaj

Cmaj = IV in Gmaj scale

G=I
A=ii
B=iii
C=IV
D=V
E=vi
F#dim=viio

IV= C
G
E
C <------ bass note

IV6= C/E
C
G
E<------- Bass note

IV6/4= C/G
E
C
G<-------- Bass note

When using an inverted chord, the only note that truly matters is the bass note to determine what inversion it is in.

Hi man can you explain this just a little more? do you just indicate that it's a B flat major chord playing with a 7b5 chord and then modulating to A?

hey aLiner,
So, yes there are only two chords in those brackets. First one is Bb7b5, it's a B flat major chord with a minor seventh and diminished fifth.
It doesn't modulate on A. Bb7/A is a II V that then resolves on Dm.
II V I is a very typical chord progression (90% of any jazz tune).
Strictly speaking, a II V I in D should be E/A/D but here we have the equivalent of what you could call a tritone substitution on the II. Bb is substituted for E.

Quote:

Originally Posted by aLiner

couldn't the first inversion of Dm also be F A D? does that depend on the harmony? (just want to get that clear)

The first inversion of Dm absolutely is FAD. That's a mistake on my part. When you do an inversion, you pop the the note on the bass an octave higher. So DFA becomes FAD. The rest of my posts is still valid, though :3

The first inversion of Dm absolutely is FAD. That's a mistake on my part. When you do an inversion, you pop the the note on the bass an octave higher. So DFA becomes FAD. The rest of my posts is still valid, though :3

I guess it can be interpreted pretty much the same though, FAD and FDA.
But if I see FDA, I somehow assume that the A is an octave higher haha