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UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 33

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QUESTION: 1

Match List-I (Parliamentary Committees) with List II (Functions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Which of the following pairs are NOT correctly matched?

1. Call Attention Motion: To draw attention of the minister on a matter of urgent public importance
2. Adjourment Motion: To adjourn the house before the expiry of the time
3. Privilege Motion: To draw attention of the Speaker towards incorrect/incomplete answer by a minister
4. Cut Motion: To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the Budget Proposals

A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:

1. The reference for advice may be made to the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact by the President of India.

2. Disputes arising out of pre-constitution treatiesand agreements excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may also be referred to it.

3. The Advice given by the Supreme Court is binding on the Government.

4. One of the cases referred to the Supreme Court for its advice was the constitutionality of the Kerala Education Bill.

Q. Which of these are correct?

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

3 and4

Solution:

QUESTION: 4

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. 24th Amendment: Asserted the right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution incluing Part III

2. 39th Amendment: Election of President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Speaker is beyond the purview of the Judiciary

3. 42nd Amendment: Political defections made illegal and reservations for SC/ST extended for another 10 years

4. 70th Amendment: Granting of Statehood to the Union Territory of Delhi

A.

1 and 4

B.

1 and 2

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

The Upper Chamber of the State Legislature, besides other members, consists of

A.

1/12 elected by teachers electorate; 1/3 elected by municipalities; 1/12 elected by registered graudates

B.

1/12 elected by registered graduates; 1/12 elected by women; 1/3 elected by trade unions and cooperative institutions

C.

1/12 elected by women; 1/12 elected by municipalities and other local bodies; 1/3 elected by teachers electorate

D.

1/3 directly elected by the people; 1/12 elected by registered graduates; 1/12 elected by cooperative banks, women's organisations and other cooperative bodies.

Solution:

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following features;

1. Village Panchayats have now been brought under the direct supervision of the Governor

2. Finance Commission of the State, now determines the distribution of taxes and levies between the state and panchayats.

3. Panchayats are now entitled to recieve grants-inaid directly from the Central government.
4. 1/3 of the seats in the Panchayats are now reserved for women.

Q. According to the 73rd Amendment of the Constitution, which of these are correct features of villege panchayats?

Which one of the following statements related to Money Bills is NOT correct?

A.

It cannot be introduced in the Council of States.

B.

If any questions arises whether the bill is Money Bill or not, the decision of the Lok Sabha Speaker is final.

C.

In case of a deadlock over a Money Bill, the President can summon a joitn sittting of Parliament.

D.

A Money Bill cannot be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

Match List I (Parties) with List II (Trade Unions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following statements:

A: A voluntary organisation files a Public Interest Litigation on Supreme Court on behalf of the workers at the construction site of the Asiad Games.

R: The Indian Constitution has provided for the Public Interest Litigation.

A.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B.

Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A.

C.

A is true, but R is false.

D.

A is false, but R is true.

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.

Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses know as the Council of States and the House of the People.

B.

The Council of State consists only of representatives of the States and Union Territories elected by the members of State Legislative Assemblies by proportionate representation.

C.

The House of the People consists mostly of representatives elected directly by the people on the basis of population.

D.

The Legislature of the State consits of the Government of the State, and one or two Houses as the case may be.

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

A.

Sujnderala Bahauguna: Chipko Movement

B.

Sardar Patel: Warli Struggle

C.

Naryanaynaswamy Naidu: Tamiliga Vyvasaigal Sangam

D.

Rama Manohar Lohia: Kagodu Satyagraha

Solution:

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following:
Balance of power refers to

1. an actual state of affairs in which power is distributed among several nations with approximate equality.

2. an implicit understanding among several rulers of great powers that the perpetuation of the existing power distribution benefits them mutually.

3. a situation in which nuclear powers threaten mutual annihilation.

4. a just equilibrium in power among the members of the family of nations.

Q. Which of the above statements are correct?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 3 and 4

C.

1, 2 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

Which one of the following is NOT correct about 'Dyarchy' introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919?

A.

It was a system of dual governments at central and provincial levels.

B.

Provincial subjects were divided into reserved and transferred.

C.

Governor appointed ministers from the elected members of the legislative council.

D.

Governor had the power of overriding the majority decision.

Solution:

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements:

1. In extraordinary circumstances, the normal distribution of power between the Centre and the states is either suspended or the powers of the Union Parliament are extended over State subjects.

2. The Indian Constitution vests the residuary power in the Union Parliament and the final decision as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is that of the Supreme Court.

3. The Union Government has the power to give directions to the state government to ensure due compliance with Union laws.

4. If the Legislature of two or more states so resolve, Parliament can make laws with respect to any matters included in the state list relating to those states.

Q. Which of these describe the nature of Indian Federalism?

A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

1 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 16

Consider the following Bills:
1. Bills for the formation of the new States or recognisation of state boundaries.
2. Money Bills
3. State Bills imposing restrictions upon the freedom of trade.
4. Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India

According to the Constitution of India, for introduction of which of these Bills, previous sanction or recommendation of the President of India is required?

A.

only 1

B.

2 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

Which one of the following combinations has all federal states?

A.

U.S.A. Canada, Australia, Sri Lanka

B.

France, Malaysia, Canada, U.S.A.

C.

Pakistan, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Canada

D.

U.S.A. Australia, Malaysia, Canada

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

Match List I and List II and select the correct answer:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements:

1. Economic issues could only by understood in the context of the political reality
2. Political questions of resource ownership, power and distribution determine the process of development
3. Production and distribution are closely related

Q. Which of these was/were implied in the political economy approach of 1960s and 1970s?

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2

C.

2 and 3

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements with regard to the powers enjoyed by the governor of a state of India:

1. he addresses the Legislative Assembly of the State at the commencement of the first session of each year

2. He can send messages to the Legislative Assembly with respect to a Bill pending in the Assembly at that time

3. He can summon, prorogue and dissolve the Legislative Assembly of the State

4. He can give assent to a Bill to curtail the powers of the State High Court

Q. Which of these are correct?

A.

1 and 4

B.

3 and 4

C.

1 and 2

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements with regard to the Chief Minister of a State in India:

1. He/she is appointed by the Governor of the State.
2. He/she and his/her Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Governor

3. He/she must communicate to the Governor all the decisions of Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State and proposals for legislation.

4. If the Governor of the State so requires, the Chief Minister shall submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on whcih a decision has been taken by a ministers but which has not been considered by the Council of Ministers.

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

A.

1, 2, 3 and 4

B.

only 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

1 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Consider the following statements with regard to the Advocate-General of a state in India:

1. He/She is appointed by the President of India
2. He/She can take part in the procedings of the State Legislative Assembly
3. His/her salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of India
4. He/She advises the State government on legal matters

Q. Which of these is/are correct?

A.

2 and 4

B.

3 only

C.

1 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 23

Consider the following statements about secularism:
1. It promotes religious philosophy
2. It separates religion from politics
3. It denies state support to religious organisations
4. It oppose religious ideas and ideology

Q. Which of these statements is/are correct?

A.

2 only

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 24

Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the Government of India Act, 1935?

A.

The federal exeuctives was to consist of the Governor-General and the Counsellors

B.

The federal legislature was to consits of the Governor General, the Council of States and the Federal assembly

C.

There were twelve Governors' provinces and six Chief Commissioners' provinces

D.

The provincial legislature was to consist of the Governor and only the Lower Hosue of Legislature

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

Who of the following is the author of Paumacariyam,a Jaina version of Rama story ?

A.

Bhanuchandra Upadhyaya

B.

Hemachandra

C.

Hari Vijaya Suri

D.

Vimalasuri

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

In early medieval India, what were Ghatikas?

A.

Religious centres in Krishna-Godavari areas only

B.

Jaina cave monasteries and centres of learning in Kalinga areas

C.

Colleges and centres providing brahmanical learning in South India

D.

Association of traders

Solution:

QUESTION: 27

With reference to the temple architec-ture of Orissa, consider the following' statements :

1. The shrine of Mukteswara temple of Bhubaneswar is entered through the only torana so far known in the temples of Bhubaneswar.

2. The Jagamohan of the Lingaraja temple of Bhubaneswar has two balustraded windows, a feature which is unique to Orissa.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 28

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

Consider the following statements:

1. In the first general elections, the Communist Party of India contested half of the seats of Lok Sabha.
2. The Swatantra Party won one-fifth of the seats in Lok Sabha in 1962 general elections

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 1

Solution:

QUESTION: 30

When the decision to convene the first session of the Constituent Assembly was announced

1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha became the provisional president of the Assembly.
2. The invitation letters to attend the Assembly were issued by the ' Viceroy, Lord Waved.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 31

Among the following, who was the first to be the Chairman of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research ?

A.

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

B.

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

C.

Maulana Abul. Kalam And

D.

Lal Bahadur Shastri

Solution:

QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements :

1. The First Amendment to the Constitution of India was made in 1955.

2. The First Amendment to the Constitution of India made some changes in Articles 15, 19 and 31.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/arc correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 33

During. Mughal period, who were the Gilkars ?

A.

Tiller of the soil .

B.

Cotton and silk weavers

C.

Workers in lime

D.

Confectioners

Solution:

QUESTION: 34

Consider the following statements : ‘Vulcanicity‘ refers to

i. all those processes in which molten rock material or magma rises into the crust
ii. the greater bulk of the volcanic rocks of the earth’s surface were erupted from volcanoes
iii. the process of solidification of rock into crystalline or semicrystalline form from molten rock material after being poured out on the surface

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i and ii

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iii

Solution:

QUESTION: 35

Match List-I (Characteristic of Weathering) with List- II (Relationship of Various Aspects of Weathering) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

i. the sky does not appear in the scene
ii. the camera axis is held perpendicular to horizon
iii. the area covered in the image is relatively small

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

i and ii

B.

i and iii

C.

only ii

D.

only iii

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following landform characteristics:

i. Stream divides are sharp and ridge like resulting in a minimum of inter stream uplands
ii. Extensive areas are at or near the base level of erosion
iii. There are a few consequent trunk streams but few large tributaries. Numerous short tributaries and gullies are extending themselves by head ward erosion and developing valley systems

Q. Which one of the following is the orderly sequence of landform characteristics given above in an idealized Fluvial Cycle?

A.

i, iii, ii

B.

ii, iii, i

C.

iii, i, ii

D.

ii, i, iii

Solution:

QUESTION: 38

Which one of the following provides the force needed to drive the atmospheric circulation?

A.

Higher biotic content of the tropical latitudes and lower biotic content of the polar latitudes

B.

The energy contrasts between high insulation tropical latitudes and the low isolation polar latitudes

Sedimentary rocks are formed when sediments become compressed and cemented together in a process known as :

A.

Crystallisation

B.

Sedimentation

C.

Solidification

D.

Lithification

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

Consider the following statements :

Lerger bodies on intrusive rocks called batholiths are
i. very commonly formed of granites though not invariably
ii. lens shaped masses of rock occupying the saddles of anticlines or the keels of synclines of mountains
iii. large dome shaped masses the sides of whose plunge steeply to unknown depths

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i and ii

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iii

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

Consider the following statement:

i. Natives of Andaman-Nicobar islands belong to Negrito races
ii. Tribals living in Central India belong to Mongoloid races
iii. Tribals living in the North-East India belong to the Negroid races
iv. Indo-Aryans belong to the Nordic races

Q. Which of the statements given is/are correct?

A.

i and ii

B.

ii and iii

C.

i and iv

D.

iii and iv

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Tribes belonging to which one of the following groups earn their livelihood through food-gathering and hunting?

A.

Bushman, Pigmy and Eskimo

B.

Masai, Kirghiz, and Boro

C.

Pigmy, Eskimo and Kirghiz

D.

Boro, Bushman and Masai

Solution:

QUESTION: 47

‘Amphibious’ wooden houses, floating on the canals,are foun in

A.

Bangkok

B.

Phnom Penh

C.

Vientiane

D.

Yangoon

Solution:

QUESTION: 48

Which one of the following is a land of geysers, hot springs, lava flows and snow-fields?

A.

Alaska

B.

Iceland

C.

Ireland

D.

Finland

Solution:

QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements regarding peninsular India:

i. It is largely composed to Achaean crystalline rocks
ii. Most of the mountains here are of relict type
iii. the interior parts have post-cambrian marine deposits
iv. Deccan basalts are formed at the end of cretaceous

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

i, ii, iii and iv

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

iii and iv

D.

i and ii

Solution:

QUESTION: 50

Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The Apline vegetation in the eastern Himalayas is found up to greater altitudes than the Western Himalayas because

A.

the eastern Himalayas are higher than the western Himalay

B.

the eastern Himalayas are nearer to the equator and sea coast than the western Himalayas

C.

the eastern Himalayas receive more rainfall than the western Himalayas

D.

the eastern Himalayas soils are

Solution:

QUESTION: 51

The irregularity in the amount of rainfall in different parts of the nort Indian plains is mainly due to

A.

Irregular intensity of low pressure in the northwestern parts of India

B.

Variation in the location of the axis of low pressure trough

C.

Difference in frequency of cyclones

D.

Variation in the amount of moisture carried by winds every year

Solution:

QUESTION: 52

Which one of the following is correct sequence of the stratigraphy in India from oldest to the youngest?

i. The coastal area between the Eastern Ghats and the bay of Bengal is narrower than the coastal area between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea
ii. The Indus rises near Mansarovar in Tibet and finally falls in the Arabian Sea near Karachi

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

i only

B.

ii only

C.

Both i and ii

D.

Neither i nor ii

Solution:

QUESTION: 54

Consider the following statements :

1. Contour ploughing promotes soil erosion and the formation of gullies
2. Gully erosion is the removal of top soil and creation of many steep sided cuttings in a hillside

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 55

Match List-I (Region of Dispersed Rural Settlement) with List-II (Associated Factor) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 56

Following four cities are located almost on 76°E longitude:

1. Indore
2. Solapur
3. Ludhinana
4. Jaipur

Which one of the folloiwng is the correct sequential order of the above cities from North to South if one travels almost parallel along that longitude?

A.

4, 1, 3, 2,

B.

3, 4, 1, 2

C.

2, 3, 1, 4

D.

3, 4, 2, 1

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Travelling from the equator towards pole, what would be the correct sequence of vegetation types you would encounter?

The French President Emmanuel Macron cochaired with PM Modi first International Solar Alliance Summit.

B.

The Joint Vision Statement on the Indian Ocean Region is clearly aimed at countering China's growing presence in the region

C.

International Solar Alliance, recommitment to starting the Jaitapur nuclear power plant, and joint ventures on climate change cooperation prove cooperation among India and France to avert climate change.

D.

By bringing 51 countries into the ISA, India and France are proposing an alternative leadership model for the less developed world, challenging the geopolitical power structure configured around fossil-fuel energy resources.

Solution:

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following:

I. The founding ceremony of the International Solar Alliance was held in New Delhi on March 11, 2018.

II. The Founding Conference was co-chaired by Mr. Modi and French President Emmanuel Macron.

III. India announced one of the world's largest investment plans in solar energy with the $1.4 billion line of credit will cover 27 projects in 15 countries and boost the much-required financial power to the solar sector.

IV. France was committed to providing an additional euro 500 million in loans and support by 2022 to emerging economies for solar energy projects.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

I, II, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following regarding elections in Russia is not true?

A.

Mr Putin got more than 76.6 % of the vote

B.

He is the President of Russia for the fourth time.

C.

In Russia, President holds the executive power and even appoints the Prime Minister of the country on the basis of his discretion.

D.

Pavel Grudinin stood second with 20.4 per cent of votes.

Solution:

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following is true of e-way bill?

I. Under the e-way bill system, goods worth more than Rs. 50,000 have to be pre-registered online before they can be moved from one state to another.

II. An e-way bill is an electric-way bill for the movement of goods which can be generated on the GSTN (common portal).

III. It will be allowed to be generated or cancelled through SMS.

IV. A registered person or transporter can choose to generate and carry eway bill even of the value of goods is less than Rs 50,000.

A.

I, II, III

B.

I, II, III, IV

C.

II, III, IV

D.

I, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Consider the following regarding 20 : 80 gold import scheme:

I. In response to a stressed current account deficit in 2012-13 due to a surge in gold imports, the government at the time introduced an import scheme in 2013, which mandated that 20% of all gold imports would have to be exported.

II. At the time of its implementation, the 20:80 scheme was open only to banks and to public sector companies such as the Metals and Minerals Trading Corporation and the State Trading Corporation of India.

III. In May 2014, the RBI in consultation with the government widened the scheme to also allow Premium Trading Houses (PTH) and Star Trading Houses (STH), both private sector entities, to import gold.

IV. The government on November 28, 2014 scrapped the 20:80 scheme and removed all restrictions on gold imports.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

I, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 64

Consider the following:

I. The Reserve Bank of India?s decision to ban Letters of Undertaking (LoUs) will raise costs for importers and will hurt export competitiveness.

II. Importers, through the route of LoU, they were availing dollar funding which was cheaper than rupee funding.

III. LoUs are the cheapest source of funding as it isprices 20-30 bps above the LIBOR, typically three or six month.

IV.The total cost is around 2.3% which is much lower than any rupee loan product which are over 6%.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct.

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following is not true of Banks Board Bureau?

A.

Having begun functioning from April 1, 2016, BBB was seen as step towards governance reforms in public sector banks as recommended by the P.J. Nayak Committee.

B.

The BBB is a body of 'eminent' professionals and consists of three government official

C.

It is a six-member body with at least three former bankers, two professionals and secretary, department of financial services representing government.

D.

Vinod Rai, the veteran CAG, has been appointed as head of the BBB.

Solution:

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) will hold investment in public-sector banks on behalf of the government.

B.

The BBB will hold investment in public-sector banks on behalf of the government.

C.

The BBB will advise banks on the ways of disbursing fund.

D.

It will also guide banks on mergers and consolidations.

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

The Payment of Gratuity (Amendment) Bill, 2018 has been passed by parliament. The bill ensures harmony amongst employees in the private sector and Public-Sector Undertakings/ Autonomous Organizations under Government who are not covered under CCS (Pension) Rules.

B.

These employees will be entitled to receive higher amount of gratuity at par with their counterparts in Government sector.

C.

The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 applies to establishments employing 20 or more persons.

D.

The present upper ceiling on gratuity amount under the Act is Rs. 10 Lakh.

Solution:

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following is not one of the Aims of defence policy?

A.

The policy says the vision is to make India among the top five countries of the world in the aerospace and defence industries, with the active participation of the public and private sectors, fulfilling the objective of self-reliance as well as the demand of other friendly countries.

I. SHG members are producing various kinds of agricultural and non-agricultural/handicraft products but face problems in marketing their produce. In order to promote marketing of the products of these SHG women, Ministry of Rural Development has been supporting organisation of exhibitionsunder the brand name of SARAS where Self Help Groups from different states participate to exhibit and sell their products.

II. At present, two SARAS Fairs in State are sponsored by the Ministry in each state during a financial year by way of providing assistance upto Rs 40.00 lakh per fair in Metropolitan cities(Bangalore, Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Hyderabad) and upto Rs 35.00 lakhs per fair in nonMetropolitan cities.

Neutrinos are tiny particles, almost massless, that travel at near light speeds and carry no charge.

C.

Born from violent astrophysical events such as exploding stars and gamma-ray bursts, neutrinos are abundant in the universe, and can move as easily through matter as we move through air. They are notoriously difficult to track down.

D.

If one hold his hand towards the sunlight for one second, about a billion neutrinos from the sun will pass through it; this is because they are the by-products of nuclear fusion in the sun.

Solution:

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

Interaction of hydrogen or deuterium gas with metals such as palladium, zirconium and nickel is claimed to set off a nuclear reaction at lower temperature, releasing energy

B.

First claim was made in 1969 by Martin Fleischmann and Stanley Pons at the University of Utah

C.

Gained attention for being a way to produce clean energy

D.

Researchers work on a cold fusion reactor at the Energy Research Centre at S-Vyasa University, Bangalure.

II. Data from a band of Indian remote sensing satellites will be available to the European Copernicus programme while designated Indian institutional users will in return get to access free data from Europe?s six Sentinel satellites and those of other space agencies that are part of the programme, at their cost.

III. Under this arrangement, the European Commission intends to provide India with free, full and open access to the data from the Copernicus Sentinel family of satellites using high bandwidth connections

IV. Reciprocally the Department of Space will provide the Copernicus programme and its participating states with a free, full and open access to the data from ISRO?s land, ocean and atmospheric series of civilian satellites (Oceansat-2, Megha- Tropiques, Scatsat-1, SARAL, INSAT-3D, INSAT- 3DR) with the exception of commercial highresolution satellites data.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.

I, II, III

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

Solution:

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements:

I. Psychographics refers to psychological profiling of target groups that helps to understand them better so corporates can make better sales pitches for their products, and governments can tailor their schemes and customize political campaigns.

II. Psychographics analyses lifestyle and it is a routine market research tool.

III. At the periphery of the global noise around Facebook lies a study that was published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences in 2013. It showed that if you had enough data, just based on the 'Likes', you could predict sensitive personal attributes, including political views, fairly accurately.

Q. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.

I, II

B.

II, III

C.

I, III

D.

I, II, III

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements:

1. The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945.

2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945.

3. The Trusteeship council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

2 only

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 only

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?

Q. Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 3 and 4

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A.

Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration.

B.

Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India

C.

Maharasthra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.

D.

Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

Virtual water trade is being looked at by the experts as a solution to the world’s water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?

A.

Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water

B.

Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service

C.

Volume of water saved by using rain water harvesting

D.

Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control

Solution:

QUESTION: 80

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?

A.

Kochi – Kolkata – Delhi – Patna

B.

Kolkata – Kochi – Patna – Delhi

C.

Kochi – Kolkata – Patna – Delhi

D.

Kolkata – Kochi – Delhi – Patna

Solution:

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements :

1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low-income countries facing high level of indebtedness.

2. Singapore Regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macroeconomic analysis and policy, and related subjects as a part of programme of the IMF Institute

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements :

1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

only 1

B.

only 2

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements :

1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.

2. The Council of the federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.

3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1 and 2

C.

2 and 3

D.

1 only

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements :

1. A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.

2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noisewhich are generally frequency variations can do little harm.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements :

1. The axis of the earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 23 and half to the geographic axis of the earth.
2. The earth’s magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South India.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

2 and 3

C.

2 only

D.

3 only

Solution:

QUESTION: 86

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A.

Arjun : Indigenously produced Main Battle Tank (MBT)

B.

Phalcon : Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India

C.

Saras : Indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft

D.

Operation Seabird : New Indian Naval Base at Karwar

Solution:

QUESTION: 87

Match List-I (Power Station) List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements :

1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer.
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

1 only

D.

3 only

Solution:

QUESTION: 89

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth’s land?

A.

North America – Africa – South America – Europe

B.

Africa – North America – South America – Europe

C.

North America – Africa – Europe – South America

D.

Africa – North America – Europe – South America

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

Match List-I (Country) List-II (Name of Parliament) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 91

For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an offcial language?

A.

Chile

B.

Colombia

C.

Republic of Congo

D.

Cuba

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

Match List-I (National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary) List- II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Solution:

QUESTION: 93

What is true TRAPPIST-I

I. Astronomers from NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) for the first time have discovered seven new Earth-sized exoplanets that may be able to sustain life. Of the seven planets, three are classified as TRAPPIST-1 e, f and g.

II. These three planets orbit in the habitable (socalled Goldilocks zone) where temperatures are suited to surface oceans of liquid water.

II. The star Trappist-1 is at least 500 million years old and has a temperature of 1000K.

IV. It is marginally larger than Jupiter and shines with a feeble light about 2,000 times fainter than Earth’s sun.

Q. Which of the above statement is correct?

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II, III, IV

D.

I, II, III

Solution:

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements:

I. Botnet is a network of private computers infected with malicious software and controlled as a group without the owners’ knowledge.

II. Such infected computer is referred to as a zignet.

III. It is used to steal data, send spam and it is a combination of the words robot and network.

IV. It is an umbrella term used to refer to a variety of forms of hostile or intrusive malicious softwares including computer viruses, worms, trojan horses, spyware, ransomware, adware, scareware etc.

Q. Which of the above statement is correct?

A.

I, II, III, IV

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II, III, IV

D.

I, II, III

Solution:

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

Scientists from Australia’s Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO) have made world’s strongest material graphene commercially more viable by using soybean.

B.

It is the world’s strongest and heaviest known material derived from carbon.

C.

It is used in many applications ranging from miniaturised electronics to biomedical devices, water filtration and purification, renewable energy, sensors, personalised healthcare and medicine etc.

D.

It also used to improve battery performance in energy devices, to cheaper solar panels.

Solution:

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following is true of Thubber?

A.

It is an electrically insulating composite material that exhibits an unprecedented combination of metal-like thermal conductivity, elasticity similar to soft, biological tissue.

B.

Thubber consists of a soft elastomer with nontoxic, liquid metal microdroplets suspended within it. This semi-liquid state allows the metal to deform with the surrounding rubber at room temperature.

C.

When it is pre-stretched at room temperature, it stretches up to ten times its initial length.

D.

In developing wearable computing and soft robotics, industries like athletic wear and sports medicine and in advanced manufacturing, energy, and transportation etc

Solution:

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

Researchers from MIT have developed a small battery that runs on carbolic acids and is capable of powering e-pills to monitor patient health.

B.

For this battery, researchers used idea of very simple type of voltaic cell, lemon battery which produces electric current between the two electrodes stuck in a lemon due to its citric acid.

C.

It can generate enough energy to power a commercial temperature sensor and a 900- megahertz transmitter to wirelessly transmit the data to a base station located 2m away, with a signal sent every 12 seconds.

D.

The current prototype of the device is a cylinder about 12 millimeters in diameter and 40 millimeters long

Solution:

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

Scientists from Japan have developed terahertz (THz) transmitter technology, a next generation system which can transmit digital data over 10 times faster than 4G mobile networks.

B.

It will pave transmitting digital data at a rate exceeding 100 gigabits per second (gbps) over a single channel using the 300-gigahertz band.

C.

The THz band is a new and vast frequency resource expected to be used for future ultrahighspeed wireless communications.

D.

The THz transmitter achieves a communication speed of 105 gigabits per second using the frequency range from 290 GHz to 315 GHz.

Solution:

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following is true?

I. Scientists from US and India have found that consumption of litchi fruit on an empty stomach can result in very low blood glucose level and acute encephalopathy leading to seizures and coma, and causes death in Children in many cases.

III. Outbreaks of high fever followed by seizures and death in young children were reported in poor socioeconomic backgrounds in rural Muzaffarpur in Bihar and other litchi-growing regions in India due to consumption of unripe lychees on an empty stomach.

Q. Which of the above is correct?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

I, II, III

D.

I and III

Solution:

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following is not correct?

A.

The world’s first robot table tennis tutor named EUFORUS in Japan has set a new Guinness World Record for its uncanny ability of being able to play the game better than most humans.

B.

It has been given the Guinness title for its unique technological intelligence and educational capabilities. FORPHEUS stands for Future Omron Robotics Technology for Exploring Possibility of Harmonised aUtomation with Sinic Theoretics.

C.

Its goal is to harmonise humans and robots, by way of teaching the game of table tennis to human players.

D.

It has cutting-edge vision and motion sensors which it uses to gage movement during a match.