Could someone automatically remarry after being separated, or when the other spouse had been “absent”, for several years? There are a number of questions along this line that were posted in the Forum. While there’s already an initial discussion on this, the question keeps cropping up, so let’s put this issue to rest once and for all.

The confusion appears to be based on Article 83 of the Civil Code, which reads:

Art. 83. Any marriage subsequently contracted by any person during the lifetime of the first spouse of such person with any other person other than such first spouse shall be illegal and void from its performance, unless:
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(2) The first spouse had been absent for seven consecutive years at the time of the second marriage without the spouse present having news of the absentee being alive, or if the absentee, though he has been absent for less than seven years, is generally considered as dead and believed to be so by the spouse present at the time of the contracting such subsequent marriage, or if the absentee is presumed dead according to articles 390 and 391. The marriage so contracted shall be valid in any of the three cases until declared null and void by a competent court.

If you stumbled on this provision, you may have this idea that a spouse can remarry even without securing a judicial declaration of presumptive death. In other words, there is NO need to go to court and it’s enough that any of the following circumstances is present: (a) there be no news that such absentee is still alive; (b) the absentee is generally considered to be dead and believed to be so by the spouse present; and (c) the absentee is presumed dead under Article 390 and 391 of the Civil Code.

This understanding would have been correct, except that Article 83 of the Civil Code was superseded by the Family Code, which now provides:

Art. 41. A marriage contracted by any person during the subsistence of a previous marriage shall be null and void, unless before the celebration of the subsequent marriage, the prior spouse had been absent for four consecutive years and the spouse present had a well-founded belief that the absent spouse was already dead. In case of disappearance where there is danger of death under the circumstances set forth in the provision of Article 391 of the Civil Code, an absence of only two years shall be sufficient.

For the purpose of contracting the subsequent marriage under the preceding paragraph, the spouse present must institute a summary proceeding as provided in this Code for the declaration of presumptive death of the absentee, without prejudice to the effect of reappearance of the absent spouse.

As the law now stands, a married person must, for purposes of remarriage, file the necessary action in court and ask for a declaration of presumptive death of the “absent” spouse. The crucial differences under the Civil Code and Family Code provisions are:

1. Under the Family Code, the time required for the presumption to arise has been shortened to 4 years.

2. Under the Family Code, there is need for a judicial declaration of presumptive death to enable the spouse present to remarry.

3. Under the Family Code, a stricter standard is imposed: there must be a “well founded belief” that the absentee is already dead before a petition for declaration of presumptive death can be granted. A married person must conduct a search for his missing spouse with such diligence as to give rise to a “well-founded belief” that he/she is dead.

If you need an extended discussion on declaration of presumptive death, please click here to read the previous article entitled: “Presumptive death of a spouse for subsequent marriage.” On the other hand, just to be clear: no matter how long a spouse is “absent”, the present spouse CANNOT remarry unless there is a judicial declaration of presumptive death. (Reference: Republic vs. Nolasco, G.R. No. 94053, 17 March 1993)

My girlfriend is living apart from her husband for a few months. He cheated on her and uses her for personal favors, and then goes back to the other woman. They have three children together, she has the baby, and he has the other two, aged 7 and 10. Neither she, nor I can afford annulment of her marriage at this stage. I have already proposed and she said yes. What can we do in order to make our marriage in the Philippines legal?

Hi sir,
I just want to ask if a married woman can still share the property of her husband even if they were physically not being together for over 20 years, no kids at all. After they get married the man went to abroad and never return. Lately my Aunt was able to contact the family of her husband and said that the guy has his own family now. My aunt has kids but not married again.

My Philippine “wife” has a document showing she is legally separated from her Philippine husband. She “married” me in the U.S. Is this “marriage” valid. I am suing her on the basis of fraud and bigamy, because I have recent photos showing her embracing her Philippine husband. I also have testimony from her sister that they are still married and her husband has written that he is married. I am now assuming the document she possesses has been forged. About one month before we “married” she was married to another American man. So, she probably committed bigamy in both instances unless legal separation is valid. I would be most grateful if you would share your thoughts.

good day!
iam married for 35yrs in civil court,my husband previously married in a civil court also in his first marriage he use his name which is not on his birhcertificate because the reason of his parents he became sickly during his younger days and he thought it was his real name,my husband left his first wife to work in manila .He sent money ,letters monthly but he never recieved any reply then he stop sending any support.After 4yrs.of no communication with his first wife we got married and we present our birthcertificate one of requirement and we found out his real name and and from our marriage until today all his documents he use his real name.My question is which marriage is valid his first or our marrige