In particular, cum with the Subjunctive was used in narrative (hence the past tenses, Imperfect and Pluperfect) as a descriptive clause of time. As, however, the present participle in Latin is restricted in its use and the perfect active participle is almost wholly lacking, the historical or narrative cum-clause came into extensive use to supply the deficiency.

I'm no expert by any means, so take this with a handful of salt, but I did a quick search for cum with a participle and didn't find anything. This above statement seems to indicate that cum is used in a participial manner, so adding a participle would be redundant.

Is this a part from a larger frase or not? because is very important to know this. Cum, as far as we all know cannot be something else than a conjonction or preposition. But her is non of this...Hm, this is quite a dillema!

I asked this question because Stoopib (in a post above mine) said that the teacher wanted the answer in a participial phrase using 'cum.'

PS As to fierywrath, I do not appreciate your comments. I've seen a few of your replies in this tone. If you enjoy being a jerk, go elsewhere. I recommend one of those video game forums where people use the word 'dude' copiously and talk about level seven of Dungeon Raider 10.

I think fierywrath's point was that participial phrases are more versatile in Greek. Having never studied the language, though, I'm basing the statement on hearsay and (a notoriously unreliable) memory.

wouldn't the pres. part. iungens refer to an action contemporaneous with the main verb? So wouldn't using cum with the indicative form of the verb to describe the precise time of action be kind of redundant? just a question, as I don't really, know either.

I don't think so... unless you are using an ablative absolute, I guess you must let your participle agree with the noun that it modifies? In this case there is no such noun available in this sentense?

Deudeditus wrote:wouldn't the pres. part. iungens refer to an action contemporaneous with the main verb? So wouldn't using cum with the indicative form of the verb to describe the precise time of action be kind of redundant? just a question, as I don't really, know either.