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Saturday, June 17, 2006

I was wondering exactly where the "harm none" interpretation of the Wiccan Rede began. I've read a few of the older books on Wicca (the Gardner, Valiente, and Farrar stuff), and haven't seen it there. I recently re-read Cunninghams "Guide for the Solitary Practitioner" and didn't see it there, either.

So where did this "harm none" misconception get started? Anyone have an idea?