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UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 3

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This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank.
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QUESTION: 1

Fresco paintings of Ajanta caves is the art of

A.

Rastrakutas

B.

Guptas

C.

Mauryas

D.

Kushans

Solution:

QUESTION: 2

Pallava Kings are remembered as the makers of rock-cut temples at

A.

Thanjavur

B.

Khajuraho

C.

Mahabalipuram

D.

Rameshwaram ​

Solution:

QUESTION: 3

Jama Masjid in Delhi was built by

A.

Shahjehan

B.

Humayun

C.

Jehangir

D.

Akbar ​

Solution:
Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan built the Jama Masjid between 1644 and 1656. It was constructed by more than 5000 workers. It was originally called Masjid-i-Jahan Numa, meaning 'mosque commanding view of the world'.

QUESTION: 4

Which of the undermentioned facts about Taj is not correct?

A.

It is situated outside the Agra Fort.

B.

The names of artisans who built it are engraved on it.

C.

It is a magnificent mausoleum.

D.

It was built by Shah Jahan. ​

Solution:

QUESTION: 5

Who was the Hindu king shown playing on the Veena, on ancient coins ?

A.

Shivaji

B.

Ashoka

C.

Samudragupta

D.

Vikramaditya

Solution:

Kumardevi and Chandragupta I

(Minted by their son Samudragupta)

335-370 AD

Gold Dinar

Weight: 7.8 gm

Obverse: King and queen

Reverse: Goddess Ambika (Durga) sitting on lion

QUESTION: 6

The famous bronze image of Nataraja is a fine example of

A.

Chola art

B.

Mauryan art

C.

Gandhara art

D.

Gupta art

Solution:

QUESTION: 7

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

A.

Satkarni : Kharavela

B.

Mandasor : Yasodharman

C.

Junagarh : Pushyamitra

D.

Allahabad Pillar : Samudragupta

Solution:

QUESTION: 8

An example of the Nagara style of architecture is provided by the

A.

Brihadeeswara Temple, Thanjavur

B.

Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

C.

Kailasnatha Temple, Kanchipuram

D.

Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar ​

Solution:

QUESTION: 9

The best specimen of the Mauryan art is represented in

A.

Stupas

B.

Chaityas

C.

Pillars

D.

Cave architecture ​

Solution:

QUESTION: 10

Which among the following dynasties were not patrons of temple architecture ?

A.

Chandellas of Bundelkhand

B.

Paramars of Malwa

C.

Yadavas of Devagiri

D.

Chalukyas of Gujarat

Solution:

QUESTION: 11

Which of the following forts was not built by Akbar ?

A.

Lahore Fort

B.

Agra Fort

C.

Allahabad Fort

D.

Gwalior Fort

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

The earliest known Pahari paintings are from

A.

Guler

B.

Chamba

C.

Kangra

D.

Basholi

Solution:
Maharaja Sansar Chand was an ardent devotee of Krishna and used to commission artists to paint subjects based on the loves and life of Krishna. The Guler-Kangra art is the art of drawing and the drawing is precise and fluid, lyrical and naturalistic.

QUESTION: 13

The rock-cut caves at Elephanta belong to the period of

A.

Vakatakas

B.

Chalukyas

C.

Rashtrakutas

D.

Satavahanas

Solution:

QUESTION: 14

The articles of the constitution which has a bearing on the rights of women are

1. Article 15
2. Article 42
3. Article 39
4. Article 123

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1 ,3 and 4 only

C.

2 ,3 and 4 only

D.

1 ,2, and 4 only ​

Solution:

Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth Article 39(d) – equal pay for equal work for men and women; Article 42 – To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief. Article 123 is related with ordinance making power of President and hence do not have any relation to rights of women.

QUESTION: 15

Which of the following is/are a part of the participatory development process?

1. State
2. NGOs
3. Pressure groups
4. Cooperatives

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1, 3 and 4 only

C.

2, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution:

In participatory development (PD), people are willingly involved in a wide range of development activities, as agents and beneficiaries of development. Participatory development seeks to engage local populations in development projects. It is clear from the definition of PD that NGOs, Pressure Groups, and Cooperatives are involved in it. There might be some confusion over how state is a part of PD. It is actually the state activity that can facilitate or hinder PD. If state does not allow NGOs or pressure groups, how can they function? On the other hand, states through their policy and support can facilitate PD. In last few years, the role of the state in participatory development has changed: from the reconstruction and development programme to growth, employment and redistribution.

QUESTION: 16

With reference to regionalism, consider the following statements:

1. Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force.
2. Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

Regionalism is not necessarily bad. Not all forms of regionalism are against national unity or nationalism. Regionalism can and has existed within the larger framework of nationalism. In this respect, regionalism has helped various regions put their demands before the central leadership. Regionalism is very much conducive to the idea of federalism. Both are helpful in governing large and diverse countries like India. However, at times regionalism has taken forms of secessionism, which goes against national unity. Similarly, at times it has also given rise to hatred among ethnic groups which disturbs national unity and harmony.

Policy implementation and socio -economic development is understood. Some might think how policy making is a role of civil servants. Remember, policies are made on the basis of information and expert knowledge. Civil servants on account of their information and expertise advise politicians on policy making. In reality, its the civil servants that make policies. They can conceal or exaggerate information to drive policy in a particular direction.

QUESTION: 18

The collegiums system of appointment of judges has been criticized on the basis that it leads to

In the collegiums system, Judges appoint judges and there is no role of executive. So, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect. It has been argued that the collegiums system has lead to submissiveness of the puisne judges as they may not want to go against their senior judges who may appoint them to higher positions later. Context – This has been in news throughout 2014.

QUESTION: 19

The Election process in India follows the First past the post (FPTP) system. THE FPTP system offers many advantages like

1. providing a proportionate outcome of seats based on votes.
2. less wastage of votes.
3. establishing a clear link between representatives and constituencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

3 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Solution:

The first two statements are actually the demerits of the FPTP system. There is a mismatch between seat share and vote share. With only a few percent increases in vote share the seats can increase drastically. Votes polled in excess of the votes required to win and those polled for losing candidates are in a sense wasted. Candidates win even after securing as low as 20% votes. However, FPTP system helps establish a clear link between constituency and representative. People know before elections who will represent their constituency.

QUESTION: 20

With reference to government and governance, consider the following statements:

1. Government is the structure while governance is a process.
2. There can be governance without a government.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

Governance is what government does. Governance happens everywhere and involves business and markets, Pressure groups and NGOs etc. So, there can be governance without government.

QUESTION: 21

Apart from law making, Indian parliament also performs the function of

Parliament provides a mechanism to represent people in rule making. They act as checks and balances to the executive power – e.g. any law proposed by government has to passed in parliament; it examines demands for grants, scrutinizes expenditure etc. In this way, it provides legitimacy to a government – making people see the government as ruling in their favour.

QUESTION: 22

The major benefits of federalism is/are

1. it helps in quick decision making.
2. it gives voice to regional interests.
3. it creates a network of checks and balances.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Solution:

Federalism divides the government power between centre and state. At times there may be disagreements between central and state government (e.g. the case of GST). This actually hinders quick decision making. Federalism brings government closer to people helping regional issues gain prominence thus giving voice to regional interests. By dividing government power, it creates a network of checks and balances.

QUESTION: 23

The office of the registrar general and census commissioner conducts the census in India. It is under which ministry / body?

A.

MOSPI

B.

Ministry of Home Affairs

C.

PMO

D.

Planning Commission ​

Solution:

Most people would have thought the answer as MOSPI, because that deals with statistics. The registrar general and census commissioner being under ministry of home affairs would have come to you as a surprise.

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following statements :

1. The rural decadal growth rate of population is more than that of urban areas.
2. The contribution of rural and urban areas to the total increase in population is nearly equal.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

Now most of us have this idea that in rural areas people tend to have more children compared to urban areas, so statement 1 might look true. But it is not. The urban decadal growth rate of population is more than that of rural areas. This is because urbanization is increasing. More and more areas are coming under the definition of “urban areas”. There is no point in memorizing how much is urban decadal growth rate and how much is rural one. As I said data/facts are not important, but trends are. The second statement is also true. The contribution of rural and urban areas to the total increase in population is nearly equal – 91 million.

QUESTION: 25

Consider the following states:

1. Bihar
2. West Bengal
3. Delhi

Q. Which of the following is the correct sequence in terms of population density?

A.

1 > 2 > 3

B.

3 > 1 > 2

C.

3 > 2 > 1

D.

1 > 3 > 2 ​

Solution:

Delhi should be the first and most of you will know this. Even if you didn’t, it’s not hard to figure out that Delhi being quite small in area compared to states, and having a large population (with all those migration) will surely have the highest population density. Now, before 2011 census, WB was the state that had the second highest population density. This changed after the census 2011 report and Bihar overtook WB.

QUESTION: 26

The child sex ratio takes into account which of the following age groups?

A.

0-1 year

B.

0-5 years

C.

0-6 years

D.

0-12 years

Solution:

The Census definition of child is one who is between 0 to 6 years of age.

QUESTION: 27

Which of the following about Uttar Pradesh is/are correct?

1. UP has the highest rural population.
2. UP has the highest scheduled caste population.
3. UP has the highest scheduled tribe population.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

This question might look a bit tough and irrelevant. You are surely not expected to remember the highest and lowest data of various population groups. However, you can get the right answer by elimination. The underlying fact is that scheduled tribes are highest in those states where there are large forest areas. UP certainly don’t have that. Infact, UP has a marginal population of ST. So, eliminate the 3rd statement and you get your ans. UP has largest rural and SC population.

QUESTION: 28

In the socio economic and caste census, some households will have the highest priority for inclusion in the BPL list. These include

Socio economic and caste census is being conducted the first time in India. It will be undertaken through a comprehensive door to door enumeration across the country to enumerate castes along with socio-economic data. SECC paves the way to identify the households living below the poverty line in rural and urban areas of the country. The following households will have the highest priority for inclusion in the BPL list.
(a) Households without shelter
(b) destitute/living on alms
(c) Manual scavengers
(d) Primitive Tribal Groups
(e) Legally released bonded laborers

Merely being an SC/ST household does not mean belonging to BPL. There are many wealthy among them too. So, including them in the priority group does not make sense.

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following is/are correct according to the definitions used in the census 2011?

1. Adolescents are those in the age group of 10-19 years.
2. Youth are those in the age group of 15-35 years.
3. Sex ratio is the number of men per thousand women.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Adolescents are those in the age group of 10-19 years. Youth are those in the age group of 15-24 years. Sex ratio is the number of women per thousand men.

QUESTION: 30

Other than conducting census, the office of the registrar general and census commissioner performs which function?

A.

Registration of marriages.

B.

Registration of births and deaths

C.

both (a) and (b

D.

none

Solution:

Since its the other function of the office of the registrar general and census commissioner, it’s important that you know it. In this question, even if you didn’t know the answer, you could apply your knowledge of current affairs. In India, we do not have a uniform civil code. This matter keeps coming up in the newspapers, and we read articles about minorities having their separate personal laws.

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements :

1. This is the first time since independence that the decadal growth rate of population has declined.
2. Workers (in census 2011) are those who have worked for atleast one day during the reference year.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

Now most people would think that our population growth rate has started declining recently and so statement 1 might be correct. However, the fact is the decadal growth rate saw a decline first in 1981 after independence. This is the 4th time we are witnessing a decline. Statement 2 is correct. Workers are those who have worked for atleast one day during the reference year.

QUESTION: 32

In India, which of the following is/are a mechanism of deficit financing?

Deficit financing is a method of meeting government deficits through the creation of new money. The deficit is the gap caused by the excess of government expenditure over its receipts. Deficit financing in India is done by – 1. Withdrawal of past accumulated cash balances 2. Borrowing from RBI 3. Issuing fresh currency notes. Borrowing from commercial banks is not a part of deficit banking.

QUESTION: 33

International Development Association (IDA) is called the ‘soft’ window of the World Bank (WB) because

A.

it lends for software and It development

B.

taking loans from it is very easy

C.

its loans are interest free

D.

none

Solution:

Very important point to remember about IDA. Its loans are interest free (only administrative cost is charged). Further, the repayment period is very long like 35-40 years and the repayment starts after 10 years of taking loans. This way, it helps the developing countries to focus on development without worrying about paying back of loan quickly.

Simple question. Building roads, grants-in-aid is part of development expenditure. Money spent on servicing debt would not lead to development hence 2 is not part of development expenditure.

QUESTION: 35

With reference to narrow money, consider the following statements :

1. They are highly liquid.
2. Banks run their lending programme mainly with this money.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Narrow money = currency with public + demand deposit with banks + “other’ deposits with RBI. It is denoted by M1. It is highly liquid. Now, banks cannot carry their lending progam with such highly liquid money as they have to return it pay when required by depositor. For eg. demand deposit is a part of M1. Banks have to return the demand deposit immediately if the depositor demands it. But if bank had lent that money to others, it cannot return it. So, the lending program is mainly carried by such money which is less liquid, like broad money (M3). So, statement 2 is incorrect.

QUESTION: 36

100 people went for a job in a company. The company told them that while there is a vacancy, none of them posses the skill required for the job. What kind of unemployment would this be called?

A.

disguised unemployment

B.

structural unemployment

C.

cyclical unemployment

D.

none

Solution:

Structural unemployment is a category of unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers in the market. So when people cannot be employed because they do not possess the requisite skills it is called structural unemployment.

CDS is a tool to transfer and manage credit risk. If giving credit (like lending) is made less risky by CDS, it would definitely increase the investor’s interest thus enhancing investment opportunities. So statement 1 and 2 are correct. CDS does not waive off loans, it just redistributes the risk of lending. Eliminating statement 3 as any kind of loan waiver is never good for economy.

QUESTION: 38

Twin deficit in a economy means

A.

high current account deficit and high fiscal deficit.

B.

high capital account deficit and high fiscal deficit.

C.

high current account deficit and high capital account deficit.

D.

high budget deficit and high fiscal deficit.

Solution:

Economies that have both a fiscal deficit and a current account deficit are often referred to as having “twin deficits.” Higher twin deficit is inherently destabilizing and was the primary reason why India faced a currency crisis back in 1991. Higher current account deficit means higher demand for foreign currency, which results in depreciation of the domestic currency. It also discourages capital inflow and leads to capital flight from the country. Higher fiscal deficit, apart from affecting savings and growth, affects business confidence.

QUESTION: 39

The current account of the balance of payments (BoP) includes

1. foreign aid.
2. foreign institutional investments.
3. remittances.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

3 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Solution:

Foreign institutional investment (FII) are part of capital account. Remittances and foreign aid (under the heading of transfers) come under current account.

MSP is fixed by the central govt (CG) on the recommendations of the Commission on Agricultural Cost and Prices (CAPC). FRP is fo sugar, which is fixed by the central government. Its normally higher than MSP, but serves the same purpose of providing a guarantee to sugarcane farmers that their produce will be bought at a given price. FRP is the existing arrangement for the price to be paid to sugarcane farmers by the Sugar Mills and is is announced each year by the Centre, under the Sugarcane Control Order and on the advice of Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), as the minimum price of sugarcane. However, many states in north India also announce a State Advised Price (SAP) under state legislation. Generally, the SAP is substantially higher than the FRP, and therefore wherever SAP is declared, it is the ruling price. Mill owners are obligated to pay SAP to farmers. MRP is fixed by manufacturers. However, government can play a regulatory and advisory role in fixing of MRP.

QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statements about Securities Transaction Tax (STT)

1. The point of incidence and impact of STT is not same.
2. Government securities are exempted from STT.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

The first statement might look a bit complicated to understand. But essential what it is saying is that STT is an indirect tax, which is incorrect as STT is a direct tax. An indirect tax is whose point of incidence (i.e where it is applied) and impact (those who are affected by it) is not same, like VAT. In VAT, it seems that producers, wholesalers, retailers are paying the tax, but actually its the consumer who in getting impacted. But in case of direct tax both point of incidence and impact is same, like income tax, STT etc.

QUESTION: 42

Methane (CH4) is one of the six greenhouse gases under the Kyoto protocol. Which of the following is/are sources of methane?

1. combustion of fossil fuels
2. wetlands
3. automobiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

All three are sources of methane. Natural gas and petroleum systems are one of the largest source of CH4 emissions. Methane is the primary component of natural gas. Some CH4 is emitted to the atmosphere during the production, processing, storage, transmission, and distribution of natural gas. Methane emissions from passenger cars (automobiles) have however dropped, as the use of catalytic converters increased. Methane is generated in landfills as waste decomposes and in the treatment of wastewater. As one of the most significant natural sources of atmospheric methane, wetlands remain a major area of concern with respect to climate change.

The Basel Convention is for the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. It was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). It does not, however, address the movement of radioactive waste. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

QUESTION: 44

In context of environment, the term “dirty dozen” refers to

A.

12 most harmful greenhouse gases

B.

12 ozone depleting substances

C.

12 persistent organic pollutants

D.

none of the above

Solution:

These were the 12 initial compounds that were listed under the Stockholm convention.

QUESTION: 45

A biofertilizer helps in increasing the supply of primary nutrients to plants. Which of the following is/are examples of biofertilizers?

1. Azotobacter
2. Rhizobium
3. Azospirillium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Rhizobium is used for leguminous crops. Azotobacter can be used with crops like wheat, maize, mustard, cotton, potato and other vegetable crops. Azospirillum inoculations are recommended mainly for sorghum, millets, maize, sugarcane and wheat. Bio-fertilizers add nutrients through the natural processes of nitrogen fixation, solubilizing phosphorus, and stimulating plant growth through the synthesis of growth-promoting substances.

QUESTION: 46

Some regions are marked as ‘biodiversity hotspots’ on account of their endemism and threat. Which of the followng regions in India is/are a biodiversity hotspot?

A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria: 1. it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and 2. it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation. India has two BH – western ghats & eastern himalays.

QUESTION: 47

Atmospheric nitrogen can undergo nitrogen fixation by

1. cynabacteria
2. lightning
3. ultraviolet rays

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Nitrogen fixation (NF) is a process in which nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere is converted into ammonium (NH4+). Nitrogen fixation occurs naturally in the air by means of lightning. Biological nitrogen fixation is carried by cyanobacteria (e.g. the highly significant Trichodesmium and Cyanothece), green sulfur bacteria, Azotobacteraceae, rhizobia and Frankia. NF also takes place in presence of UV rays.

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following statements :

1. No human activity is allowed inside tiger reserves.
2. Tourism is allowed in national parks.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

The second statement is a simple fact, which you must know. A tiger reserve has two zones – core and buffer. In the buffer zone, human activity is allowed.

QUESTION: 49

With reference to oil spills, consider the following statements :

1. They make the water deficient in oxygen.
2. They can cause algal blooms.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Oil Spills make the water deficient in oxygen. This causes problem for the marine animals. Algal bloom is associated with eutrophication, and oil spills have no role here. On the contrary, oil spills kills algae. Spilled oil can harm the environment in several ways, including the physical damages that directly impact wildlife and their habitats (such as coating birds or mammals with a layer of oil), and the toxicity of the oil itself, which can poison exposed organisms.

QUESTION: 50

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for various categories of protected areas. These include:

Very important point to be remembered – biosphere reserves are created by merely a notification and they DO NOT require legislation. National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, tiger reserves, community reserves, conservation reserves are backed up by the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

QUESTION: 51

Increased level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere would impact the plants in many ways. These can be:

1. decrease in photosynthetic productivity of plants.
2. Proliferation of weeds.
3. Increase in number of insects and other pests.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Most of you might have marked statement 1 as correct. However, remember that increase in CO2 will increase photosynthesis. Increased CO2 concentration in the atmosphere may increase photosynthetic productivity of plants. This in turn produces more organic matter. It may seem a positive effect. But, 1. Weeds may proliferate rapidly and that too at the expense of useful plants. 2. Insects and other pests that feed on plants may also increase in number. 3. Survival of other organisms gets affected.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following saints belong to the nirguna sect?

1. Tulsidas
2. Ravidas
3. Kabir

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 ​

Solution:

The believer of Nirguna sect believes that the God is Absolute, abstract and has no form, incarnation etc. Clearly Tulsidas was not a nirguna as he wrote a lot on Ram. Ravidas and kabir were nirguna sect saints. Ravidas was a North Indian Guru mystic of the bhakti movement from Ramanandi Sampradaya and one of the direct disciples of Ramananda. He was active in the 15th century CE. Venerated in the region of Punjab, Uttar Pradesh as well as Maharashtra, his devotional songs and verses made a lasting impact upon the bhakti movement.

QUESTION: 53

The objective of the Public Safety bill, 1928 was to

A.

provide security to people.

B.

eradication of diseases.

C.

regulate hazardous industries.

D.

curb the activities of communist. ​

Solution:

The Public Safety bill, 1928 was passed to curb the activities of socialists and communists.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following is/are true about the Mauryan period?

1. grants of villages on religious grounds
2. large scale state sponsored trade
3. system of slavery

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 only

D.

1 and 3 only

Solution:

Slavery was there, although they were treated nicely. There is no evidence for large scale state sponsored trade. Grants of villages on religious grounds first started during the time of Satavahanas.

QUESTION: 55

With reference to Jainism, consider the following statements:

1. It rejects the concept of soul.
2. It denies the existence of a supreme being.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Jainism does not reject the concept of soul neither does it denies the existence of Supreme Being. It however does not attach any importance to them.

QUESTION: 56

With reference to doctrine of lapse, consider the following statements:

1. Dalhousie was the first to use it.
2. It helped expand the market of British goods in India

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

While Dalhousie used doctrine of lapse, he was not the first to use it. It was first articulated by the court of directors of east India Company in 1834. By bringing areas under the British control, doctrine of lapse helped expand the market of British goods in India.

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following movements witnessed a low participation of Muslims?

NCM went along with Khilafat movement and Hindus and Muslims both participated in large number. Swadeshi was in 1905, when Muslims mainly kept themselves away from movements against British. During QIM, many Muslim leaders were looking for a separate Pakistan and hence Muslims kept away from the movement.

QUESTION: 58

The Shimla Conference was called to discuss

A.

Rajaji formula

B.

Wavell Plan

C.

Cabinet mission plan

D.

Dickie bird plan ​

Solution:

The Simla Conference was a 1945 meeting between Viceroy and the major political leaders of India at Simla, India. Convened to agree on and approve the Wavell Plan for Indian self-government.

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following is/are true about the Mughal land revenue system?

1. It varied from region to region.
2. It varied according to the crop grown.
3. The unit of land revenue assessment was individual peasant.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

The Mughal assessed revenue through estimation and measurement. In the estimation process, the State sent officials who in collaboration with village officials and leaders assessed the cultivator’s liability before the product was ripe. The cultivator was to pay this liability in cash after harvest and sale. The measurement procedure applied a schedule of rates prepared on the basis of average yield per unit for each type of crop following a calculation of land size. The average value for different crops was determined on the prevalent price in the area. One third of the calculated price was fixed as revenue for the State. The Mughal, afterwards assessed the land revenue according to the variability of soil fertility, types of crops grown and average prices, prevalent in any locality over a number of years and took measures to collect these data on its own initiative. In modern eyes the Mughal’s revenue system appears to be remarkable degree of flexibility towards the specificity of the locale. This practice, however, complicated their revenue collection and burdened their bureaucracy.

QUESTION: 60

The Cabinet mission plan, 1946 recommended

1. an undivided India
2. a strong centre
3. residuary powers being given to provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 ​

Solution:

The CMP, 1946 recommended a weak centre with residuary powers given to the provinces. It also rejected partition and recommended an undivided India.

QUESTION: 61

What was the reason for the rise of Magadha among the Mahajanpadas?

1. strategic location
2. association with the activities of Buddha
3. fertile zones of land

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1, 2 and 3 ​

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1 and 2 only

Solution:

The factors that contributed to the rise of Magadha were the strategic locations of its two capitals Rajagriha and Pataliputra, very rich alluvial soil contributing to agricultural surplus production, and the availability of minerals, which resulted in the introduction of iron tools especially for warfare.

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following diseases have been totally eradicated from India?

1. Polio
2. Leprosy
3. Small pox

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

India became Polio free in 2013. Small Pox was eradicated long back. However, leprosy still continues to affect thousands. Leprosy currently affects approximately a quarter of a million people throughout the world, with majority of these cases being reported from India.

QUESTION: 63

Trans fat is used in food products to

A.

improve nutrition.

B.

raise good cholesterol.

C.

extend shelf life.

D.

none of the above.

Solution:

Trans fats, also known as trans fatty acids, are created when hydrogen is added to vegetable oil to keep foods solid and to extend their shelf life. Trans fats are often found in packaged baked goods, such as cookies, crackers and frozen pies, snack foods such as, microwave popcorn, certain margarines, coffee creamer, refrigerated dough products, frozen pizza, fast foods etc. Trans fats raise the risk of heart disease by raising the level of “bad cholesterol” (LDL). Trans fats have been linked to cancer, diabetes and stroke, as well.

QUESTION: 64

Chloroform can be used as

1. reagent
2. cleaning agent
3. insecticide

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

As a reagent, chloroform serves as a source of the dichlorocarbene CCl2 group. It reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide usually in the presence of a phase transfer catalyst to produce dichlorocarbene, CCl2. Chloroform is also used a dry cleaning agent to remove spots. It is also used in fumigants and insecticides.

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following is/are example of vegetative propagation?

1. sucker removal
2. tissue culture
3. stem cutting
4. grafting

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1 ,3 and 4 only

C.

2 ,3 and 4 only

D.

1 ,2, 3 and 4 only

Solution:

Vegetative propagation or vegetative reproduction is the process of multiplication in which a portion of fragment of the plant body functions as propagates and develops into a new individual. Some plants are able to multiply by vegetative methods, which involve the production of new plants without the act of fertilization or sexual union. Stem cuttings, grafting and budding, and tissue culture are common methods of vegetative propagation. Sucker removal is used for banana.

QUESTION: 66

With reference to touchscreens, consider the following statements :

1. When a user touches a capacitive touchscreen some charge is transferred from the screen to the user.
2. Resistive touchscreen are better compared to capacitive ones.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

In a capacitive touchscreen, when a user touches the monitor with his or her finger, some of the charge is transferred to the user, so the charge on the capacitive layer decreases. This decrease is measured in circuits located at each corner of the monitor. The computer calculates, from the relative differences in charge at each corner, exactly where the touch event took place and then relays that information to the touch-screen driver software. The capacitive system has advantage over the resistive system. It transmits almost 90 percent of the light from the monitor, whereas the resistive system only transmits about 75 percent. This gives the capacitive system a much clearer picture than the resistive system.

QUESTION: 67

With reference to stem cells, consider the following statements:

1. Stem cells are found only in multicellular organism.
2. Placenta is a rich source of stem cell.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

Stem cells are primal cells found in all multi-cellular organisms. They retain the ability to renew themselves through mitotic cell division and can differentiate into a diverse range of specialized cell types. Placenta is a rich source of stem cell. Stem cells for research are taken from the umbilical cords of newborn babies, bone marrow of children or adults, or aborted fetuses, or discarded test-tube embryos. However, these sources have a number of limitations. Umbilical cord blood contains only small numbers of stem cells and extraction of bone marrow requires a painful needle and a very close match between donor and recipient to prevent rejection. Moreover, the use of embryos and fetal tissue as stem cell sources is extremely contentious. Recently, the placenta has been shown to be a plentiful, non-controversial source of stem cells. It therefore may have a number of advantages over traditional methods of preparing stem cells.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following are properties of neutrinos?

1. no charge
2. no mass
3. speed close to that of light

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Neutrinos have a small, but non-zero mass. Neutrinos are subatomic particles produced by the decay of radioactive elements and are elementary particles that lack an electric charge. They travel nearly with the speed of light.

QUESTION: 69

Organic light emitting diodes (OLEDs) offers which of the following advantages ?

1. made up of easily available materials.
2. require small amount of power.
3. are thinner and lighter.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 ​

Solution:

While OLEDs are thinner and lighter and require small amount of power, they are made up of semiconductors and organic materials which were costly and not easily available.

Community-Acquired Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). When MRSA bacteria cause infection in people who have not been hospitalized nor had a medical procedure within the last year, it is called CA-MRSA.CA-MRSA is usually spread through direct physical contact or through contact with objects contaminated with infected bodily fluids.

QUESTION: 71

Consider the following statements :

1. Boiling Water Reactors (BWR) are safer compared to Pressurized Water Reactors (PWR).
2. Most of India’s nuclear reactor are PWR type.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Only the two units of Tarapur plant are BWR. In the boiling water reactor (BWR), the water which passes over the reactor core to act as moderator and coolant is also the steam source for the turbine. The disadvantage of this is that any fuel leak might make the water radioactive and that radioactivity would reach the turbine and the rest of the loop. In the pressurized water reactor (PWR), the water which passes over the reactor core to act as moderator and coolant does not flow to the turbine, but is contained in a pressurized primary loop. The obvious advantage to this is that a fuel leak in the core would not pass any radioactive contaminants to the turbine and condenser.

QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements

1. IPDS strengthen distribution network in urban areas while DDUGJY does the same in rural areas.
2. Domestic Efficient Lighting Program (DELP) focuses to substitute LED bulbs in place of incandescent bulbs.

Challenges hampering power sector are 1. Complexity of tariff schedules prevents economic actors from responding sufficiently to price signals. 2. Average tariffs in some cases are set below the average cost of supplying electricity. 3. High industrial tariffs and variable quality of electricity adversely affects ‘Make in India’. 4. Price and non-price barriers come in the way of single-nationwide electricity prices through open access. 5. Determination of progressive tariff schedules for domestic consumers.

QUESTION: 74

With reference to power policies in India, Which of the following is/are not true?

A.

electricity tariffs are unusually low for Indian industry

B.

Wide variation in industrial tariff within India

C.

Nearly 50% of firms use diesel generators rather than depending on power supply.

D.

Trend of generating electricity from captive power plants is increasing

Solution:

Electricity tariffs are unusually high for Indian industry, especially when quality is taken into account. Electricity generation from captive power plants and electricity procured from the utilities could be exacerbated in the coming years, as the decline in oil prices and the cost of renewable energy alternatives may prompt a further shift to captive power. To protect against uneven power supply, about 47 percent of firms report using a diesel generator.10 The total capacity of the diesel generators11 (DG) in the country may be as high as 72 GW and growing at the rate of 5 GW per year.

QUESTION: 75

Consider the following statements regarding the increasing use of contract labour supplied by specialised staffing companies in India:

I. It allows large firms to grow.
II. It leads to raise aggregate productivity.
III. It leads to diminish aggregate productivity.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

II and III

D.

All of the above

Solution:

To exploit its demographic dividend, India must create millions of “good”— safe, productive, well-paying—jobs. These tend to be in the formal sector. There are various constraints on formalisation of labour sector and the various development programmes which are having several challenges to face in India. The large firms get benefit from the contract labour supply. The increasing use of contract labour supplied by specialised staffing companies, which allows large firms to grow, raising aggregate productivity.

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the employment sector in India?

A.

The informal sector must be credited with creating jobs and keeping unemployment low.

B.

By most measures informal sector jobs are much worse than formal sector ones—wages are, on average, more than 20 times higher in the formal sector, though informal sector wages have grown somewhat faster between 1989-2010.

C.

By most measures formal sector jobs are much worse than informal sector ones—wages are, on average, more than 20 times higher in the informal sector, though informal sector wages have grown somewhat faster between 1989-2010.

D.

Formal sector jobs also score better on some non-pecuniary grounds.

Solution:

The informal sector should thus be credited with creating jobs and keeping unemployment low. Yet, by most measures informal sector jobs are much worse than formal sector ones—wages are, on average, more than 20 times higher in the formal sector, though informal sector wages have grown somewhat faster between 1989-2010. Formal sector jobs also score better on some non-pecuniary grounds. For example, they allow workers to build employment history - which is important for gaining access to cheaper formal credit.

QUESTION: 77

In order to stay small enough to be exempt from some labour laws, the firms adopts some strategies. Which of the following such strategies are correct?

A.

One popular strategy is to hire contract workers, which has two key benefits like the firm essentially subcontracts the work of following regulations and “managing” inspectors to the contract labour firm.

B.

The other benefit is because contract workers are the employees of the contractor and are not considered workmen in the firm, the firm stays small enough to be exempt from some labour law.

C.

Both a and b

D.

Neither a nor b

Solution:

The slow pace of labour reform has encouraged firms to resort to other strategies to negotiate “regulatory cholesterol”. One popular strategy is to hire contract workers, which has two key benefits: first, the firm essentially subcontracts the work of following regulations and “managing” inspectors to the contract labour firm. Second, because contract workers are the employees of the contractor and are not considered workmen in the firm, the firm stays small enough to be exempt from some labour law.

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following is correct?

A.

PRODY is a measure of the “quality” of a particular product.

B.

EXPY is an analogous measure for the “quality” of a country’s export mix.

C.

EXPY is calculated as the average of PRODY for all products a country exports, and is a good predictor of subsequent economic growth.

D.

All of the above

Solution:

PRODY and EXPY are indexes that measure the quality of export mix or baskets. PRODY is a measure of the “quality” or “sophistication” of a particular product. EXPY is an analogous measure for the “quality” or “sophistication” of a country’s export mix or baskets. EXPY is calculated as the average of PRODY for all products a country exports, and is a good predictor of subsequent economic growth.

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian apparel industry:

I. It is labour-intensive, with 30 per cent of costs from wages and only 2-3 per cent of costs are due to capital-intensive inputs like power.
II. India is ceding market share in the global apparel industry to countries like Bangladesh and Vietnam.
III. Formal sector apparel firms are about 15 times more productive than their informal sector counterparts.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

II and III

D.

All of the above ​

Solution:

It is labour-intensive, with 30 per cent of costs from wages and only 2-3 per cent of costs are due to capital-intensive inputs like power. And yet India is ceding market share in the global apparel industry to countries like Bangladesh and Vietnam. Formal sector apparel firms are about 15 times more productive than their informal sector counterparts.

QUESTION: 80

Consider the following statements regarding the significance of the apparel industry:

I. The apparel industry typically employs many female workers: for instance about 70 percent of the employees of India's largest apparel exporter are women.
II. The apparel manufacturers locating majorly in urban areas can help address the low rates of female labour force participation that prevent India from achieving its full economic potential.
III. Most explanations of low labour force participation in India focus on supply-side factors like cultural norms that frown on women working outside the home.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

I and III

D.

All of the above

Solution:

The apparel industry typically employs many female workers: for instance about 70 percent of the employees of India's largest apparel exporter are women. The apparel manufacturers locating majorly in urban areas can help address the low rates of female labour force participation that prevent India from achieving its full economic potential. Most explanations of low labour force participation in India focus on supply-side factors like cultural norms that frown on women working outside the home.

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements regarding EPF:

I. The EPF, which was created by The Employees ‘Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, is a fund to which most workers must involuntarily contribute at least 12 per cent of their basic salary.
II. The money goes into an account managed by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) and is meant to provide a lump sum benefit to workers upon retirement.
III. Employers must also contribute 12 per cent of their employees’ basic although about 70 per cent of the employers’ contribution goes into the Pension Scheme (EPS) while about 30 per cent goes into the EPF.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

I and III

D.

All of the above

Solution:

The EPF, which was created by The Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, is a fund to which most workers must involuntarily contribute at least 12 per cent of their basic salary. The money goes into an account managed by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) and is meant to provide a lump sum benefit to workers upon retirement. Employers must also contribute 12 per cent of their employees’ basic although about 70 per cent of the employers’ contribution goes into the Pension Scheme (EPS) while about 30 per cent goes into the EPF.

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements regarding the competitive labour market:

i. A tax on labour will increase the effective wage paid by the company.
ii. A tax on labour will reduce the effective wage received by the employee.
iii. If labour demand is relatively less elastic than labour supply, the tax incidence will fall more heavily on the employer.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

I and III

D.

All of the above ​

Solution:

A tax on labour will increase the effective wage paid by the company. A tax on labour will reduce the effective wage received by the employee. If labour demand is relatively more elastic than labour supply, the tax incidence will fall more heavily on the employee not on the employer.

QUESTION: 83

The powers of Attorney General of India includes

1. right to speak in Parliament
2. right to vote in Parliament
3. right to become member of Parliamentary committees

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

only 1

D.

1,2 and 3

Solution:

AG does not have the power to vote in parliament.

QUESTION: 84

Which of the following actions can the President perform on a money bill presented to him/her ?

1. pass it
2. reject it
3. return it once, but if it comes bacl he/she has to give assent
4. pocket veto it

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1 and 4 only

Solution:

President cannot return or pocket veto a money bill. He/She can either pass it or reject it.

QUESTION: 85

Mughal paintings were characterised by :

1. depiction of themes of court life and landscapes
2. representation of women.
3. religious in content.

Community-Acquired Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). When MRSA bacteria cause infection in people who have not been hospitalized nor had a medical procedure within the last year, it is called CA-MRSA.CA-MRSA is usually spread through direct physical contact or through contact with objects contaminated with infected bodily fluids.

QUESTION: 87

The official rate of interest charged by the Reserved Bank of India on loans to other banks is called :

A.

Repo Rate

B.

Reverse Repo Rate

C.

Bank Rate

D.

Prime Lending Rate ​

Solution:

The interest rate at which a nation’s central bank ( RBI is India ) lends money to domestic banks is called bank rate. Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (RBI in India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. The reverse repo rate is the rate at which banks can park surplus funds with RBI. The interest rate charged by banks to their largest, most secure, and most creditworthy customers on short-term loans is called prime lending rate.

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements :

1. Sholas are patches of deciduous forests in Nilgiri Hills.
2. Sholas are characterized by the presence of dense forests.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Sholas are evergreen forests, but because of high-altitude location they are not dense and are separated from each other by grasslands. The Sholas are a mosaic of mountane evergreen forests and grasslands. They are found only in high altitude (>1500 metres asl) regions within the tropics, and are limited to the southern part of the western ghats. They are characterised by undulating grassland patches, interspersed with thickets of stunted evergreen tree species, and are home to a host of endemic and endangered plants and animals.

QUESTION: 89

What is “Surface Computing”?

A.

It is computing without storing any data in the computer so as to improve security.

B.

It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of resources.

C.

It is the use of specialised Graphical User Interface like touchscreen to interact.

D.

None of the above is a correct description of Surface Computing.

Solution:

Surface computing is the use of a specialized computer GUI in which traditional GUI elements are replaced by intuitive, everyday objects. Instead of a keyboard and mouse, the user interacts directly with a touch-sensitive screen. It has been said that this more closely replicates the familiar hands-on experience of everyday object manipulation.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements :

1. Modern Kuchipudi is considerably different than its ancient original form.
2. Use of speech is not allowed during Kuchipudi’s presentation.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

The use of speech during the presentation of Kuchipudi is its distinguishing feature. Like other classical dances, Kuchipudi also comprises pure dance, mime and histrionics but it is the use of speech that distinguishes Kuchipudi’s presentation as dance drama.

The IUCN Red list is set upon precise criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of thousands of species and subspecies

QUESTION: 92

Which of the following would come under direct taxes?

1. the proposed GST
2. income tax
3. excise duty

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 ​

Solution:

Direct tax – A tax that is paid directly by an individual or organization to the imposing entity, eg. income tax. Excise duty is an indirect tax which is levied and collected on the goods/commodities manufactured in India.

QUESTION: 93

The term “terror of Bengal” refers to :

A.

Damodar river which causes floods

B.

an Islamic fundamental organisation seeking unification of West Bengal with Bangladesh.

C.

excessive growth of water hyacinth

D.

None of above

Solution:

excessive growth of water hyacinth. Excessive growth of water hyacinth {Eichhornia crassipes) the world’s most problematic aquatic weeds, also called “Terror of Bengal”, imbalances water ecosystem.

QUESTION: 94

The “Pledge movement” during the Indian freedom struggle was related with :

A.

prohibition of taking religious oaths.

B.

taking oaths to prohibit child marriages.

C.

a struggle for universal adult franchise.

D.

conducting widow re-marriages.

Solution:

Indian (National) Social Conference, founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao was the social reform cell of the Indian National Congress.It launched the famous “Pledge Movement” to inspire people to take an oath to prohibit child marriage.

QUESTION: 95

India recently signed the landmark civil nuclear agreement with Japan. Which of the following statements regarding India’s nuclear agreements with other nations is true?

1) India the only known country with nuclear weapons which is not a party to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) but is still allowed to carry out nuclear commerce with the rest of the world.
2) Canada was the first country to sign a civilian nuclear agreement with India.

A.

Only 2

B.

Only 1

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None of the above

Solution:

India has signed civil nuclear agreements with Argentina, Australia, Canada, France, Japan, Kazakhstan, Mongolia, Namibia, Russia, South Korea, the United Kingdom and the United States. After the Nuclear Suppliers Group agreed to allow nuclear exports to India, France was the first country to sign a civilian nuclear agreement with India in 2008.

The 48-nation NSG granted a waiver to India in 2008 allowing it to access civilian nuclear technology and fuel from other countries. India the only known country with nuclear weapons which is not a party to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) but is still allowed to carry out nuclear commerce with the rest of the world.

QUESTION: 96

India and UK recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding to establish bilateral cooperation in the field of Intellectual Property. It will facilitate exchange of best practices and knowledge on :

A.

On IP awareness among the public, businesses and educational institutions.

B.

On IP with the industry, universities, R & D organizations and Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs).

C.

On processes for disposal of applications for patents, trademarks, industrial designs and Geographical Indications.

D.

All of the above.

Solution:

The priority initiatives under the MoU include:

a. Exchange of best practices, experiences and knowledge on IP awareness among the public, businesses and educational institutions of both countries;
b. Collaboration in training programs, exchange of experts, technical exchanges and outreach activities;
c. Exchange and dissemination of best practices, experiences and knowledge on IP with the industry, universities, R & D organizations and Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) through participation in programs and events;
d. Exchange of information and best practices on processes for disposal of applications for patents, trademarks, industrial designs and Geographical Indications, as also the protection, enforcement and use of IP rights;
e. Cooperation in the development of automation and implementation of modernization projects, new documentation and information systems in IP and procedures for management of IP.

QUESTION: 97

Recently Centre has extended the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act to check Naga factions in the northeast. Which of the following statements is true regarding the AFSPA in the northeast?

A.

The British had promulgated the Armed Forces Special Powers Ordinance in 1942 to suppress the Quit India Movement.

B.

Nagaland was the first state to have Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act in 1958.

The Armed Forces Special Powers Ordinance of 1942 was promulgated by the British to suppress the Quit India Movement. Modeled on these lines, four ordinances were invoked by the central government to deal with the internal security situation in the country in 1947 which arouse out of the Partition of India.

Armed Forces (Special Powers) Acts (AFSPA), are Acts of the Parliament of India that grant special powers to the Indian Armed Forces in what each act terms as disturbed areas. First time it was applicable to the Naga Hills, then part of Assam. Santosh Hegde commission on Manipur encounter deaths and the prolonged Naga People’s Movement are associated with the enactment of AFSPA in northeast.

QUESTION: 98

Sushil Chandra has taken over as the new chairman of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) recently. consider the following statements regarding the Central Board of Direct Taxes:

1) The Central Board of Direct Taxes is a statutory authority.
2) The Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes.
3) It is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, Government of India

Choose the correct code:

A.

Only 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

None of the above

Solution:

The Central Board of Revenue or Department of Revenue is the apex body charged with the administration of taxes in India. It is a part of Ministry of Finance. Initially the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes.

However, when the administration of taxes became too unwieldy for one Board to handle, the Board was split up into two, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC).

i. The CBDT is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
ii. It is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
iii. It provides essential inputs for policy and planning of direct taxes in India and is also responsible for administration of the direct tax laws through Income Tax Department.
iv. It is India’s official Financial Action Task Force (FATF) unit.
v. The CBDT Chairman and Members of CBDT are selected from Indian Revenue Service (IRS), a premier civil service of India, whose members constitute the top management of Income Tax Department.

QUESTION: 99

The Central Vigilance Commission has given the theme of “Public participation in promoting integrity and eradicating Corruption” for the Vigilance Awareness Week 2016. Consider the following statements regarding the CVC:

1) Central Vigilance Commission is advisory body and submits its report to the parliament.
2) Central Vigilance Commission was established on recommendation by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption in 1964.
3) In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the Central Vigilance Commission.

Choose the incorrect code:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

Only 1

D.

All of the above

Solution:

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.

Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body but in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC. In 2004, the Government of India authorized the CVC as the “Designated Agency” to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office and recommend appropriate action.

The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
The CVC is conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.

QUESTION: 100

RCEP is the proposed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between 16 Asia-Pacific countries. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the proposed FTA?

A.

The proposed FTA will aim to open up trade in goods and services as well as liberalise investment policies

B.

It will cover a market of over three billion people and account for 40 per cent of world trade.

C.

India has iterated its partner in Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) to delete the word ‘single undertaking’ for both goods and services.

The proposed FTA, which aims to open up trade in goods and services as well as liberalise investment policies and will cover a market of over three billion people in these countries whose total GDP is more than $17 trillion and account for 40 per cent of world trade.

The concerns of these RCEP countries stem from fears of China dumping its excess capacity in several items including steel as well as highly subsidized items, thereby harming the local industry in the importing countries and distorting trade in the process.

India has managed to convince its partner countries negotiating the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) to insert the words ‘single undertaking’ for both goods and services to ensure that the pact on services is signed jointly with the one on goods.