There is a large number of English language Bibles available (just check out the options on BibleGateway.com). I'll probably be clumsy about this, but here goes...a simplified explanation as to why there are so many versions of the Bible around.

Some of these are translations: taking the original language and rendering it into English, while staying as close as possible to the original vocabulary, grammar, and sentence structure while still making it readable in English. These are reliable, but harder to read.

Some are interpretations, substituting the ideas expressed by the original language with English terms and ideas. Maybe the term idiom comes into play here. These are not as accurate but are more readable.

Then there are the paraphrase versions which take the passages in the original languages, chew them up, digest them, and put out a very readable, but not nearly as accurate, a version of Scripture as a translation. These are subject to the human views of the ones preparing the version.

Each one has a target group of people, and sometimes a paprphrase can express the meaning of a passage of Scripture that gets lost in a strict translation. I like the English Standard Version and the New American Standard Version for the way they stay close to the original languages; I also like the Phillips New Testament for its readability and plain language; and the Cotton Patch version for its earthy expressions of God's Truth. They give me different perspectives on God's Awesome Word. But, in order to get to grips with what God is saying, I keep going back to the translations.

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Everyone needs to remember this simple truth; If it's different, it's not the same, if it's the same, it's not different! And every bible is different, therefore they are not the same! There can only be one true Word of God. If all bibles are different, and are supposed to be the word of God, then God has divided his own house! We all know what happens to a divided house.

Not trying to be controversial, but how do you figure the Psalm was referring to The Bible when The Bible did not yet exist and would not for another thousand years or so?

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The Bible as we know it, yes. The Old Testament describes on a regular basis how people responded to the reading of God's Word, and Jesus went into the temple or synagogue on a regular basis to read the Scrolls. That's all the Bible they had.

Psalm 19 describes God's Law, Statutes, Commandments, etc. David already had parts of the Bible--the first 5 books for sure and probably Joshua and Judges also; He was writing the book of Psalms. In his day that was all the they had. It wasn't until a number of (hunndred) years (I should know when it was, but can't even think of the name of the council that did this) after the Resurrection that a council of scholars got together and with a lot of prayer asking God for wisdom and guidance selected the 66 books that compose the Bible as we know it today.

The Psalms do indeed refer to Jesus. OT people looked forward to seeing Jesus, just as we look back on His coming. There is a presentation of the Life of Christ in the Psalms, alternating New Testament readings with passages from the Psalms. We sing the Psalms, so with a good group it sounds good. It's fun to do, too.

Looking at the first few chapters in Genesis, within a very few generations, maybe even within the lifespan of Adam and Eve, quite a bit of industry had developed. Farming, the arts, metalurgy. All this before Noah.

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Does the bible really say "something else"? EVERYthing that you described came AFTER their fall into mortality. Before the fall they were so innocent and so utterly without understanding that they could not even recognize their nakedness. It was only after the fall that Adam and Eve started to gain knowledge and understanding. Before the fall, they appear to have had no understanding or knowledge, nor the ability to beget offspring.

The Bible as we know it, yes. The Old Testament describes on a regular basis how people responded to the reading of God's Word, and Jesus went into the temple or synagogue on a regular basis to read the Scrolls. That's all the Bible they had.

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Aaah. So when you say "the Bible" you meant "the scriptures".

Which brings up an interesting point. Did the people in David's time (when the psalms were written) have access to scriptures we DON'T have? Were there works of scripture written before David time, and lost before what we now call The Bible was assembled? Jesus for example seems to have quoted from scripture the people of his day were familiar with, but that we do not have.

The Psalms do indeed refer to Jesus. OT people looked forward to seeing Jesus, just as we look back on His coming. There is a presentation of the Life of Christ in the Psalms, alternating New Testament readings with passages from the Psalms. We sing the Psalms, so with a good group it sounds good. It's fun to do, too

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Absolutely the Psalms referred to Jesus. In fact EVERY prophet of the old testament referred to Jesus in one way or another. The most powerful was probably Isaiah. The lyrics of "The Messiah" are often credited as quoting the New Testament. But actually the great majority is of it quotes Isaiah.

Which brings up an interesting point. Did the people in David's time (when the psalms were written) have access to scriptures we DON'T have? Were there works of scripture written before David time, and lost before what we now call The Bible was assembled? Jesus for example seems to have quoted from scripture the people of his day were familiar with, but that we do not have.

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Scriptures--yes. 2 Timothy 3:16-17 talks about all Scripture being inspired by God. I believe, that even though the Canon of the Bible was not completed when Paul wrote those words, that passage refers to what we have as the Bible now.

The Hebrew people were extreemly careful about how they passed the scriptures down from generation to generation, and they were very exact about the accuracy. This shows up when comparing scrolls from different ages against each other. There is virtually no difference among the documents.

The Scribes and Pharisees wrote lots of supplemental things to the Scripture, which Jesus declaimed; it came to the point where they were adding to God's Word, rather than simply explaining it, as they should have been doing. The Torah was inviolate; the Talmud was the verbal, then written expansion on the Torah.

There are a number of times when Jesus referred to some of the sayings that had been passed down from generation to generation, today we would call them proverbs, not meaning the book of the Bible that follows Psalms. He also referred to things in the Talmud. Those are the only things I can think of that he referred to that are not part of the Bible. Were you thinking of something else?