The key idea is that in the case of very high or very low frequency, you can take the impedance (resistance) of the inductor and capacitor to be ~infinite, respectively. Does it make sense why that's true (as an approximation at least)?

In effect, this eliminates one of the two loops in the circuit for each case.

The key idea is that in the case of very high or very low frequency, you can take the impedance (resistance) of the inductor and capacitor to be ~infinite, respectively. Does it make sense why that's true (as an approximation at least)?

In effect, this eliminates one of the two loops in the circuit for each case.

Click to expand...

ah yes it does, at first I thought the resistance would skyrocket to infinity / 0
thank you