I am asking this question from a Muslim perspective. We are told that Zubur and Injeel (Old Testament and New Testament) were revealed to Moses and Jesus just like Quran was revealed to Muhammad (PBUH). From what I understand The Bible (and lets talk about new testament only), was not revelation to Jesus but rather a collection of stories and event of Jesus time which were collected later after his death. Most importantly Bible is not a divine book and was NEVER a divine book. There is no such thing as a book revealed to Jesus. Is my understanding correct. If not in what shape or form Bible was revealed to Jesus.

Again my emphasis is, is Bible the book of revelation on Jesus. I know other people wrote it but what is it's connection directly with Jesus.

Although many Western scholars[who?] believe that the Injil, in Muslim
belief, was a scripture authored by Jesus, the author of the Injil was
(in Muslim belief) ultimately God, in a manner similar to the way the
Quran was revealed to Muhammad: that God inspired Jesus with the
verbatim words of the text which were then written by Jesus' hand.[3]
Muslims believe that Jesus, who had memorized the revelation, then
taught it to all his disciples (al-Hawāriyūn).

Please clarify the point above. My argument is, there was no such book as Injil or new testament that was revealed to Jesus. Basically this was made up in Islam (probably because of lack of understanding) which Muslim believe to this day that the writer of Bible is God. From muslim perspective, it means only God himself revealed this directly to Jesus.

you are right. The Bible is not divine. We don't worship it as it was God. But it is divinely inspired and it's not the only source of God's wisdom or teaching... If you see the book as divine you might end up in idolatry! No book can be divine, neither Quran, all is just papers. It can be inspired by God, which I believe Quran is too...
– GrasperJan 20 '15 at 16:08

6 Answers
6

You are correct when you write that the New Testament was written ABOUT Jesus. It was not written by him, at least not in the sense that he put pen to paper, or dictated the words. Your quote from Wikipedia, while it may correctly describe Muslim belief, certainly does not describe Christian belief on the subject. Many parts of the New Testament were clearly not written until many years after Jesus died and ascended to heaven. If you read the New Testament you will find that many of the author's names are given in the text - for example the four Gospels (Matthew, Mark Luke and John) were written by people of that name who either knew Jesus or collected stories about him or teachings he had given, and wrote them down so they would not be forgotten. Many of the later books were in fact letters, written mainly the Apostle Paul. The letters themselves state that they are authored by Paul, and could not have been truthfully dictated by Jesus.

Where you are incorrect is in saying the the Bible is not a divine book - at least as far as Christians are concerned. Christian belief is that God caused the Bible to be written in exactly the way he wanted it, but did so through the knowledge and minds of the people who wrote it down. Christians believe that it is inspired by God and therefore infallible.

There is another sense in which you are not quite correct. Christians believe that Jesus is in fact God, at least in some sense (if you are not familiar with Christian belief in this area it's not simple enough to go into here). Because of this it is correct to say that at least in some way Jesus is the author of both the Old and New Testaments.

By the way the Zabur is attributed to David in the Quran, not to Moses. The Tawrat is the message attributed to Moses. Neither can be equated to the whole Old Testament, but only to parts of it. Much of the Old Testament was written after the deaths of both Moses and David. Also the Islam term Injeel refers not to the entire New Testament but to the Gospel (supposedly the original Gospel of Jesus).

So Bible is Divine book but it did not exist at the time of Jesus and Jesus has nothing to do with it. It was only written after jesus death by other people through divine inspiration. If you can clarify that part, it is good enough for me. This would mean by Islamic standard this is not really a divine book and in fact proves my point that Bible did not exists at the time of Jesus. In otherwise, if I ask Jesus, what does this verse mean in the Bible. He would answer, "what Bible"?
– LearnerJan 27 '14 at 5:41

@Learner The Old Testament was full written and existed for 400 years before Jesus came. The New Testament was written by His followers shortly after His resurrection. So God the Father and the Son know the Bible pretty well if you were to ask them.
– SteveJan 27 '14 at 13:56

1

@DJClayworth I upvoted your answer, but I'm a little uneasy about your statement on Biblical infallibility. I'm not sure that all Christians accept this, and I'm not even exactly sure what you mean by it.
– Chris SunamiJan 27 '14 at 17:47

I think the answer to my question is, "It was not revealed to Jesus". Someone else wrote it after Jesus Christ death is another story. Even if it is considered divine scripture, it still was not revealed to Jesus. That's what my question is.
– LearnerJan 27 '14 at 18:13

The fact that Jesus' words are recorded in these accounts suggests that a great deal of it was revealed to Jesus, because the author is just writing down what Jesus said. I would argue that Jesus words contain "what was revealed to him."
– mojoFeb 8 '14 at 14:06

People hear and see it, and either remember it in their minds, or possibly write it down.

Jesus dies, and his disciples start preaching the good news.

Books are compiled and written about Jesus' life, actions, and words.

Time passes until today, and some of the writings survived (like the Bible books Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John; and the apocryphal gospels which were rejected as untrue).

So, maybe there were writings from when Jesus was alive. Similarities between Matthew and Mark suggest that there was a "Document X" that both books were based on.

Jesus promised his disciples that the Spirit will remind them of everything he said, so they could remember the facts accurately. See John 14:26 and John 16:13.

Jesus knew how to write. He was recorded as writing at least once, in John 8:6-8.

Jesus knew that his story would be told in all the world. One time, when a sinner annointed Jesus with expensive perfume, people criticized her, but Jesus rebuked them and said:

Truly I tell you, wherever the gospel is preached throughout the world, what she has done will also be told, in memory of her.

So he foretells (and reveals his intention) that his story would be told and most likely preserved through writing. Because the best way to preserve a story was in writing. If God knew this, and if he could do it, then this is how he would have done it.

2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness

Jesus was very fluent in reading/writing scripture, yet, He in His own wisdom, thought it fit that his followers write these Gospels after his death. As such Bible through the inspiration of Holy Spirit is the revealed truth from God Himself and it includes the teachings of Jesus(who Himself is God) during His ministry which later on, inspired by Holy Spirit, were written down in four Gospels, acts and epistles by His followers. As such it is tantamount to the Word of God.

Miracles like multiplying of bread and fish, telling Peter to get the coin from the first fish that he gets to pay for their taxes, ensuring that a colt and an ass is present at a designated place for His journey to Jerusalem, ensuring that a large room is ready for His last Supper, are but few which showed that Jesus was capable of doing everything and anything.

In similar manner He could have made the Bible to come into existence during His stay on earth with single word from His mouth without even writing it, but He had a different plan. Jesus trained His disciples-all simpleton and down to earth fishermen- to face the world in such a way that they were able to write what He desired.

This was clearly told by Jesus:

John 16:12 “I have many more things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 16:13 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all truth. For he will not speak on his own authority, but will speak whatever he hears, and will tell you what is to come. 16:14 He will glorify me, because he will receive from me what is mine and will tell it to you.

He also says:

John 14:26 But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you everything, and will cause you to remember everything I said to you.

There was no need for God to reveal the Bible content to Jesus, as Jesus Himself was God Incarnate and as such the source of everything.

Did Jesus write any of His own scripture or contribute to the Bible directly? Yes. Very much so. Through Holy Spirit.

What we Christians have in the form of Bible is certainly the work of "Holy Trinity one God". Since all writers of Bible Books were inspired by Holy Spirit, the third person of Holy Trinity, what else could we ask from God. Whether written by Jesus or inspired by Holy Spirit is one and the same, it is Word of God.

But the next question definitely comes to mind is why four Gospels? That is answered here. But briefly:

God used human authors with different backgrounds and personalities to accomplish His purposes through their writing. Each of the gospel authors had a distinct purpose behind his gospel and in carrying out those purposes, each emphasized different aspects of the person and ministry of Jesus Christ. Yet all the four Gospels are perfectly harmonious.

Christians claim that (what's in) the Bible was revealed to men by God. The New Testament was not written (down) by Jesus, but was written about him and what he taught by people who lived during his lifetime and knew him. Christians claim that God can speak to/inspire people through the Holy Spirit, and so the Bible is directly connected to Jesus because it came from God.

The reasoning behind it is actually not too hard to come to. Nowhere is it said that Jesus wrote any of it. It was Jesus' own actions, his very self, that is considered the Injeel, not the Gospels written about him. In essence, he was/represented the Word of God, not the NT.

This is, of course, not the Christian perspective.
– mojoFeb 8 '14 at 3:54

Welcome to the site! This next has nothing to do with the quality of your answer, it's just standard to help new visitors avoid misunderstanding the site (as I did at first.) As a new visitor, I'd recommend checking out the following two posts, which are meant to help newcomers "learn the ropes": the help page and How we are different than other sites?
– David StrattonFeb 8 '14 at 18:01

@mojo I don't see much here that an average Christian would have much disagreement with, though.
– TRiGJan 11 '15 at 2:25

I think that some context is perhaps important here. While all of the sayings and teachings may have been directly revealed to Muhammad, almost none of it was written down his most devout disciples started to die out. This is very similar to how the Gospels came about: there were very few records from the first twenty years of Christianity, but by the middle of the first century, as the twelve started to die out, their records were collected into what were to become the synoptics.

Thank you for your interest in this question.
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