I am wondering is there something peculiar in the Hebrew that triggers translators to chose 'O Lord' rather than Lord. The impression I get is a deeper feeling in the prayer but am not sure if there is any formal reason for assuming anything like this or not.

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Well, in this particular verse, each occurrence of אֲדֹנָי is in an imperative statement, viz. אֲדֹנָי שְׁמָעָה. You could certainly translate it as "Lord, hear!" There's also nothing wrong with translating it as "O' Lord, hear!" In both, אֲדֹנָי is functionining as a vocative, and vocatives are often translated with a preceding "O'." That is why the translators of the LXX translated אֲדֹנָי in this verse into Greek by the word κύριε, which is the vocative declension of κύριος.