Depends on which Spanish. In Colombia, it would be a j sound, not a y sound. I'm accustomed to the j sound, personally, having spent a deal of time in South America and with South Americans, but Mexicans would use the y sound.

In the UK (or at least my part of it) we spell it with a "J" but pronounce it with a "Y".

Depends on which Spanish. In Colombia, it would be a j sound, not a y sound. I'm accustomed to the j sound, personally, having spent a deal of time in South America and with South Americans, but Mexicans would use the y sound.

every where ive been in south america has been y sound, thats equador, peru bolivia, paraguay, and chile.

every where ive been in south america has been y sound, thats equador, peru bolivia, paraguay, and chile.

I've been to Bolivia and Peru, for the Spanish language speaking countries. I learned the majority of my spanish in Bolivia, actually. My step family is all Colombian, though, and my ex-boss and a lot of my co-workers are too, and a lot of the management on the crew I was working on in Bolivia were also Colombian, so my Spanish is heavily influenced by Colombia. And yes, they do pronounce y's and double l's as an English j sound.

'Twas a cutlass swipe or an ounce of lead
Or a yawing hole in a battered head
And the scuppers clogged with rotting red
And there they lay I damn me eyes
All lookouts clapped on Paradise
All souls bound just contrarywise, yo ho ho and a bottle of rum!

I've been to Bolivia and Peru, for the Spanish language speaking countries. I learned the majority of my spanish in Bolivia, actually. My step family is all Colombian, though, and my ex-boss and a lot of my co-workers are too, and a lot of the management on the crew I was working on in Bolivia were also Colombian, so my Spanish is heavily influenced by Colombia. And yes, they do pronounce y's and double l's as an English j sound.

As for the Huns being not a German tribe, all the evidence points to them being from the Ukraine, which during the late Roman period when the Huns appeared that was described as Asia.

They first appeared in Europe at Ukraine; that is not to say that they are actually from Ukraine. There is a major distinction here.

If you read the anceint accounts it makes it seem like they must have been Mongolians or something, but n closer inspection you find that the Horse tribes of the central Russia who were Germanic peoples, they spoke Gothic which is a Germanic language.

I don't know what part of history you're referring to. The Germanic peoples of Sweden did engage in large scale migration down to the the shores of the Black Sea. But they were invaded by the Huns when that horde showed up two centuries later.

History actually supports the idea that the Germanic People started out in the Near east and moved north west. Evidence has linked the Hittite Empire with Germanic peoples.

The Hittites were Anatolian. What evidence links them to Germanic peoples?

Basically the data shows, that the Huns. who stayed in central Europe after Attlias death didn't bring a raw source of East Asian genetic material. In fact the only Genetics found in Hungary are Germanic and Slavic.

The problem with your interpretation is that the Huns ceased to exist fairly soon after the death of the Scourge of God in the first place. Whatever genetic lineage they did or did not leave behind doesn't really show anything. Moreover the Huns are completely unrelated to Hungary.

As for the Thracians, um that is the Greek name for the Germanic tribes. All the Genetic evidence and even the language they had is a root of both the Germanic and Slavic language groups.

That's because Thracians were Indo-Europeans. It doesn't make them Germanic.

What happened is easy to trace, The Caucasian tribes of 12,000 years ago Who where not the only white people filled up all of the flat grassy lands of Russia, they became horse-men and farmers... The Germanic, Slavic, and Ulric peoples came from these groups.

As did the Hellenes, the Romans, the Celts... You're just looking at the origin of the Indo-European peoples in general when you go that far back.

Just after the Fall of Troy an Asian Greek City State Rome was founded, many believe it was actually a Trojan colony.

That's the plot of the Aeneid. The founding of Rome is traditionally dated to 753 BC, some five centuries after the Trojan War.

---------- Post added 2012-12-08 at 02:08 AM ----------

Originally Posted by Reeve

I understand that Slav is where the term Slave originates. Any historians want to chomp on that?

That is true, but it also emerged after the Fall of the Roman Empire (in the West). (Primarily Muslim states) imported massive numbers of Slavic peoples as slaves during the Early Middle Ages, hence the connection. It's not because Romans were particularly found of enslaving Slavs.

You're just looking at the origin of the Indo-European peoples in general when you go that far back.

That is what i tried to explain to gothicshark. He looks at it far too simplistic. He ignores Sarmatians, Scytians, Persians, Turkic tribes etc.

Originally Posted by semaphore

That is true, but it also emerged after the Fall of the Roman Empire (in the West). (Primarily Muslim states) imported massive numbers of Slavic peoples as slaves during the Early Middle Ages, hence the connection. It's not because Romans were particularly found of enslaving Slavs.

This goes back to the root of the topic. Slav in the Slavic languages means mostly from Slava (Glory). Deutsch in the Slavic languages means Nemec (Mute, who can't speak) since they spoke a unknown language.

The Greeks called Thracians so because it means wild and bloodthirsty (for their standarts)