At 7:20 AM -0600 3/22/98, clayton stirling bartholomew wrote:
>Several days ago I was mulling over line 15 in Agamemnon (Aeschylus)
>
>15 TO MH BEBAIWS BLEFARA SUMBALEIN hUPNWi
>
>and wondering why BEBAIWS was modifying a noun. I didn't take me long to find
>this in Smyth #1096 and #1097. Then my thoughts turned to the NT and I decided
>to see if adverbs ever functioned as adjectives in the NT. I could not
>immediately find anything in BDF so I scraped the dust off of A.T. Robertson
>and there it was on page 547. Robertson gives several examples, the first is
>Romans 3:26 EV TWi NUN KAIRWi.
>
>I don't know why I get excited about this kind of thing, other than the fact
>that it helps support the "form not equal to function" approach to syntax.

Well, I don't have Smyth handy here at home, but I would not have said that
BEBAIWS functions as an adjective or modifies a noun; I would have said
(and I would say it even now!) that BEBAIWS modifies the verb--the
infinitive SUMBALEIN, and that it is the whole infinitive phrase that is
turned into a noun/substantive by the article. But you surely weren't
thinking that BEBAIWS construed with BLEFARA, were you, Clay?