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UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 1

This mock test of UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam.
This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank.
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QUESTION: 1

Which of the following is/are cross-linked polymer?

1. polythene
2. nylon
3. Bakelite

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Cross-linked polymers are formed when long chains are linked in one gigantic, 3-dimensional structure with tremendous rigidity.

Polythene is addition polymer while nylon is a condensation polymer. Bakelite is a cross-linked polymer.

QUESTION: 2

With reference to Low Earth Orbits (LEO), consider the following statements:

1. Satellites in LEO suffer high atmospheric drag compared to those in geostationary orbit.
2. Satellites in LEO have high dwell time over a particular area.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

For the LEO Satellites there is still some atmospheric drag. Even though the amount of atmosphere is far too little to breath, there is enough to place a small amount of drag on the satellite or other object. As a result, over time these objects slow down and their orbits slowly decay. Simply put, the satellite or spacecraft slows down and this allows the influence of gravity to pull the object towards the Earth.

Satellites in this orbit also have a smaller dwell time i.e., the time a satellite sits over one part of globe

QUESTION: 3

Human bodies can be scanned with Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) because they contain

A.

carbon

B.

oxygen

C.

hydrogen

D.

iron

Solution:

When patients slide into an MRI machine, they take with them the billions of atoms that make up the human body. For the purposes of an MRI scan, we’re only concerned with the hydrogen atom, which is abundant since the body is mostly made up of water and fat. These atoms are randomly spinning, or precessing, on their axis, like a child’s top. All of the atoms are going in various directions, but when placed in a magnetic field, the atoms line up in the direction of the field. These hydrogen atoms have a strong magnetic moment, which means that in a magnetic field, they line up in the direction of the field

QUESTION: 4

In a closed system, between the system and environment, there is no exchange of

1. Matter
2. Energy
3. Heat

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 ​

Solution:

Closed systems are those in which no matter exchange takes place between the system and the environment. . In isolated system, neither matter nor energy exchange taxes place with the environment.

QUESTION: 5

With reference to an inverter, consider the following statements:

1. An inverter is a device that converts alternating current to direct current.
2. An inverter is fitted in the main power line.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

An inverter is a device that converts direct current (DC) to alternating current (AC). An inverter is fitted in the main power line. A rectifier converts AC to DC.

QUESTION: 6

If we cannot see a black hole (even with a telescope), then how are they detected?

Although we cannot see black holes, we can detect or guess the presence of one by measuring its effects on objects around it. The following effects may be used: 1. Mass estimates from objects orbiting a black hole or spiraling into the core 2. Gravitational lens effects 3. Emitted radiation

QUESTION: 7

Refrigerators have become a common household appliance. A refrigeration system

A.

removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body.

B.

removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body

C.

rejects energy to a low temperature body

D.

none.

Solution:

Refrigeration is the process of cooling a space, substance, or system to lower and/or maintain its temperature below the ambient one (while the removed heat is rejected at a higher temperature). In other words, refrigeration means artificial (human-made) cooling.

QUESTION: 8

With reference to petrol and diesel engine, consider the following statements:

1. A petrol engine draws a mixture of petrol and air while a diesel engine draws only air during suction.
2. Both petrol and diesel engine uses a carburettor.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Carburetor provides a homogeneous Air-Fuel mixture according to the engine load required or throttle position . Combustion occurs in diesel engines when fuel is injected into highly compressed air (high temperature because of compression).
Combustion occurs in petrol engine when the Air-fuel mixture is ignited with the help of spark plug.
The reason for different combustion theories for diesel and petrol engines is because of nature (volatility, self-ignition temp etc. )of petrol and diesel .

Hence no presence of homogeneous air-fuel mixture is there in diesel engines so there is no question of carburettor there.

QUESTION: 9

Carbon nanotubes, often called the strongest material have which of the following properties?

Carbon nanotubes have proven to be an excellent additive to impart electrical conductivity in plastics. Their high aspect ratio, about 1000:1 imparts electrical conductivity at lower loadings, compared to conventional additive materials such as carbon black, chopped carbon fiber, or stainless steel fiber.
Carbon nanotubes are the strongest and stiffest materials yet discovered in terms of tensile strength and elastic modulus respectively
Current earning capacity of copper interconnects is being severely limited due to their increasing resistivity with scaling and reliability constraints. Metallic carbon nanotubes (CNT) are promising candidates that can potentially address the challenges faced by copper and thereby extend the lifetime of on-chip electrical interconnects.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following is/are charged particle?

1. Ions
2. Free radicals
3. Neutrons

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Free radicals are not charged. Ions can be positively or negatively charged. Neutrons are again chargeless. Ions always hold a charge, but free radicals are not charged species even if they have unpaired electrons.

QUESTION: 11

Burning biomass for energy does not release

1. sulphur
2. mercury
3. nitrogen

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 ​

Solution:

Unlike the burning of coal, which releases sulphur and mercury, biomass burning does not release them. It however releases nitrogen contained within the biomass

QUESTION: 12

Extra Vehicular Activity (EVA) is related to

A.

racing and sports car driving.

B.

manoeuvre outside military aircrafts.

C.

works done outside spacecrafts

D.

underwater maintenance work of large ships.

Solution:

EVA is any activity performed by a pressure-suited crewmember in unpressurized or space environments. EVA begins with depressurization of the airlock or space module, and ends with repressurization of the space module or airlock after crewmember ingress. You might have watched the movie Gravity.

QUESTION: 13

The cell wall is present in

1. bacteria
2. blue-green algae
3. plants

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

A cell wall is a fairly rigid layer surrounding a cell located outside of the plasma membrane that provides additional support and protection. They are found in bacteria, archaea, fungi, plants, and algae. Animals and most other protists have cell membranes without surrounding cell walls.

QUESTION: 14

Consider a body at temperature of 100 units kept in a room with room temperature 20 units.

Event A : The temperature of the body decreased from 100 to 60.
Event B : The temperature of the body decreased from 60 to 20.

Q. Which of the following is true?

A.

Time taken for A is more than that for B.

B.

Time taken for A is less than that for B.

C.

Both A and B will take equal time.

D.

Data is insufficient to compare time taken.

Solution:

The question is based on Newton’s law of cooling. Newton’s Law of Cooling states that the rate of change of the temperature of an object is proportional to the difference between its own temperature and the ambient temperature (i.e. the temperature of its surroundings). So, A will take less time than B.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. TV transmission satellite is in a geostationary orbit. Geostationary orbits can only be accomplished with equatorial orbits, and since India is in the northern hemisphere this means the satellite will always be in south direction. Very few communication satellites use polar orbits, or any orbit inclined out of the equatorial plane for that matter, to prevent the need for constant reaming of the receiver dish.

QUESTION: 16

With reference to pesticides and insecticides, consider the following statements:

1. Both pesticides and insecticides kill by poisoning, suffocating or paralyzing.
2. Pesticides are a subgroup of insecticides that are specifically used for killing pests.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

1 only. The difference between a pesticide and insecticide lies in the different function each performs. A pesticide is a chemical substance that is used to kill, control, or repel pests, including mammals, fish, and insects. As the name implies, an insecticide affects only insects. This means that an insecticide is a subgroup of pesticides. Both pesticides and insecticides kill by poisoning, suffocating, or paralyzing.

QUESTION: 17

With reference to sound waves, consider the following statements:

1. Sound waves can undergo diffraction and this phenomenon is used in auditoriums to provide better hearing experience.
2. It is because of diffraction that sound can be heard around corners even though sound travel in a straight line.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Sound waves can undergo interference and this phenomenon is used in auditoriums to provide better hearing experience. It is because of diffraction that sound can be heard around corners even though sound travel in a straight line. In auditoriums, destructive interference between sound from the stage and sound reflected from other parts of the hall can create dead spots in which both volume and clarity of sound are poor. Such interference can be reduced by use of sound-absorbing materials on reflecting surfaces. On the other hand, interference can improve an auditorium’s acoustical qualities. This is done by arranging the reflecting surfaces in such a way that the level of sound is actually increased in the area in which the audience sits. When sound waves pass around an obstacle or through an opening in an obstacle, the edge of the obstacle or the opening acts as a secondary sound source, sending out waves of the same frequency and wavelength (but of lower intensity) as the original source. The spreading out of sound waves from the secondary source is called diffraction. Because of this phenomenon, sound can be heard around corners despite the fact that sound waves generally travel in a straight line.

QUESTION: 18

Ammeter and Voltmeter are used to measure current and voltage respectively. Which of the following is true about them?

A.

Ammeter is connected in series while voltmeter is connected in parallel.

B.

Ammeter is connected in parallel while voltmeter is connected in parallel.

C.

Both ammeter and voltmeter are connected in series.

D.

Both ammeter and voltmeter are connected in parallel. ​

Solution:

Ammeter is connected in series while voltmeter is connected in parallel.

Gravitational force is the weakest among the fundamental forces. There are four fundamental forces (that we know of) in our universe: Strong Nuclear, Electromagnetic, Weak Nuclear and Gravitational. The strongest one is the Strong Nuclear force, which is responsible for keeping the nuclei of atoms together. About one hundred times weaker than the strong nuclear force is the electromagnetic one. This is the strongest force that we experience in our everyday lives. In fact, whenever we touch anything we experience the Electromagnetic force. The electrons in our skin repel electrons in whatever we touch through this force. The Weak Nuclear force is the one responsible for most decays of particles and nuclei – which is where radioactivity comes from. This force is about 10 billion times weaker than the Electromagnetic force. The weakest of all is the Gravitational force. In fact, Gravitational force is 10 thousand billion billion billion billion times weaker than the Electromagnetic force.

All of these can form a virtual image. We studied these in class 8 and class 10. A virtual image is formed at the position where the paths of the principal rays cross when projected backward from their paths beyond the lens.

QUESTION: 21

The term ‘micro-finance’ frequently appears in newspapers. Micro-finance includes

Microfinance refers to a variety of financial services that target low-income clients. Since the clients of microfinance institutions (MFIs) have lower incomes and often have limited access to other financial services, microfinance products tend to be for smaller monetary amounts than traditional financial services. These services include loans, savings, insurance, and remittances (payments). So, microfinance is not limited to loans and deposits only, it includes other financial services also

QUESTION: 22

Consider the following statements about International Finance Corporation:

1. It is known as the private arm of the world bank.
2. It lends money to private sector companies of all countries.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

IFC lends money to private sector companies of its member countries only and not all countries.

QUESTION: 23

Inclusive growth is an important objective of the development process. In this context, which of the following would amount to inclusive growth?

Inclusive growth is a concept that advances equitable opportunities for economic participants during economic growth with benefits incurred by every section of society. Disinvestment is reducing the government ownership in public sector enterprises. It is not in any way related to inclusive growth. The rest three helps in inclusive growth.

QUESTION: 24

National treatment (NT) is an important policy of WTO. NT means

A.

All countries must not discriminate between imported and domestic product

B.

WTO members must not discriminate between imported and domestic product

C.

Exported products of a WTO member state must not be discriminate by other members via-a-vis domestic products

D.

Both (b) & (c)

Solution:

Statement b and c essentially implies the same thing, though they are differently worded. National treatment: Treating foreigners and locals equally – Imported and locally-produced goods should be treated equally — at least after the foreign goods have entered the market. The same should apply to foreign and domestic services, and to foreign and local trademarks, copyrights and patents. National treatment only applies once a product, service or item of intellectual property has entered the market. Therefore, charging customs duty on an import is not a violation of national treatment even if locally-produced products are not charged an equivalent tax.

QUESTION: 25

Which of the following is/are a part of the participatory development process?

1. State
2. NGOs
3. Pressure groups
4. Cooperatives

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1 ,3 and 4 only

C.

2 ,3 and 4 only

D.

1 ,2, 3 and 4 ​

Solution:

In participatory development (PD), people are willingly involved in a wide range of development activities, as agents and beneficiaries of development. Participatory development seeks to engage local populations in development projects. It is clear from the definition of PD that NGOs, Pressure Groups, and Cooperatives are involved in it. There might be some confusion over how state is a part of PD. It is actually the state activity that can facilitate or hinder PD. If state does not allow NGOs or pressure groups, how can they function? On the other hand, states through their policy and support can facilitate PD. In last few years, the role of the state in participatory development has changed: from the reconstruction and development programme to growth, employment and redistribution.

QUESTION: 26

The Trade facilitation agreement (TFA) of the WTO says that farm subsidies cannot be more than 10 percent of the

A.

Gross Domestic Product of a country.

B.

Value of agricultural production.

C.

National income of a country.

D.

Value of agricultural exports.

Solution:

Value of agricultural production. TFA runs in a clause that says farm subsidies cannot be more than 10 percent of the value of agricultural production.

Incentivizing farmers – This is done by announcing the minimum support prices (MSP) and other schemes like price stabilization fund schemes for plantation crops. The buffer stocks helps in providing food through the PDS, thus ensuring food security. It also acts as a cushion during price rises due to shortfall, thus helping in stabilizing prices.

Q. They are the characteristic feature of which phase of business/economy cycle?

A.

Recession

B.

Depression

C.

Recovery

D.

Boom

Solution:

All these are features of a boom phase of business cycle. During boom phase, the demand goes on increasing and the economy heats up. The supply is limited and hence there develops a demand-supply lag.

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following conditions is/are conducive for the formation of tropical cyclones?

1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air.
2. Large value of coriolis force.
3. Inflow of air at upper level of atmosphere.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air is the most important condition for formation of tropical cyclones. Where the coriolis force is zero (like the equator), tropical cyclones do not develop. An upper level outflow of air (and not inflow) helps in formation of tropical cyclones.

Relative humidity (RH) decreases when cold front passes over an area. Cold fronts are associated with clear sky and weather while warm fronts have clouds and rainfall.

QUESTION: 31

The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon is much more powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch because

A.

Arabian sea is larger than the Bay of Bengal.

B.

entire Arabian sea current advances towards India, whereas only a part of the Bay of Bengal current enters India.

C.

both (a) and (b)

D.

none of the above

Solution:

The Arabian Sea is larger than the Bay of Bengal. The Arabian Sea is approximately 1,491 million square miles, while the Bay of Bengal contains approximately 839,000 square miles. Both are located in Asia and are northern areas of the Indian Ocean.

The entire Arabian Sea current advances towards India, whereas only a part of the Bay of Bengal current enters India, the remainder proceeding to Myanmar, Thailand and Malaysia.

With reference to monsoon of eastern Asia and southern Asia, consider the following statements:

1. Winter monsoon in eastern Asia is stronger than summer monsoon while it is the opposite in southern Asia.
2. The burst of monsoon over southern Asia is associated with turbulent weather whereas that in east Asia is characterized by mild weather disturbances.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 ​

Solution:

These are the two essential differences between the monsoon of eastern Asia and southern Asia.

QUESTION: 34

With reference to frontal precipitation, consider the following statements:

1. Precipitation associated with a warm front is of long duration.
2. Heavy but short duration precipitation occurs because of stationary front.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Precipitation associated with a warm front is of long duration. Heavy but short duration precipitation occurs because of cold front.

QUESTION: 35

Which of the following region/s will have most of its rainfall in the months of December-January?

1. areas in the borderlands of the Mediterranean sea.
2. central and southern California coast in USA
3. central Chile

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

All these areas have Mediterranean type climate which is characterized by winter rains. As Chile is in southern hemisphere, it will have summer in the months of December-January and hence will have nil or very low rainfall. The other two areas located in northern hemisphere will have most of their annual rains in the winter months of December-January.

QUESTION: 36

The greatest damage to life and property from a hurricane is due to

A.

storm surge.

B.

torrential rains.

C.

strong winds in the hurricane

D.

both (b) and (c) ​

Solution:

While both strong winds and torrential rains cause damage, the greatest damage is due to the storm surge. Storm surge is an abnormal rise of water generated by a storm, over and above the predicted astronomical tides.

QUESTION: 37

What are the causes of low pressure in the equatorial region?

1. high temperature
2. air convergence
3. high humidity

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 only

Solution:

Due to high temperature, a low pressure belt is created in the equatorial region. This gives rise to air convergence in the area. So, air convergence is the effect of low pressure and not its cause. High humidity has no role to play in generation of low pressure areas.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following areas is/are best suited for formation of air masses?

1. an extensive area with broadly uniform surface of earth.
2. areas having cyclones.
3. hot deserts in tropical regions.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 only

Solution:

Areas having cyclones have converging air flow and are therefore not suited for formation of air masses. Air masses are formed over an extensive area with broadly uniform surface of earth like hot desert region in tropical areas. Anticyclone over an area also helps in formation of air masses as they have divergent air flow.

QUESTION: 39

The Supreme Court is a court of record. This means

1. its judgements are recorded for perpetual memory.
2. it can punish for contempt of Supreme court.
3. it can punish for contempt of High court.

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers:

(a) The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognized as legal precedents and legal references.

(b) It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country.

QUESTION: 40

With reference to the Committee on Public Undertakings consider the following statements:

1. Only a Lok Sabha member can become its chairman.
2. Unlike other committees, a minister can also become its member.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

A minister cannot become its member. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the Committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.

QUESTION: 41

In the order of precedence, the speaker has an equal rank to

A.

Vice-President

B.

Prime Minister

C.

Cabinet Ministers

D.

Chief Justice of India

Solution:

The speaker is given a very high position in the order of precedence. He is placed at seventh rank, along with the Chief Justice of India. This means, he has a higher rank than all cabinet ministers, except the Prime Minister or Deputy Prime Minister.

QUESTION: 42

Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then

A.

a joint sitting is called

B.

the bill ends and becomes dead

C.

legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time

D.

none of the above

Solution:

The legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa. The mechanism of passing the bill for the second time to resolve a deadlock applies to a bill originating in the legislative assembly only. When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.

QUESTION: 43

Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of

1. members of armed forces.
2. members of para-military forces.
3. non-combatatants employee of armed forces like barber, carpenters etc.

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

1, 2 and 3 ​

Solution:

Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces.The expression‘members of the armed forces’ also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants.

QUESTION: 44

With reference to recognized political party, consider the following statements:

1. The status is contingent on the performance of a party.
2. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

The status is of recognized party is contingent on the performance of a party. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party.

QUESTION: 45

Consider the following statements about National emergency:

1. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament within one month.
2. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha ( and not Parliament) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.

QUESTION: 46

The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on

1. public order
2. police
3. land

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

none

Solution:

These subjects are within the state list but only Parliament can make laws on them in case of Delhi.

QUESTION: 47

Who among the following takes the oath to ‘uphold the constitution and the laws’?

1. President
2. CAG
3. Supreme court Judge

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

2 and 3 only

Solution:

President takes an oath to preserve, protect and defend the constitution.

QUESTION: 48

On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?

A.

President

B.

High Court

C.

Supreme Court

D.

Election Commission of India ​

Solution:

On the question whether a member is subject to any of the disqualifications under ROPA, 1951, the president’s decision is final. However, he should obtain the opinion of the election commission and act accordingly.

QUESTION: 49

Man causes soil erosion through

1. use of improper ploughing methods.
2. leaving roots of crop in the field after harvest.
3. practicing trash farming.
4. use of heavy machines.

A.

1, 2 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

1, 3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3 and 4 only ​

Solution:

Leaving roots of the crop in the field after harvest is a called stubble mulching and it prevents soil erosion. Similarly trash farming means spreading and planting the residue in the field and it prevents soil erosion. Use of heavy machine leads to soil compaction and reduction in infiltration of rainwater. The rainwater then flows heavily as runoff and washes away the soil.

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following evidences support the theory of gradual rise in air temperature and consequent global warming?

Biofuels may lead to monoculture where farmers will prefer cultivating such crops which can be used in making biofuels. Fertilizers used in such crops will only increase the fertilizer use. Biofuels are renewable sources and this is their advantage compared to non-renewable fossil fuels.

Coal-fired power plants- Mercury exists naturally in coal, making coal-fired power plants the largest source of mercury pollution in this country

Trash incinerators Hazardous waste, medical waste, and regular garbage incinerators release 13.1 tons (or about 26,000 pounds) of mercury every year, according to statistics from the EPA. The mercury comes from common household items, such as compact fluorescent light bulbs and thermostats, and from automobile scrap.

Despite common perceptions that mercury is used in thermometers and blood pressure machines, the medical industry has switched to mercury-free versions of those tools, and medical waste now accounts for the smallest percentage of mercury emissions from incinerators.

QUESTION: 53

A balanced ecosystem is one in which the

1. number of organisms at all levels is equal.
2. amount of biomass at all trophic levels is equal.
3. organisms are interdependent on each other.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

none

Solution:

A balanced ecosystem is one in which the amount of energy synthesized and utilized is nearly equal.

QUESTION: 54

With to the IUCN classification, extinct species are those which have been:

Extinct species are those which have been completely eliminated from wild areas as well as completely eliminated from managed areas.

QUESTION: 55

The Great Indian Bustard is a critically endangered species. Its population has been declining due to

1. habitat loss
2. frequent poaching
3. construction of windmills

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

2 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

The GIBs have been vanishing over the years due to shrinking habitat. Thar Desert is the only landscape in the world that provides viable breeding population to GIBs. While changing lifestyle in the desert, and unregulated human activities have endangered the species, thousands of windmills around the park are posing a serious threat to the GIB which has been categorized as “critically endangered”.

QUESTION: 56

Which one of the following adumbrated principles and constitutional provisions which were later incorporated in the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms?

A.

Nehru Report

B.

Wavel Plan

C.

Lucknow Pact ​

D.

Poona Pact

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

Nagarjuna’s Shunyavada is expounded in—

A.

Yogachara

B.

Vaibhashika

C.

Madhyamika

D.

Sautrantilca

Solution:

Nagarjuna is widely considered one of the most important Buddhist philosopher. Along with his disciple Aaryadeva, he is considered to be the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddism. Nagarjuna is also credited with developing the philosophy of the Pranjapiyamitrasutras and, in some, with having revealed these scriptures in the world, having recovered them from the nagas (water spirits often depicted in the form of serpent-like humans). Furthermore, he is traditionally supposed to have written several treatises on Rasayana as well as serving a term as the head of Nalanda.

QUESTION: 58

The High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras to replace the Sadar Courts of Diwani and Nizamat were established in the year—

A.

1793

B.

1831

C.

1833

D.

1866

Solution:

Indian High Court Act 1861 also gave power to set up other High Courts like the High Courts of the Presidency Towns with similar powers.

Under this power, a High Court was established in 1866 at High Court of Judicature for the North-Western Provinces at Agra on 17 March 1866 by the Indian High Courts Act of 1861 replacing the Sadr Diwani Adalat.

QUESTION: 59

The earliest-Indian coins are not earlier than—

A.

7th century B.C.

B.

6th century B.C.

C.

3rd centuryl3.C.

D.

2nd century A. D. ​

Solution:

The first coins in India may have been minted around the 6th century BCE by the Mahajanapadas of the Indo-Gangetic Plain. The coins of this period were punch-marked coins called Puranas, Karshapanas or Pana.

QUESTION: 60

Given below are two statements — One labelled as Assertion (A) : and the other labelled as Reason(R):

Assertion (A) : There are instances of rural resistance in early medieval Deccan and South India.
Reason (R) : Grants of agrahara and devadana rights to brahmanas and temples respectively undermined the rights of villagers.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following correct?

A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B.

Both (A) and (k) are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)

C.

(A) is true but (R) is false

D.

(A) is false but (R) is true

Solution:

QUESTION: 61

In ancient Indian social structure the term aniravasita related to

A.

BraInnanas and Kshatriyas

B.

Vaisyas and Sudras

C.

Sudras only

D.

People outside the Varna classification

Solution:

Those Sudras who are not regarded so low as to defile the plates and vessels permanently in which they might have taken their meal. The caste system in India may have several origins, possibly starting with the well-defined social orders of the Indo-Aryans in the Vedic Period, c. 1750-500 BCE. The Vedas were ancient scriptures, written in the Sanskrit language, which contained hymns, philosophies, and rituals handed down to the priests of the Vedic religion.

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

A.

Udiyanjeral : Cheraking

B.

Nedunjeliyan : Pandya king

C.

Senganan : Chola king

D.

Pan : Pallava king

Solution:

QUESTION: 63

Biographies of Jaina Tirthankaras are found in—

A.

Kalpa Sutra

B.

Bhagavati Sutra

C.

Niryavali Sutra

D.

Uvasagadasao

Solution:

The Kalpa Sūtra (Sanskrit: कल्पसूत्र) is a Jain text containing the biographies of the Jain Tirthankaras, notably Parshvanatha and Mahavira. Traditionally ascribed to Bhadrabahu, which would place it in the 4th century BCE, it was probably put in writing 980 or 993 years after the Nirvana (Moksha) of Mahavira.

QUESTION: 64

The Polygars were

A.

Horse-traders from Afghanistan during the Mughal period

B.

A famous caste of bankers of Marwar

C.

Chiefs subordinate to the nayakas in the Vijayanagar kingdom

D.

Agents of the European companies for purchase of silk and muslin in Bengal ​

Solution:

These chiefs were known as nayakas and they usually spoke Telugu or Kannada. Many nayakassubmitted to the authority of the kings of Vijayanagara but they often rebelled and had to be subdued by military action. The amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.

QUESTION: 65

Which one of the following Sultans extended agricultural loans called sondhars to the poor peasants for promoting cultivation?

A.

Balban

B.

Alauddin Khalji

C.

Mohd. Bin Tughlaq

D.

Firoze Tughlaq

Solution:

Mohammad Bin Tughlaq the most educated sultan of Delhi introduced Taqavi' and 'Sondhar' , the loans that were given to farmers

QUESTION: 66

With reference to ‘KUSUM Scheme’, observe the following three statements:

1. It aims at promoting decentralized solar energy.

2. Under this, the farmers will be able to irrigate their crops through solar-powered agriculture pumps.

3. The central government will bear the full expenditure of this scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

A.

2 and 3

B.

1 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

1, 2 and 3

Solution:

QUESTION: 67

The Theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of—

A.

Hinduism and Buddhism only

B.

Hinduism, Buddhism and Islam

C.

Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism

D.

Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism

Solution:

The Theosophists advocated the revival and strengthening of the ancient religions of Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism. They recognized the doctrines of the transmigration of the soul. It was a movement led by westerners who glorified Indian religious and philosophical traditions.

QUESTION: 68

The Swaraj Party decided to take part in the Reforms Scheme under the Government of India Act, 1919 because—

A.

It wanted to gain political experience by forming government

B.

It wanted to expose the hallowness of the reforms provided in the Act

C.

It wanted to co-operate with the government

D.

It wanted to curtail the influence of ‘No changers’

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

The Mughal emperor who issued a firman to the English East-India Company in 1717 to trade freely in Bengal was —

A.

Bahadur Shah

B.

Shah Alam

C.

Farrukh Siyar

D.

Jahandar Shah

Solution:

Farrukh Siyar's Farman (1717) was a grant giving concessions to the English east india company and allowing them tax-free monopoly trade specially in the Mughal subah of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

QUESTION: 70

Who among the following were among those who caused major uprisings against Murshid Quli Khan?

1. Sitaram Ray
2. Udai Narayan
3. Ghulam Muhammad
4. Saadat Khan

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

1 and 4 ​

Solution:

Raja Sitaram Ray s/o Udai Narayan (1658–1714) was an autonomous king, a vassal to the Mughal Empire, who revolted against the empire and established a short-lived sovereign Hindu dominion in Bengal region of the Indian subcontinent.

QUESTION: 71

With whom was the Ryotwari settlement a made?

A.

Zamindars

B.

Cultivators

C.

Muqqadams

D.

Village Panchayats

Solution:

Tax from the land was a major sources of revenue for the kings and emperors from ancient times. Rayotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820. So zamindars made peasant cultivate the land, in return British collected part of their revenue as tax.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following is Correct ?

A.

The permanent zamindari settlement of Lord Cornwallis vested the ownership of land in the zamindars

B.

The permanent zamindari settlement of Lord Cornwallis vested the ownership of land in the individual pents

C.

The permanent zamindari settlement of Lord Cornwallis vested the ownership of land in the villages communities

D.

The permanent zamindari settlement of Lord Cornwallis vested the ownership of land in the state

Solution:

The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was brought into effect by the East India Company headed by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793. This was basically an agreement between the company and the Zamindars to fix the land revenue.

QUESTION: 73

Which agricultural product did not attract the British people?

A.

Indigo

B.

Cotton

C.

Tea

D.

Coffee

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

During the Mauryan period Lakshan Adhyaksha was

A.

An officer possessing knowledge of the characteristics of animals

B.

A professional astrologer

C.

An official in charge of road marks

D.

An official in charge of mint

Solution:

QUESTION: 75

Which one of following denoted a series of coins?

A.

Gajasataka

B.

Gadhiya

C.

Hiranyadama

D.

Katisama

Solution:

Gadhaiya coins or Gadhiya coins are found from many regions in Northern India, Gujarat being one of the centers. These were imitation of Indo-Sassanian influence and are of the Silver Drachma type. They represent a period from 850AD to 950AD.

QUESTION: 76

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the - Dual Government arrangement made by the East-India Company in Bengal?

A.

The new arrangement was made to encourage agriculture

B.

Executive and judicial authority were separated

C.

Revenue administration and the administration of criminal justice were separated and were with the British and the Nawab respectively

D.

Revenue collection was entrusted to the Deputy Nawab, while military affairs were retained by the Company

Solution:

QUESTION: 77

Foreign capitalists were attracted by Indian industry for a variety of reasons. Which one of the following reasons was not one of them?

A.

Labour was extremely cheap

B.

Raw materials were readily and cheaply available

C.

Indian capitalist class wars well developed but unable to compete

D.

For many Indian products there was a ready demand the world over

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

The author who described the Revolt of 1857 as the ‘First War of Independence’ was—

A.

Ashok Mehta

B.

R.C. Mazumdar

C.

S. N. Sen

D.

V. D. Savarkar

Solution:

In India, the term ‘First War of Independence’ was first popularized by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in his 1909 book The History of the War of Indian Independence, which was originally written in Marathi.

QUESTION: 79

The three methods of land revenue assessment-batai, khet batai and long batai-were related to—

A.

Ghallabakshi

B.

Masaq

C.

Kankut

D.

Zabt

Solution:

Batai or Galla-bakhshi was a very old system which continued during the Mughal period. This was a simple method of crop-sharing in which the produce was arranged into heaps and divided into three shares, one of which was taken by the state. Under this system the peasant had the choice to pay in cash or kind.

QUESTION: 80

Of the four events mentioned below, which one was chronologically the last to take place?

A.

Simla conference

B.

Election of July 1946

C.

The offer of the Cabinet Mission Plan

D.

Muslim League joining the Interim Government

Solution:

Simla Conference: June 1945
Election of July 1946
The offer of the Cabinet Mission Plan : May 1946
Muslim league joining the interim government : After the formation of Interim government in 2 sept 1946

QUESTION: 81

In the committee which prepared the Nehru Report (1928) the Liberal Federation was by—

A.

M.R.Jayakar

B.

Tej Bahadur Sapru

C.

V. S. Srinivasa Sastri

D.

M.S.Aney

Solution:

Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, KCSI, PC was a prominent Indian freedom fighter, lawyer and politician. He was a key figure in India's struggle for independence, helping draft the Indian Constitution. He was the leader of the Liberal party in British-ruled India.

QUESTION: 82

Which of the following basic types of fertilisers not in use in India?

A.

Urea

B.

Dendrovorm

C.

Diammonium Phosphate (DAP)

D.

Muriate of Potash (MOP)

Solution:

There are 3 basic types of fertiliser used—urea, Di-ammonium Phosphate (DAP), and Muriate of Potash (MOP) but in many ways, urea dominates the sector.

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Comprehensive Cost of Cultivation Survey?

A.

The Comprehensive Cost of Cultivation (CoC) Survey is a mechanism for data generation on cost structure of forested land and required cost of making that land cultivable.

B.

The Comprehensive Cost of Cultivation (CoC) Survey is a mechanism for data generation on cost structure of crops and various inputs which are used for cultivation of different crops in India.

C.

The Comprehensive Cost of Cultivation CoC) Survey is a mechanism for data generation on cost structure of lands and various inputs which are used for cultivation of different crops in India.

D.

The Comprehensive Cost of Cultivation (CoC) Survey is a mechanism for data generation on cost structure of Kharif crops and various inputs required for cultivation of Kharif crops in India.

Solution:

The Comprehensive Cost of Cultivation (CoC) Survey is a mechanism for data generation on cost structure of crops and various inputs which are used for cultivation of different crops in India. The survey has been designed by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and the data collection is performed annually by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation.

QUESTION: 84

The Situational Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households aimed at

I. at capturing the condition of agricultural households in the rural areas of the country in the context of policies and programmes of Government of India.
II. to collect information on various aspects relating to farming and other socio-economic characteristics of agricultural households.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A.

Only I

B.

Only II

C.

I and II

D.

Neither I nor II ​

Solution:

The Situational Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households aimed at capturing the condition of agricultural households in the rural areas of the country in the context of policies and programmes of Government of India. It was designed to collect information on various aspects relating to farming and other socio-economic characteristics of agricultural households. Information on consumer expenditure, information on income and productive assets, their indebtedness, farming practices and preferences, resource availability, awareness of technological developments, access to modern technology in the field of agriculture and information on crop loss & crop insurance was also collected.

QUESTION: 85

In which of the following year WTO was established?

A.

January 1, 1994

B.

January 1, 1995

C.

January 1, 1996

D.

January 1, 1997

Solution:

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business.

Q. Which of the followings is/are among the forms of Preferential Trade Agreement?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

I and III

D.

All of the above

Solution:

Preferential Trade Agreements (PTAs) have been proliferating, especially since the establishment of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1994. As of 1st December 2015, the WTO had received notifications of no less than 619 PTAs (disaggregated by goods, services, or accessions), of which 413 were already in force.

QUESTION: 87

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Partial Scope Agreement (PSA)?

A.

An agreement which is only partial in scope, meaning it allows for trade between countries on a small number of goods.

B.

A preferential arrangement in which members reduce tariffs on trade among themselves, while maintaining their own tariff rates for trade with non members.

C.

A free-trade agreement in which members apply a common external tariff (CET) schedule to imports from non members.

D.

The market where movement of factors of production is relatively free amongst member countries. ​

Solution:

Preferential Trade Agreements (PTAs) have five distinguish forms with each subsequent arrangement being a deeper form of integration, requiring more coordination and a greater loss of autonomy.

QUESTION: 88

What is Economic Union?

A.

A common market where movement of factors of production is relatively free amongst member countries.

B.

A common market where movement of factors of production is restricted amongst member countries.

C.

A common market where member countries coordinate macro-economic and exchange rate policies.

D.

A common market where member countries coordinate macro-economic policies never cooperate exchange rate policies

Solution:

An economic union is a common market where member countries coordinate macro-economic and exchange rate policies.

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?

A.

An agreement which is only partial in scope, meaning it allows for trade between countries on a small number of goods.

B.

A preferential arrangement in which members reduce tariffs on trade among themselves, while maintaining their own tariff rates for trade with non members.

C.

A free-trade agreement in which members apply a common external tariff (CET) schedule to imports from non members.

D.

The market where movement of factors of production is relatively free amongst member countries.

Solution:

A free trade agreement is a preferential arrangement in which members reduce tariffs on trade among themselves, while maintaining their own tariff rates for trade with non members.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following is correct regarding Custom Union?

A.

A market where movement of factors of production is relatively free amongst member countries.

B.

A market where movement of factors of production is restricted amongst member countries.

C.

A market where member countries coordinate macro-economic and exchange rate policies.

D.

The free-trade agreement in which members apply a common external tariff (CET) schedule to imports from non members.

Solution:

A customs union (CU) is a free-trade agreement in which members applies a common external tariff (CET) schedule to imports from non members where an economic union is a common market where member countries coordinate macro-economic and exchange rate policies.

QUESTION: 91

India has signed bilateral Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with several Asian economies but which one of following Asian country India never signed a bilateral Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with?

Recently, the Government of India has amended rule 23 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961. On a pilot basis, e-postal ballot system has been introduced by for service voters consisting of:

A.

armed police forces of the Union

B.

armed forces of a State serving outside that State

C.

Those employed under the Government of India in a post outside India.

D.

All of the above forces personnel.

Solution:

The Government has amended rule 23 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 enabling service voters, including armed forces personnel, to cast their vote in elections through e-postal ballot.
Under this system a blank postal ballot paper would be transmitted to them electronically. The armed forces personnel serving in remote and border areas would be greatly benefitted since the present system of two-way transmission of ballot paper by the postal services has not been able to meet the expectations of the service voters.

1. The main objective is to provide piped cooking gas to all the residents of Varanasi within two years.
2. Seven East India cities including Varanasi, Patna, Jamshedpur, Kolkata, Ranchi, Bhubaneswar and Cuttack will be the major beneficiaries of the project.

Q. Choose the correct statements:

A.

Only 1

B.

Only 2

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

None of the above.

Solution:

Key features of Urja Ganga:

I. The main aim of Urja Ganga project is to provide pipe line along overall Varanasi to provide cooking gas to the residents of Varanasi within next two years.
II. The Pipeline will cost worth Rs. 51,000 crores and will be 1,500 km covered long gas pipeline along with gas stations at various locations.
III.Urja Ganga project would also enable the availability of about 5 Lakh LPG gas cylinders to the rural population in next 5 years.
IV. Construction of 20 CNG stations is also the part of project.
V. 20 Lakh is the estimated number of households which will get the piped gas connection under the Urja Ganga project in Eastern region of India.
VI. Seven East India cities including Varanasi, Patna, Jamshedpur, Kolkata, Ranchi, Bhubaneswar and Cuttack will be the major beneficiaries of the project.
VII.Government has also planned to develop 25 industrial clusters in these 5 states using the gas from this pipeline.
VIII.A total of 2540 km long natural gas pipeline would be laid under the project in 5 states.

QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements regarding the first National Tribal Carnival recently inaugurated:

I. It has been organized by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to promote a sense of inclusiveness amongst the tribals.
II. According to census 2011, Mizoram has the largest proportion of scheduled tribal population in India.

Q. Choose the correct the statements:

A.

Only I

B.

Only II

C.

Both I and II

D.

None of the above.

Solution:

The first National Tribal carnival has been organized by Ministry of Tribal Affairs to promote a sense of inclusiveness amongst the tribals. The carnival showcases and promotes various facets of tribal culture on a large scale.

The underlying idea is to preserve and promote various facets of the tribal life relating to culture, tradition, customs and their skills and to expose it to the general public with a view to utilizing the potential for overall holistic development of the Scheduled Tribes.

Census 2011: Scheduled Tribes Population

QUESTION: 96

India has moved one rank up to the 130th position in the Ease of doing business ranking for 2017. Which organization releases this index?

A.

World bank

B.

World trade organization

C.

International Monetary fund

D.

World Economic Forum

Solution:

The ease of doing business index is created by the World Bank Group. The ease of doing business index is meant to measure regulations directly affecting businesses.
A nation's ranking on the index is based on the average of 10 sub indices:

1. Starting a business – Procedures, time, cost and minimum capital to open a new business
2. Dealing with construction permits – Procedures, time and cost to build a warehouse
3. Getting electricity – procedures, time and cost required for a business to obtain a permanent electricity connection for a newly constructed warehouse
4. Registering property – Procedures, time and cost to register commercial real estate
5. Getting credit – Strength of legal rights index, depth of credit information index
6. Protecting investors – Indices on the extent of disclosure, extent of director liability and ease of shareholder suits
7. Paying taxes – Number of taxes paid, hours per year spent preparing tax returns and total tax payable as share of gross profit
8. Trading across borders – Number of documents, cost and time necessary to export and import
9. Enforcing contracts – Procedures, time and cost to enforce a debt contract
10.Resolving insolvency – The time, cost and recovery rate (%) under bankruptcy proceeding.

QUESTION: 97

The World Economic Forum has placed India at 87 in 2016 Global Gender Gap Report. Which of the following indices is not a parity index for this report?

A.

Educational attainment

B.

Political empowerment

C.

Health and survival

D.

Human Poverty Index

Solution:

The Global Gender Gap report examines four overall areas of inequality between men and women in economies around the globe:

Most of the variables used to create the index are indicators from international organizations, such as the International Labour Organization, the United Nations Development Programme and the World Health Organization.

However, The Human Poverty Index was an indication of the standard of living in a country, developed by the United Nations to complement the Human Development Index but in 2010 it was supplanted by the UN's Multidimensional Poverty Index.

I. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the World Economic Forum since 2004.
II. The Global Competitiveness Index integrates the macroeconomic and the micro/business aspects of competitiveness into a single index.
III. India has jumped 16 places in the GCI report to occupy the 39th spot.

Q. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A.

Only I

B.

I and II

C.

I and III

D.

All of the above

Solution:

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the World Economic Forum since 2004. The Global Competitiveness Index integrates the macroeconomic and the micro/business aspects of competitiveness into a single index. The GCI separates countries into three specific stages: factor-driven, efficiency-driven, and innovation-driven, each implying a growing degree of complexity in the operation of the economy.

India has jumped 16 places in the GCI report to occupy the 39th spot. In 2015-16 GCI report, India was placed at 55th position as compared to 71st rank in 2014-15 report.

QUESTION: 99

With which of the following countries India does not have agreements for civil nuclear cooperation?

A.

Russia

B.

Malaysia

C.

Sri Lanka

D.

Australia

Solution:

Till date India has signed agreements for civil nuclear cooperation with 11 countries, including the U.S., Russia, Australia, Canada and South Korea, but the upcoming agreement with Japan could be the most significant. Japan is the only country to have been the victim of a nuclear attack, and its decision to sign an agreement with India, a country that has not signed the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), would be a first. Reservations in Japan against nuclear energy have hardened after the Fukushima accident.

India and Japan also share many multilateral daises, including membership of the G-4 group that is knocking at the UN Security Council’s door for reform. Beyond symbolic reasons, Japanese nuclear energy technology and safety parameters are widely considered to be cutting-edge, and many critical parts needed for Indian reactors are made by Japanese manufacturers. These will not be available to India until the agreement is done.

QUESTION: 100

Recently the Monetary Policy Committee of RBI has cut down the repo rate by 25 basis points. With cut down in repo rate what will be the effect on inflation?

A.

Inflation will increase

B.

Inflation will decrease

C.

Inflation has nothing to do with inflation

D.

None of the above

Solution:

Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Repo rate is used by monetary authorities to control inflation.

The central bank takes the contrary position in the event of a fall in inflationary pressures. Repo and reverse repo rates form a part of the liquidity adjustment facility.