Regarding a man who intentionally broke his fast in Ramadhaan, then had sexual intercourse [with his wife]. Is he required to make up [the fast] in addition to making an expiation, or is he just required to make up [the fast] without making an expiation?

A man returned home from a journey and had not been fasting [due to his travels, so he] decided [now he was at home] to fast [the rest of the remaining day]. He then found his wife taking a bath [since she had] completed her menses; Is it permissible for him to have sexual intercourse with her in this case or should they both assume the fast for the [remainder of the] day?