Can one legitimately get from the LXX of Zechariah 14:9 to "that God may be all in all"?

Note: I have not heard him mention this verse that I can remember but I'm very influenced by Dr. Michael Heiser and his doctorate topic of Jewish binitarainism and "the second YHVH" idea which he discusses here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pl3AMS6-BfQ

For one, Paul's describing something that has not happened yet that ought to happen (ἵνα), where ask Zechariah 14:9 is an already existing state describing God's uniqueness. One is eschatological and the other is monotheistic.

Can one legitimately get from the LXX of Zechariah 14:9 to "that God may be all in all"?

Note: I have not heard him mention this verse that I can remember but I'm very influenced by Dr. Michael Heiser and his doctorate topic of Jewish binitarainism and "the second YHVH" idea which he discusses here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pl3AMS6-BfQ

Curious as to why you didn't cite 1 For 15:28 in the Greek, if you are looking for parallels or antecedents: