> Question is, is a homosexual relationship that follows the
> other scriptural
> guidelines for heterosexual relationships (Patient, kind, not
> jealous or slow
> to anger, monogamous, chaste until marriage (tho we'd have to
> let them marry
> to enforce that rule, right? OK, chaste until they move to
> Vermont and get a
> civil union) etc.) in the category of "child molestation" or
> "lefthandedness"
> in terms of being against God's will?
>
> Louise, behavioral neuroendocrinologist who hasn't made up
> her mind on this
> issue yet.

There are very clear Scripture passages that condemn homosexuality. I
am well aware of a small number of scholars who have attempted to
reinterpret these passsages, but it is clear that they are simply
trying to fit Scripture into their own perspectives. Furthermore, in
support of these passages is the natural law argument that
homosexuality is against the nature of the human person, and is
therefore quite different from lefthandedness. Finally, a third
argument is the weight of consensus in Christianity for 2000 years
that sex is reserved for marriage, and the close connection betwen
marriage and procreation.