Revelation 5:13 there is this part επι της θαλασση which translated is "on the sea". I'm wondering why John would use επι instead of εν or εις because it doesn't make sense when it's translated "on the sea" as far as the created things mentioned in the verse. I would think that "in the sea" would make more sense.

I thought I saw this question recently somewhere else? Yes, it is a somewhat unusual use of the preposition in an author known for using what even his contemporaries would regard as non-standard Greek. Pretty clear nonetheless what he means, though.

Interesting question, I have no time to reflect on this more right now, but he is talking about what he can see in a vision, assumedly from the perspective of outside of the water. So my initial reaction is that choice of επι would simply suggest a precise description of what he can see. A careful avoidance to describe what is occurring inside the sea, simply because he cannot see it. What do you think?

Revelation 5:13 there is this part επι της θαλασση which translated is "on the sea". I'm wondering why John would use επι instead of εν or εις because it doesn't make sense when it's translated "on the sea" as far as the created things mentioned in the verse. I would think that "in the sea" would make more sense.