3 Answers
3

+1 You're right. Lawler's citation reads in relevant part: "a predicate is heterological if it is not true of itself, that is, if it does not itself have the property it expresses". [emphasis added]
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MετάEdOct 15 '12 at 2:34

No apologies necessary. I'm happy I recognized it as referring to Russell's Paradox.
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John LawlerOct 15 '12 at 6:21

I guess irony would cover it if you were calling attention to the heterological nature of the word. ("German isn't German. Think about that.") However, I'm speaking more generally. And oxymoron, at least from your quoted definition, requires a "conjunction of terms", which I would think implies more than one. (Always, not just usually).
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Evan CordellOct 15 '12 at 4:33