4) Which of the following statements is not an
objective of financial reporting?

A. Provide information about enterprise resources, claims to those
resources, and changes to them.
B. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit
decisions.
C. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow
prospects.
D. Provide information on the liquidation value of an
enterprise.

A. was the forerunner of the current Accounting Principles
Board.
B. has issued a series of pronouncements entitled Statements on
Auditing Standards.
C. is appointed by the Financial Accounting Foundation.
D. is the arm of the Securities and Exchange Commission responsible for
setting financial accounting standards.

8) The major distinction between the Financial
Accounting Standards Board (FASB) and its predecessor, the Accounting Principles
Board (APB), is

A. all members of the FASB are fully remunerated, serve full time, and
are independent of any companies or institutions.
B. the FASB issues exposure drafts of proposed standards.
C. a majority of the members of the FASB are CPAs drawn from public
practice.
D. all members of the FASB possess extensive experience in financial
reporting.

9) Companies that are listed on a stock exchange
are required to submit their financial statements to the

A. APB.
B. AICPA.
C. SEC.
D. FASB.

10) Which of the following is not a generally
practiced method of presenting the income statement?

A. The single-step income statement
B. The consolidated statement of income
C. Including gains and losses from discontinued operations of a
component of a business in determining net income
D. Including prior period adjustments in determining net
income

11) Which of the following would represent the
least likely use of an income statement prepared for a business enterprise?

A. Use by labor unions to examine earnings closely as a basis for
salary discussions.
B. Use by government agencies to formulate tax and economic
policy.
C. Use by investors interested in the financial position of the
entity.
D. Use by customers to determine a company's ability to provide needed
goods and services.

12) The single-step income statement emphasizes

A. total revenues and total expenses.
B. extraordinary items and accounting changes more than these are
emphasized in the multiple-step income statement.
C. the various components of income from continuing
operations.
D. the gross profit figure.

13) The FASB concluded that if a company sells
its product but gives the buyer the right to return the product, revenue from
the sales transaction shall be recognized at the time of sale only if all of six
conditions have been met. Which of the following is not one of these six
conditions?

A. The seller's price is substantially fixed or determinable at time of
sale.
B. The buyer's obligation to the seller would not be changed in the
event of theft or damage of the product.
C. The buyer is obligated to pay the seller upon resale of the
product.
D. The amount of future returns can be reasonably estimated.

14) In selecting an accounting method for a
newly contracted long-term construction project, the principal factor to be
considered should be

A. the degree to which a reliable estimate of the costs to complete and
extent of progress toward completion is practicable.
B. the method commonly used by the contractor to account for other
long-term construc-tion contracts.
C. the inherent nature of the contractor's technical facilities used in
construction.
D. the terms of payment in the contract.

15) Which of the following is not a reason why
revenue is recognized at time of sale?

A. The sale is the critical event.
B. Title legally passes from seller to buyer.
C. All of these are reasons to recognize revenue at time of
sale.
D. Realization has occurred.

16) One criticism not normally aimed at a balance sheet prepared using current
accounting and reporting standards is

A. the extensive use of separate classifications.
B. an extensive use of estimates.
C. failure to include items of financial value that cannot be recorded
objectively.
D. failure to reflect current value information.

17) The balance sheet is useful for analyzing
all of the following except

19) If a business entity entered into certain
related party transactions, it would be required to disclose all of the
following information except the

A. nature of any future transactions planned between the parties and
the terms involved.
B. dollar amount of the transactions for each of the periods for which
an income state-ment is presented.
C. amounts due from or to related parties as of the date of each
balance sheet presented.
D. nature of the relationship between the parties to the
transactions.

20) Events that occur after the December 31,
2008 balance sheet date (but before the balance sheet is issued) and provide
additional evidence about conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and
affect the realizability of accounts receivable should be

A. disclosed only in the Notes to the Financial Statements.
B. used to record an adjustment to Bad Debt Expense for the year ending
December 31, 2008.
C. used to record an adjustment directly to the Retained Earnings
account
D. discussed only in the MD&A (Management's Discussion and
Analysis) section of the annual report.

21) The full disclosure principle, as adopted by
the accounting profession, is best described by which of the following?

A. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial
statements is to be included in the notes to the financial statements.
B. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements
so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable
decision.
C. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence
the judgment of an informed reader.
D. All information related to an entity's business and operating
objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements.

22) A financial forecast per professional
pronouncements presents to the best of the responsible party's knowledge and
belief,

A. an assessment of the company's ability to be successful in the
future.
B. given one or more hypothetical assumptions, an entity's expected
financial position, results of operations, and cash flows.
C. an assessment of the company's ability to be successful in the
future under a number of different assumptions.
D. an entity's expected financial position, results of operations, and
cash flows.

23) Which of the following best characterizes
the difference between a financial forecast and a financial projection?

A. A forecast attempts to provide information on what is expected to
happen, whereas a projection may provide information on what is not necessarily
expected to happen.
B. A forecast includes data which can be verified about future
expectations, while the data in a projection is not susceptible to
verification.
C. A forecast is normally for a full year or more and a projection
presents data for less than a year.
D. Forecasts include a complete set of financial statements, while
projections include only summary financial data.

24) The MD&A section of an enterprise's
annual report is to cover the following three items:

25) Theoretically, in computing the receivables
turnover, the numerator should include

A. sales.
B. credit sales.
C. net credit sales.
D. net sales.

26) When should an average amount be used for
the numerator or denominator?

A. When a ratio consists of an income statement item and a balance
sheet item
B. When the numerator is an income statement item or items
C. When the denominator is a balance sheet item or items
D. When the numerator is a balance sheet item or items

27) The calculation of the number of times
interest is earned involves dividing

30) The primary purpose of the statement of cash flows is to provide information

A. about the cash receipts and cash payments of an entity during a period.
B. about the entity's ability to meet its obligations, its ability to pay dividends, and its needs for external financing.
C. that is useful in assessing cash flow prospects.
D. about the operating, investing, and financing activities of an entity during a period.

31) In reporting extraordinary transactions on a statement of cash flows (indirect method), the

A. net of tax amount of an extraordinary gain should be deducted from net income.
B. gross amount of an extraordinary gain should be added to net income.
C. net of tax amount of an extraordinary gain should be added to net income.
D. gross amount of an extraordinary gain should be deducted from net income.

32) Which of the following would be classified as a financing activity on a statement of cash flows?

A. Sale of a loan receivable
B. Payment of interest to a creditor
C. Deposit to a bond sinking fund
D. Declaration and distribution of a stock dividend

33) Riley Company reports its income from investments under the equity method and recognized income of $25,000 from its investment in Wood Co. during the current year, even though no dividends were declared or paid by Wood during the year. On Riley's statement of cash flows (indirect method), the $25,000 should

A. be shown as cash outflow from financing activities.
B. be shown as a deduction from net income in the cash flows from operating activities section.
C. be shown as cash inflow from investing activities.
D. not be shown.

34) Which of the following tables would show the smallest factor for an interest rate of 10% for six periods?

A. Future value of an annuity due of 1
B. Present value of an annuity due of 1
C. Present value of an ordinary annuity of 1
D. Future value of an ordinary annuity of 1

35) Which table would show the largest factor for an interest rate of 8% for five periods?

A. Future value of an annuity due of 1
B. Future value of an ordinary annuity of 1
C. Present value of an ordinary annuity of 1
D. Present value of an annuity due of 1

36) Which of the following transactions would require the use of the present value of an annuity due concept in order to calculate the present value of the asset obtained or liability owed at the date of incurrence?

A. A ten-year 8% bond is issued on January 2 with interest payable semiannually on July 1 and January 1 yielding 7%.
B. A capital lease is entered into with the initial lease payment due upon the signing of the lease agreement.
C. A capital lease is entered into with the initial lease payment due one month subse-quent to the signing of the lease agreement.
D. A ten-year 8% bond is issued on January 2 with interest payable semiannually on July 1 and January 1 yielding 9%.