It's easy to do a quick search, but analyzing results takes time, and I know that some people have studied this in some depth without coming up with a good answer. One thing I noticed right off: the phrase ἕως ἄρτι is reasonably common, so I wanted to see if we see ἕως νῦν. I can't find that, but I do find ἕως τοῦ νῦν, with the article. Is there a difference that requires the article in this phrase?

This is the kind of question that is hard for even experts, the kind of thing that people write research papers about. And for now, it's probably a question to postpone until you are comfortable reading pages of Greek. They may not be identical, but I'm not sure we know what the difference is, and treating them as identical is good enough for now. Some day you might write that paper and tell us the answer.

It's easy to do a quick search, but analyzing results takes time, and I know that some people have studied this in some depth without coming up with a good answer. One thing I noticed right off: the phrase ἕως ἄρτι is reasonably common, so I wanted to see if we see ἕως νῦν. I can't find that, but I do find ἕως τοῦ νῦν, with the article. Is there a difference that requires the article in this phrase?

Thanks for linking to the other thread. That and what you said is very enlightening...

I try to search the forum before posting certain questions that I feel have likely came up before, but I didn't see that thread.

Would you say that Abbott's Johannine Grammar is outdated or is it good to read today? If so I think i'll read it, if it's not too outdated in your opinion.

This is the kind of question that is hard for even experts, the kind of thing that people write research papers about. And for now, it's probably a question to postpone until you are comfortable reading pages of Greek. They may not be identical, but I'm not sure we know what the difference is, and treating them as identical is good enough for now. Some day you might write that paper and tell us the answer.

It sounds like a fun research project! But I think i'll take your advice and just view them as the same for now, with Abbott's statement in mind.

By the way, I am also studying Hebrew. Isn't אַיֵּה just the feminine form of אֵי?

Why would an interrogative particle have a feminine form? Perhaps you mean to ask if it's אֵי with a feminine pronoun attached to it? No, that is not what it is. First off, the ending for feminine pronouns will never be -ēh. It will either be -āh, -éha or -ếha. Look at the examples of אַיֵּהhere. It means the same thing as אֵיפֹה.