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My teacher gave this as a possible question: Health risks change considerably as development occurs.Discuss.

Any ideas on concluding points.

I was thinking you could say yes they do as seen in the epidemiological transition model. But you could also argue that some health risks especially those affecting stage 4 of the model; also impact on other countries across whole development spectrum such as HIV

(Original post by 555xxx555)
That would have been great. Cant believe that the question did not even relate to causes. Did you find it alright

To be honest the question stumped me a bit - spoke about the change in industry in a more developed nation - less exercise and high mass consumption which links to Bartley and Blane's 2008 behavioural health risk model (focussed on USA). Also spoke about in developing nations health risks are falling due to an increase in aid to promote sanitation and education and gave a couple of examples (The red cross and wateraid in Mali). gave a couple of anomalies for example the Marshall Islands in the Pacific where Obesity is over 50% despite being a developing nation as well as the susceptibility of developing nations to acute communicable epidemics which targets a much broader section of the population.

I said that health risks were not increasing or decreasing in either developed or developing countries but instead changing type, for example in a developed country chronic diseases become more prevalent like diabetes...... Not sure if I've answered the question properly to be honest :/