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State Bank of India bank clerk exam question papers of previous years

Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time there lived a queen in the city of Benaras. Her name was Khema and she was the wife
of King Bahuputtaka. One night, the Queen had a dream of a beautiful golden goose that spoke with
great wisdom, almost as if he was a sage. She told her husband that she desperately wanted to see a
bird just like the one in her dream. So the King asked his ministers to find out all that they could about a
bird such as this. He was told that such a bird did exist but was extremely rare and difficult to find. They
advised him to build a beautiful lake on the outskirts of Benaras so that he may attract such rare and
lovely creatures to reside there. In this way the queen might have her wish.
Towards the north, on Mount Cittakuta, there lived about ninety thousand wild geese headed by a
beautiful golden goose called King Dhatarattha. He got to hear of this exquisite lake surrounded by
water lilies and lotuses floating on the surface. The King had invited all the birds to come and live on
it, promising that none of them would ever be harmed. Corn was scattered on a daily basis in order to
attract the birds. So a couple of geese went up to their King, the golden goose and told him that they
were quite tired of living up on the mountains and would like to see this wonderful lake where they had
been promised food and protection. The king agreed to their request and took the flock down south
towards Benaras. Meanwhile, at the lake King Bahuputtaka had placed hunters all around in order to
capture any golden goose that happened to pass by. So the next morning when the headhunter saw this
flock of geese approaching he was very excited to see their golden leader. He immediately went about
setting up a snare amongst the water lilies and lotuses, as he knew that the leader would definitely be
the first to alight.
The whole flock came flying down in one mighty swoop and as expected it was the King's foot that
touched the water first. He was ensnared and could not escape. Seeing this, the other geese flew into a
panic. But none had the courage to try to free their king and so flew back to Mount Cittacuta for safety.
All except one. He was the chief captain, Sumukha. King Dhatarattha entreated him to fly to safety too,
as he would surely be captured if he stayed by his side. But Sumukha replied that he would never desert
his master in the face of danger and would either try to save him or die by his side.
At this point the hunter approached and as Sumukha saw him he decided to appeal to his compassion.
The hunter asked the golden goose how come he had not noticed the trap that was set. The golden
goose replied that when one's time was up it was no use to struggle against what was fated and one
must just accept it. The huntsman was very impressed with his grace and wisdom. He then turned
to Sumukha and asked why he had not fled with the other birds even though he was free to do so.
Sumukha answered that the golden goose was his King, best friend and master and that he could never
desert him even at the cost of his own life. Hearing this, the hunter realised that these were a couple of
rare birds of great nobility. He did not much care for his own King's reward and decided to do the right
thing and set them free. He told Sumukha that as he was ready to die for his King he would set them
both free to fly wherever they wish.
1. Why were the geese keen on visiting the lake in Benaras ?
(A) They were invited personally by king Bahuputtaka
(B) They were tired of their old lake
(C) They were amused by the water lilies and lotuses
(D) The lake was not very far from the mountains
(E) To lake was to be source of good food and protection
Ans : (C)
2. Why did the king approach the ministers ?
(A) In order to find out the best location for the lake
(B) In order to find out if a golden goose existed
(C) To enquire about his wife's dreams
(D) To devise a plan to capture all rare bird species
(E) To enquire about the best hunter in the locality
Ans : (B)
3. What advice did the ministers give to the king ?
(A) That no such golden goose existed and he was only wasting his time searching for one
(B) To create an artificial golden goose for the queen
(C) To build a lake in order to attract the golden goose
(D) To open a sanctuary of rare birds for the queen
(E) To have a beautiful garden surrounded by flowers and trees
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following statements would best describe the qualities of Sumukha ?
(1) Betrayer of the flock
(2) The Selfless Goose
(3) Loyal towards the king
(4) The naive and ignorant goose
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (4)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)
5. What was the king's intention behind building a lake ?
(A) To attract all rare species of living animals and birds
(B) To beautify the city of Benaras
(C) He did not want to go against the wishes of his wife
(D) He wanted to capture the golden goose
(E) He enjoyed bird watching and wanted to create a natural habitat for them
Ans : (D)
6. Why did the head hunter release the king, the golden goose ?
(A) He was impressed by his wisdom and nobility
(B) The geese were a rare species of birds
(C) The golden goose, King Dhatarattha promised him a handsome reward
(D) The hunter sympathised with the golden goose
(E) The hunter did not want the chief captain to lose a friend
Ans : (A)
7. Why did the flock of geese panic and retreat to Mount Cittacuta ?
(A) Their king took the wrong route to the lake and they lost their way
(B) Their king, the golden goose was captured
(C) Their chief captain, Sumukha betrayed the king
(D) They spotted many hunters by the lake
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 8 to 10) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
8. Desert
(A) Displease
(B) Encourage
(C) Instigate
(D) Escort
(E) Abandon
Ans : (E)
9. Exquisite
(A) Expensive
(B) Delicate
(C) Elaborate
(D) Wonderful
(E) Efficient
Ans : (D)
10. Snare
(A) Trap
(B) Alarm
(C) Plan
(D) Arrangement
(E) Protection
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In each of the following sentences, and idiomatic expression or a proverb is
highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
11. The team put their plan into execution the very next day—
(A) proposed a plan
(B) discussed their plan
(C) started thinking about a plan
(D) started carrying out their plan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
12. Mrs. Nayak opened the discussion on the “alarming rate of poverty in India”—
(A) started the discussion
(B) gave her opinion in the discussion
(C) did not agree on the discussion
(D) welcomed the people to the discussion
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. The course of events made it necessary for Joseph to start working—
(A) events that were planned
(B) long list of future events
(C) A succession of unexpected events
(D) nature of events that followed after Joseph joined work
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. The new law on “Right to Food Safety” will come into force next month—
(A) be forced upon the people
(B) be associated from next month onwards
(C) be implemented next month
(D) be withdrawn next month
(E) be widely rejected next month
Ans : (C)
15. When the girl wanted to stay out past midnight, her father put his foot down ?
(A) gave in to her request
(B) walked away disapprovingly
(C) obstructed her from leaving the house
(D) requested her to be home on time
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no
error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. Nuclear waste will still being (A) / radioactive even after twenty thousand years, (B) / so it must be
disposed (C) / of very carefully. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)
17. My friend lived at the top (A) / of an old house (B) / which attic had been (C) / converted into a flat.
(D) No Error (E)
Ans : (E)
18. A public safety advertising (A) / campaign in Russia (B) / hope to draw attention (C) / of pedestrians
crossing the road. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)
19. A cash prize was (A) / award to the most (B) / successful salesman of the year (C) / by the President
of the company. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)
20. The Renaissance was (A) / a time to ‘re-awakening’ (B) / in both the arts (C) / and the sciences. (D)
No Error (E)
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicates that something has
been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. Many leading members of the opposition party … to justify the party's decision.
(A) having tried
(B) has tried
(C) have been trying
(D) tries
(E) is trying
Ans : (C)
22. The state-of-the art school is … with a medical clinic and fitness centre.
(A) establish
(B) illustrative
(C) having
(D) equipped
(E) compromising
Ans : (D)
23. The Bhagavad Gita is a part of the Mahabharata, but it stands … and is … in itself.
(A) dependent, incomplete
(B) together, justified
(C) separate, dignified
(D) apart, complete
(E) united, connected
Ans : (D)
24. The artist's work of art is worthy … praise.
(A) for
(B) of
(C) to
(D) about
(E) to be
Ans : (C)
25. The charity … most of its money through private donations.
(A) receives
(B) borrows
(C) uses
(D) proposes
(E) invests
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These
are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt,
if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
26. The ship (A) was at sea for many days and finally (B) anchored (C) near the costline. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
27. Employees must familiarise (A) themselves with the health (B) and safety (C) mannual (D) of the
organization. All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)
28. The political (A) environment (B) is not condusive (C) to economic reforms. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (C)
29. The report (A) found that the safety (B) equipment had been very poorly (C) maintained. (D) All
Correct (E)
Ans : (B)
30. Some of our regular listeners (A) have complained (B) about the new programme (C) schedule. (D)
All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Rearrange the following six sentences / group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below
them.
(1) The merchant greedily counted his gold and said, “The purse I dropped had 200 pieces of gold in it.
You've already stolen more than the reward ! I Go away or I will tell the police.”
(2) The judge, looking towards the merchant said, “you stated that the purse you lost contained 200
pieces of gold. Well, that's a considerable cost. But, the purse this beggar found had only 100 pieces of
gold”.
(3) Being an honest man, the beggar came forward and handed the purse to the merchant saying, “Here
is your purse. May I have my reward now ?”
(4) “This purse therefore cannot be the one you lost.” And, with that, the judge gave the purse and all
the gold to the beggar.
(5) A beggar found a leather purse that someone had dropped in the marketplace. On opening it, he
discovered that it contained 100 pieces of gold. Then he heard a merchant shout, “A reward! A reward
to the one who finds my leather purse”.
(6) “I am an honest man,” said the beggar defiantly. “Let us take this matter to the court. The judge
patiently listened to both sides of the story.
31. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (B)
33. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 6
Ans : (C)
34. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearragement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 3
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata. It is the only
philosophical song existing in all languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It …36…
light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in the …37… of a dialogue between Arjuna
and Krishna on the battlefield. Arjuna's mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his friends
and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjuna is the …38… of the tortured spirit of man torn by
conflicting obligations and
moralities.
The dialogue proceeds and takes us to the higher level of individual duty and social behaviour,
application of ethics to practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is …39… to
reconcile the three paths of human advancement– the path of knowlede, the path of action and the
path of faith. But more …40… is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life,
keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.
36. (A) provides
(B) shines
(C) enforces
(D) secures
(E) seeks
Ans : (A)
37. (A) programme
(B) constitution
(C) part
(D) formation
(E) form
Ans : (E)
38. (A) conceived
(B) dream
(C) source
(D) figures
(E) symbol
Ans : (E)
39. (A) generated
(B) made
(C) established
(D) coined
(E) given
Ans : (B)
40. (A) important
(B) significant
(C) declaration
(D) emphasis
(E) blessings
Ans : (D)

General English
(Exam Held on 16-1-2011)Second Shift
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time in a village, there lived six blind men. In spite of their blindness, they had managed
to educate themselves. Seeking to expand their knowledge, they decided to visit a zoo and try out their
skills in recognizing animals by their touch. The first animal they came across, as soon as they entered
the zoo, was an elephant.
As the first man approached the elephant, the elephant waved its trunk, and the man felt something
brush past him. Managing to hold on to it, he felt it, and found something long and moving. He jumped
back in alarm, shouting “Move away ! This is a snake !” Meanwhile, the second man had moved closer,
and walked right near its legs. As the man touched the thick, cylindrical–shaped legs, he called out “Do
not worry. These are just four trees here. There is certainly no snake !” The third man was curious
hearing the other two, and moved forward. As he walked towards the elephant, he felt his hand touch
one of the tusks. Feeling the smooth, sharp ivory tusk, the man cried out “Be careful ! There is a sharp
spear here”. The fourth man cautiously walked up behind the elephant, and felt its swinging tail. “It’s
just a rope ! There is nothing to be afraid of !” he said. The fifth man had meanwhile reached out
and was touching the huge ears of the animal. “I think all of you have lost your sense of touch !” he
said. “This is nothing but a huge fan!” The sixth man did not want to be left out. As he walked towards
the elephant, he bumped into its massive body, and he exclaimed, “Hey ! This is just a huge mud wall!
There is no animal at all !” All six of them were convinced that they were right, and began arguing
amongst themselves.
Wondering what the commotion was all about, the zoo keeper arrived at the scene, and was surprised
to see six blind men surrounding an elephant, each of them shouting at the top of their voice ! “Quiet”
he shouted out, and when they had calmed down, he asked, “Why are all of you shouting and arguing
in this manner ?” They replied, “Sir, as you can see, we are all blind. We came here to expand our
knowledge. We sensed an animal here, and tried to get an idea of its appearance by feeling it. However,
we are not able to arrive at a consensus over its appearance, and hence are arguing. Can you please help
us and tell us which of us is right” ?
The zoo keeper laughed before answering, “My dear men, each of you has touched just one portion
of the animal. The animal you see is neither a snake, nor any of the other things you have mentioned.
The animal in front of you is an elephant !” As the six men bowed their head, ashamed of the scene
they had created, the zoo keeper said, “My dear men, this is a huge animal, and luckily, it is tame. It
stood by calmly as each of you touched it. You are extremely lucky that it stayed calm even during your
argument, for if it had got angry, it would have trampled all of you to death !” He continued further, “It
is not enough to gather knowledge, but it is also important to learn to share and pool your knowledge.
Instead of fighting amongst yourselves, if you had tried to put all your observations together, you
might have had an idea of the animal as a whole ! Also, when you cannot see the entire truth, it is
better to go to someone who does know the complete truth, rather than guess about small parts of
it. Such halfknowledge is not only useless, but also dangerous. If you had come directly to me, I would
have helped you identify all the animals without putting you in danger !” The six men apologized to
the zoo keeper, and assured him that they had learnt their lesson. From now on, they would seek true
knowledge from qualified people, and would also try to work together as a team so that they could learn
more.
1. Which part of the elephant resembled a big fan ?
(A) The wide ears
(B) The mouth
(C) The long slender trunk
(D) The big wrinkled body
(E) The end of the tail
Ans : (C)
2. Why did the six blind men visit the zoo ?
(A) They wanted to touch an elephant
(B) They had heard a lot about animals
(C) They wanted to visit the animals in the zoo
(D) They wished to recognize animals by their touch and feel
(E) They had never been to a zoo before
Ans : (D)
3. What was the first thing the blind men came across as they entered the zoo ?
(A) A large mud wall
(B) The zoo keeper
(C) The trees
(D) The elephant
(E) A snake
Ans : (D)
4. Why is it that each of the six blind men had different impressions of the elephant ?
(a) Each of them touched only a portion of the elephant
(b) Each of the six blind men approached different animals
(c) The blind men were touching the surroundings instead of the elephant
(d) They had never touched an elephant before
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (a) and (c)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (b) and (d)
(E) Only (b)
Ans : (C)
5. Why were the six men arguing and shouting amongst themselves ?
(A) Each of them wanted his voice to be heard over and above the others
(B) Each of them thought he was right about the animal
(C) There was a lot of noise in the zoo and they couldn’t hear each other
(D) They were having an interesting debate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. What advice did the zoo keeper give to the six blind men ?
(A) That the elephant was tame and obedient
(B) That they were very lucky to have had the opportunity to visit the zoo
(C) That it was important to share knowledge and work together as a team
(D) That they were not qualified to be knowledgeable individuals
(E) That the elephant is made up of different parts
Ans : (A)
7. Which statement best describes the zoo keeper’s behaviour towards the six blind men ?
(A) The zoo keeper insulted the six men
(B) The zoo keeper presented himself to be as ignorant as they were
(C) The zoo keeper helped them and assisted them further
(D) The zoo keeper was indifferent towards the six blind men
(E) The zoo keeper prohibited the six blind men from entering the zoo
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 8–10) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
8. Convinced
(A) certain
(B) doubtful
(C) pressured
(D) committed
(E) daring
Ans : (A)
9. Pool
(A) expand
(B) gather
(C) devote
(D) apply
(E) combine
Ans : (A)
10. Consensus
(A) harmony
(B) agreement
(C) information
(D) order
(E) inference
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is
highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
11. In all likelihood the missing boy has run away to the forest.
(A) With good intentions
(B) There’s no chance
(C) Without doubt
(D) In most probability
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
12. The parents were completely in the dark concerning their daughter’s plans.
(A) ignorant about
(B) ashamed of
(C) pretending to be unaware
(D) unhappy about
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. I am in touch with the police, and they will be here in ten minutes.
(A) in communication with
(B) in close proximity with
(C) in good terms with
(D) familiar with
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. I stumbled upon some interesting old letters in my Grandfather’s desk.
(A) deliberately went through
(B) surveyed
(C) tripped over
(D) discovered by chance
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. The secretary made an entry of the arrangement.
(A) initiated discussion
(B) made a record
(C) brought notice
(D) showed approval
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
16. In times of crisis, (A) / the Bhagavad Gita gives light (B) / and guide to the mind tortured by doubt (C)
/ and torn by conflict of duties. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
17. It was not easy for late Raja Ram Mohan Roy (A) / to root out the custom of sati (B) / because a
majority of (C) / the educated class does not support him. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
18. Deplete of the Ozone layer (A) / and the greenhouse effect (B) / are two long-term effects (C) / of air
polluttion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
19. Most of the people which (A) / have been victims (B) / of extreme violence (C) / are too frightened to
report it to the police. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
20. The doctor helps (A) / to reducing human suffering (B) / by curing diseases (C) / and improving
health. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicates that something has been
omitted. Choose the word / group of words that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
21. When I was training for the marathon, I …… run over 100 kilometres a week.
(A) have to
(B) would
(C) will
(D) destined
(E) use to
Ans : (B)
22. My colleague is one of the kindest people ……….
(A) that I knows
(B) I know
(C) who I know
(D) which I know
(E) I had known
Ans : (B)
23. The lawyer’s ……… led to the resolution of the problem.
(A) behaviour
(B) fees
(C) advice
(D) impact
(E) approval
Ans : (C)
24. The government claims that ……… in the telecommunications industry will mean lower prices for
customers.
(A) budget
(B) finance
(C) instalments
(D) decrease
(E) competition
Ans : (E)
25. Sarah was walking along the street ……… she tripped over.
(A) when
(B) as
(C) while
(D) then
(E) however
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These
are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt,
if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.
26. All the competitors (A) completed (B) the race, (C) with just one exeption. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
27. Poor posture (A) can lead (B) to muscular (C) problems (D) in later life. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
28. The pump (A) shut off (B) as a result (C) of a mecanical (D) failure. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
29. The Principal (A) gave a very pompous (B) speach (C) about. ‘The portals (D) of learning’. All correct
(E)
Ans : (C)
30. Copeing (A) with her mother’s long illness (B) was a heavy load (C) to bear. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following six sentences/group of sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below :
1. To his surprise, a little honeybee came before his throne and said, “Of all the gifts you could give me,
only one will do. I’d like the power to inflict great pain whenever I choose to.”
2. I hereby give you a sharp sting. But, I am sure you will use this weapon carefully only in times of anger
and strife.
3. “What an awful wish !” said great Zeus, “But I will grant it”.
4. And to this day, the little honeybee dies after it stings.
5. One day, Zeus, the King of Mount Olympus, was giving out gifts to beasts, birds and insects.
6. “You will get to use it only once, for using it will cost you your life.”
31. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (E)
32. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
33. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
34. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Day dreaming is often overlooked as a proper dream and …(36)… instead as wandering thoughts.
However, the meanings to your nightly dream symbols are also …(37)… to your day dreams. The content
in your day dreams are helpful in understanding your true feelings and will help you in …(38)… your
goals. Day dreaming is the spontaneous imagining or recalling of various images or experiences in the
past or the future. When you daydream, you are accessing your right brain, which is the creative and
feminine side of your personality. Worrying about something creates visual images in your brain of
the worst outcome that you are imagining and is a form of daydreaming. By repeating these negative
images in your mind, you are more likely to make them happen. So the next time you start worrying,
try to think of a positive outcome. Positive daydreaming is very healthy and acts as a temporary …(39)
… from the demands of reality. It is also a good way to …(40)… built up frustrations without physically
acting them out.
36. (A) composed
(B) determined
(C) thought
(D) felt
(E) regarded
Ans : (E)
37. (A) duplicated
(B) present
(C) established
(D) applicable
(E) depictive
Ans : (D)
38. (A) thinking
(B) holding
(C) achieving
(D) realise
(E) capturing
Ans : (C)
39. (A) solitude
(B) healing
(C) gateway
(D) passage
(E) escape
Ans : (E)
40. (A) adjust
(B) confirm
(C) capture
(D) release
(E) demonstrate
Ans : (E)

Paper: SBI Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009 (Reasoning)
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters
of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such
word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your
answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called
‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows
underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference
between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical
series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in
the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be
coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters
between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very
beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in
that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which
follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the
second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654

(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will
be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted
from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the
difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest
number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest
number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which
follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S

(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Here is the State Bank of India bank clerk exam question paper which you are looking for

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0•7 per cent to 1•5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)