Confusion of mine with Arcaic English

I understand that words such as mine and thine are used whenever the following word starts with a vowel or an 'H'. However, if I have this sentence...
"Only mine healeth heart goes whither thine heart leads."

... and I omit the second 'heart', should I still switch to 'thy', or could it remain 'thine' since it's still referring to her 'heart'?

I understand that words such as mine and thine are used whenever the following word starts with a vowel or an 'H'. However, if I have this sentence...
"Only mine healeth heart goes whither thine heart leads."

... and I omit the second 'heart', should I still switch to 'thy', or could it remain 'thine' since it's still referring to her 'heart'?

Oooh!! Oooh! In that case, have the second syllable of "healed" written to indicate it's pronounced, like this: "Only mine healéd heart goeth whither thine heart leads." That'll keep the rhythm going.

Bear in mind, however, that by the 1600s or 1700s it seems to be totally arbitrary whether one used mine and thine before words beginning with h (my source for this is the Responsive Psalter we use at church). But if you go with those possessive pronouns, you have to drop the h when reading. So it'd be "Only mine 'ealéd heart goeth whither thine 'eart leads." So if you just want to use my and thy, go ahead. Or my and thine. I rather like that. Go for the art of it.

Bear in mind, however, that by the 1600s or 1700s it seems to be totally arbitrary whether one used mine and thine before words beginning with h (my source for this is the Responsive Psalter we use at church). But if you go with those possessive pronouns, you have to drop the h when reading. So it'd be "Only mine 'ealéd heart goeth whither thine 'eart leads." So if you just want to use my and thy, go ahead. Or my and thine. I rather like that. Go for the art of it.

Click to expand...

I worry that it wouldn't be very readable...
Alas, she might not understand me. It might fit one of my poems though, in which the speaker (well, me) is a pirate.

What I'm not clear on is what you intend 'healeth' to mean. I'm guessing either 'healed' or 'healing' which each has its own connotations. It would be better in this case to use whichever of 'healed' or 'healing' you actually mean.

This works too, though I must point out that both leadeth and doth lead are present tense. In biblical texts of the King James variety, you will find the two syntactic constructions perfectly interchangeable and being chosen, one over the other, more for sake of rhythm and meter than anything else.

I'm currently overhauling one of my poems. You have all been a great help. I had some severe misconceptions (namely that -eth was a replacement for -ed ), but I've been doing some further reading as well, and I'm fixing all that. Meanwhile thanks to everyone.

I'm currently overhauling one of my poems. You have all been a great help. I had some severe misconceptions (namely that -eth was a replacement for -ed ), but I've been doing some further reading as well, and I'm fixing all that. Meanwhile thanks to everyone.

That translator makes no claims to be highly accurate, and good thing too, because it's really bad. I flicked through a couple of random sentences and it would conjugate infinitives, mistake nouns for verbs, conjugate more than one verb per subject, get pronoun cases wrong...

I'm no expert, but those are the things that stood out to me instantly.
Thou shouldst spend, perchance, a little time with thy nose in books which regard this subject. Surely will it yield results more authentic.