Russia did not cause Bill Clinton's inept, dying, drunken, corrupt, unaccomplished wife to lose the election. They had nothing to do with it. There
is no evidence of any such thing. She lost. It's over.

Saying this will never change the fact that Trump is also inept, corrupt and unaccomplished. It also proves that someone like that can win an
election.

Yep, she lost because she was a horrible person and it was between who people thought was less worse than the other.

It was also a a win based on the idea that Clinton screwed over Sanders. Basically it was a protest win and the next election is going to be worse.
The winner only has to say they dislike Trump and will not be based on their morals, accomplishment or how much experience they have.

It will be another protest win in regard to it not being Trump and the it is the American people who will lose once again.

The President may authorize, through the Attorney General, electronic surveillance without a court order for the period of one year provided it is
only for foreign intelligence information;[7] targeting foreign powers as defined by 50 U.S.C. § 1801(a)(1),(2),(3)[12] in certain conditions; and
there is no substantial likelihood that the surveillance will acquire the contents of any communication to which a United States person is a
party.[13]

The Attorney General is required to make a certification of these conditions under seal to the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court,[14] and report
on their compliance to the House Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence and the Senate Select Committee on Intelligence.[15]

Since 50 U.S.C. § 1802(a)(1)(A) of this Act specifically limits warrantless surveillance to foreign powers as defined by 50 U.S.C. §1801(a) (1),(2),
(3) and omits the definitions contained in 50 U.S.C. §1801(a) (4),(5),(6) the act does not authorize the use of warrantless surveillance on: groups
engaged in international terrorism or activities in preparation therefore; foreign-based political organizations, not substantially composed of United
States persons; or entities that are directed and controlled by a foreign government or governments.[16] Under the FISA act, anyone who engages in
electronic surveillance except as authorized by statute is subject to both criminal penalties[17] and civil liabilities.[18]

Under 50 U.S.C. § 1811, the President may also authorize warrantless surveillance at the beginning of a war. Specifically, he may authorize such
surveillance "for a period not to exceed fifteen calendar days following a declaration of war by the Congress".[19]

what part do I need to explain to you using small words so you will understand?

Not sure how to help you? This exchange feels familiar...the profound reality disconnect..

I see you posting text...None of which supports what you are claiming?

What part of that do you think allows a US President to order a Wire-Tap an American Citizen?

This is the first I have heard of this accusation, for Trump to make such brazen claims suggests he has evidence to back it up - what that evidence
is, is unknown and how it ties directly to Obama is so very very interesting.

Could this be the mother of all fake news, or the camel that breaks Obamas back?

For Trump to make such brazen claims suggests he has evidence to back it up? Not true, he has a pattern of saying things with no evidence, especially
brazen claims. If he wants people to believe him, he'll have to provide evidence.

well...you don't know that. There was ample of media mediated allegation...but im not sure there was ample evidence. Especially under FISA instead
of criminal court. It should have been the FBI investigating using criminal proceedings.

The whole thing is strange. I'd like to believe Obama didn't just get caught performing seditious acts. But he's the same man who weaponized the IRS
for political use. So i don't have much faith.

originally posted by: Berns23
AFAIK, a FISA cannot be obtained unless there is at least some evidence of wrongdoing to justify it. There is no evidence of collusion between Trump
and Russia, so a FISA would have been illegal in the first place.

The President can order a wiretap when it deals with foreign government up to a year without a court order.

The President may authorize, through the Attorney General, electronic surveillance without a court order for the period of one year provided it is
only for foreign intelligence information;[7] targeting foreign powers as defined by 50 U.S.C. § 1801(a)(1),(2),(3)[12] in certain conditions; and
there is no substantial likelihood that the surveillance will acquire the contents of any communication to which a United States person is a
party.[13]

The Attorney General is required to make a certification of these conditions under seal to the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court,[14] and report
on their compliance to the House Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence and the Senate Select Committee on Intelligence.[15]

Since 50 U.S.C. § 1802(a)(1)(A) of this Act specifically limits warrantless surveillance to foreign powers as defined by 50 U.S.C. §1801(a) (1),(2),
(3) and omits the definitions contained in 50 U.S.C. §1801(a) (4),(5),(6) the act does not authorize the use of warrantless surveillance on: groups
engaged in international terrorism or activities in preparation therefore; foreign-based political organizations, not substantially composed of United
States persons; or entities that are directed and controlled by a foreign government or governments.[16] Under the FISA act, anyone who engages in
electronic surveillance except as authorized by statute is subject to both criminal penalties[17] and civil liabilities.[18]

Under 50 U.S.C. § 1811, the President may also authorize warrantless surveillance at the beginning of a war. Specifically, he may authorize such
surveillance "for a period not to exceed fifteen calendar days following a declaration of war by the Congress".[19]

what part do I need to explain to you using small words so you will understand?

Not sure how to help you? This exchange feels familiar...the profound reality disconnect..

I see you posting text...None of which supports what you are claiming?

What part of that do you think allows a US President to order a Wire-Tap an American Citizen?

Again so pay attention...

When the wiretap is directed a foreign government and a US citizen is incidentally caught up in it.

I cant make it an easier to understand so if you still cannot grasp this your on your own and can waste someone elses times trying to explain it to
you and others.

originally posted by: windword
Talk about spin and fake news! There was ample "probable cause" for the FISA warrant.

The FISA warrant was only granted when Obama narrowed his request
to look for banking connections to Russia on a server in Trump Tower.

If the tap was continued and used broadly, it was illegal.

It was the FBI, not Obama, and I don't care about your "IFS"! I care about facts! What makes you think that the FISA warrant expired, and that
surveillance continued anyway? Where's your evidence? This is just spin, fake news and faux outrage!

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