I don't think so. The allegation here doesn't seem to relate to the two acts in isolation. The worry is not that
Decrying tax breaks for the wealthy is wrong.
Nor is the worry that
Taking advantage of tax breaks for the wealthy is wrong.
Rather, the wrong is a kind of compound:
It is wrong to decry tax breaks for the wealthy while also taking advantage of those same tax breaks.
In other words, the charge is one of moral inconsistency or hypocrisy . The reasoning here seems to be as follows:
[1] Moral hypocrisy is wrong.
[2] For a wealthy person to decry tax breaks for the wealthy and then take advantage of those same tax breaks amounts to moral hypocrisy.
Therefore, for a wealthy person to decry tax breaks for the wealthy and then take advantage of those same tax breaks is wrong.
This argument is clearly valid: If [1] and [2] are true, then the conclusion necessarily follows. So if there's a problem here, it lies in the truth of the premises. Are they true?
[1] is tricky....