B-Greek: The Biblical Greek Forum

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As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?

Justin Cofer wrote:As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?

The reading you choose will depend on your interpretation. Besides the ones that Evan gives, there is even a fifth quite distinct possibility:"... flesh. The God who is over all [be] blessed for ever, amen."

Justin Cofer wrote:As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?

As Cranfield's commentary points out (cited in this thread), it's basically a punctuation issue and the identification of the syntactic function depends on the punctuation.