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"As the footnote indicates, the meaning of the Greek text of this verse is uncertain and may indicate that Sarah was enabled rather than Abraham. In the main text, the words "and Sarah herself was barren" are to be understood parenthetically (as indicated by the dashes). Bruce points out that the major problem is the Greek phrase "to conceive seed" (KJV) does not mean that. Instead, it refers to the father's role in the generative process. A literal translation would be "for depositing sperm" thus more likely referring to Abraham."

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Greek allows for the possibility of the reading of the NIV. Since early Greek did not distinguish between the nominative and dative of AUTH SARRA, the Greek may read something like, "By faith also through well-known Sarah he became able to beget . . . ." I personally think such a rendering is a stretch, and rather think it more likely that the AUTH SARRA is nominative following the pattern of the rest of the constructions in the chapter, and Sarah indeed is meant to be included as a primary person in the hall of faith. Most translations and commentators throughout history have also seen it this way.

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Greek allows for the possibility of the reading of the NIV. Since early Greek did not distinguish between the nominative and dative of AUTH SARRA, the Greek may read something like, "By faith also through well-known Sarah he became able to beget . . . ." I personally think such a rendering is a stretch, and rather think it more likely that the AUTH SARRA is nominative following the pattern of the rest of the constructions in the chapter, and Sarah indeed is meant to be included as a primary person in the hall of faith. Most translations and commentators throughout history have also seen it this way.

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What about the part about Abraham? Was it in the Greek? Where did they come up with that part?

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"Bruce points out that the major problem is the Greek phrase "to conceive seed" (KJV) does not mean that. Instead, it refers to the father's role in the generative process. A literal translation would be "for depositing sperm" thus more likely referring to Abraham."

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This line of thought does not seem to fit with Biblical context. Abraham had proven (by his relationship with Hagar) that he could still "cut the mustard."

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This line of thought does not seem to fit with Biblical context. Abraham had proven (by his relationship with Hagar) that he could still "cut the mustard."

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Apparently Abraham didn't think he could "cut the mustard".

He did not weaken in faith when he considered his own body, which was as good as dead (since he was about a hundred years old), or when he considered the barrenness of Sarah’s womb. Romans 4:19 ESV

There are many times when in the process of translation a bit of interpretation needs to be done.

The verse is a bit confusing because it refers both to Sarah and to a masculine function, literally the “power for the laying down of seed” [NASB95 note]
(translated as “received strength to conceive seed” in the AV

Anyway, who is the subject of the passage, Abraham or Sarah?

Verse 8: “by faith Abraham … obeyed…Verse 9: “by faith he … lived as an alien…Verse 11: “by faith… Sarah was [given power for the laying down of seed] able to conceive… Verse 12: Therefore from one man, and him as good as dead, were born descendants …

Some versions will occasionally add who is speaking into a verse when the referent mentions is ambiguous in the English translation. Example:Mark 1:43, “and Jesus said…”ESV rather than the Greek text, “and He said”NASB

I think in this instance the mention of Abraham was a clarification of a difficult verse.
I don't think it was necessary, as most other versions don't add it either., including the TNIV
The NIV does note an alternative translation: ”Or By faith even Sarah, who was past age, was enabled to bear children because she”

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The verse is a bit confusing because it refers both to Sarah and to a masculine function, literally the “power for the laying down of seed” [NASB95 note]
(translated as “received strength to conceive seed” in the AV

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