I have had no formal training beyond high-school level math; while I can be quite intelligent, please don't use 'buzzwords'; I don't know what they mean.

For myself, I'd quantify the infinities as ratios, so we have for the first A = 1/1, B = 1/1. Result is either zero or a zeroed infinity, if possible. Seeing as infinity is a mathematical concept but not a (Traditional) numerical one, that may be possible.

I remember a problem that a friend of mine posed to me. Which is greater: the number of integers between one and infinity, or the number of fractions between zero and one?

I got it wrong.

***Answer*** wrote:There are more decimal places, and here's why: for every integer between one and infinity, you can divide one by that number and get a fraction between zero and one. However, there are fractions in that range that don't have one as the numerator, so there are more fractions than integers.I figured the two were equal.

The thing I am still having a hard time figuring out is the answer I came up with the last equation. 1/2 infinity... How do you divide in half what by definition is all possible values? I mean, one way to look at it is counting endlessly by one half rather than by 1s, but although that has an infinite number of values, it is not at all the complete definition of infinity. An infinite number of values is skipped every time you count no matter how small of an increment you count by.

So, yeah... If someone could explain to me how a fraction of infinity could be handled, I would love it.

(And give him a break, Clambake. This thread stopped being serious long ago. It is pretty rare anything serious takes place on this forum anyway.)

I just meant that infinity minus infinity can be any number at all, because when you add infinity to any number you get infinity. It seems the way I chose to express this was less clever than I thought it was.