Study tips: Preparation for Success

Test anxiety is the leading cause of poor performance on any rigorous examination, so your physical and mental preparation is key to success. Often, students or test candidates have “studied” for an examination, but haven’t considered their mental and physical preparation, which is equally important to avoid “blanking out”. There are specific strategies that can help you stay in control while taking any important examination; these strategies can contribute to an increase in correctly answered questions and improved test-taking performance.

In these pages, we will identify four important areas to consider in order to ensure success on any exam:

Study Techniques

Don’t wait to study. Allow yourself over three months of preparation, and make a plan for your study time so you can stay on track.
Write it down. Write out your study plan; you’re more likely to follow something you have written down. Refer to it often for reinforcement and encouragement.

Spread out the studying and DON’T CRAM. Frequent, short sessions will remain in long-term memory better than cram sessions.

Get the information. Collect information about what to expect on the test, including the number of questions, types of questions, sections or topics to be tested, where the test center is located, and what to expect during the examination itself.

Take practice exams. Practice exams help with mental preparation and identify areas that may require more targeted review.

Review areas of weakness. It is easier to work on materials you know and like, but it is more important and fruitful to review areas in which you are deficient.

Slow down when reading. Practice pacing yourself. The techniques of slowing down and reading carefully are key to success on any examination.

Write down key points. Writing helps reinforce long-term memory. Test yourself on the points you have written down, and continue to re-write these points until you know them well. Repetition is the foundation of learning.

Use note cards or highlighters. Use techniques that have previously helped you to succeed; this is a form of repetition.

Work with a friend. Someone who is preparing for the same examination, or someone who is familiar with the profession and can ask you questions in the proper lingo, could be a good study partner.

Group items into 7 or less. Our memory works best if we can group items that we need to memorize into groups of seven or less; this really helps for those key points that we all have to memorize.

Maximize real-world experience. Jobs or internships provide great opportunities to reinforce learning – ask questions constantly! Keep a notebook to jot down new drugs, unfamiliar terms, etc. Then look the information up or review what you didn’t remember or already know.

Talk with co-workers. Ask their opinions about the exam – more information and points of view can be helpful.

Mental Preparation

Controlling test-taking anxiety is crucial to your success on any exam. Maintaining a positive attitude and ensuring proper handling of stress are critical for a favorable outcome. Self-confidence and focus are keys to your success!

Attitude, attitude, attitude:

Anxiety is good as long as you control it and use it to your advantage – you will work best in “the zone”.

Free VTNE practice questions and answers

Take our 30 VTNE practice questions in this VTNE practice test will help you review your knowledge, skill and strength on the Veterinary Technician National Exam, administered by the AAVSB.

30 free VTNE practice questions and answers. Image: Petsbest.com

To respond 30 free VTNE practice questions in this practice test: Click the button corresponding to the best answer for each question. When you are finished, click the “Submit” button at the bottom of the page. Your browser window will reload, displaying your results.

Related VTNE practice test:

This free VTNE practice test is not timed and free, so you may take it as many times as you wish.

Free Veterinary Technician Practice Questions

Which of the following is not a pain response seen in cats?

A. Hiding

B. Failure to groom

C. Purring

D. Stretching

Technician Marcus is attending a dachshund that presents with unwillingness to move, and the dog yelps every time Marcus tries to touch him. Marcus suspects:

A. Abdominal pain with guarding

B. Back pain with wind-up phenomenon

C. Back pain with lameness

D. Aggression

What type of analgesia is used for a feline declaw that provides a residual effect of 8 hours post-surgery?

A. Circumferential ring block

B. Epidural nerve block

C. Local infiltration

D. Intravenous

What class of analgesic is the drug fentanyl citrate?

A. Partial mu agonist

B. Pure opioid agonist

C. Pure opioid antagonist

D. Mixed agonist/antagonist

When providing client education to a client regarding a cat with a transdermal fentanyl patch, what is the best advice for handling the cat?

A. Don’t bathe the cat while the patch is in place

B. Avoid touching the patch

C. Let the cat rest quietly

D. Treat the cat normally

When anesthetizing an amphibian, which if the following anesthetics are usually administered by a bath method?

A. Tricaine methanesulfonate

B. Halothane

C. Diazepam

D. Xylazine

The sedative-hypnotic effects of alpha-2 drugs work by inhibiting the release of which neurotransmitter from receptors?

A. Aldosterone

B. Acetylcholine

C. Norepinephrine

D. Tyrosine

Which of the following actions will occur as the dose of an alpha-2 analgesic drug is increased?

A. Increased analgesic benefit; the degree of sedation increases

B. Decrease analgesic benefit; increase potential side effects

C. Increase analgesic benefit; decrease of potential side effects

D. No additional analgesic benefit; the degree of sedation increases

What type of anesthetic block is used for numbing the maxilla, upper teeth, nose, and upper lip?

A. Maxillary Block

B. Mandibular Block

C. Zygomatic Arch Block

D. Dental Block

The anesthetic process can be divided into several steps. Which of the following demonstrates the desirable effect of the pre-medicating step in the anesthetic patient?

A. Reduces patient stress and anxiety

B. Saves the veterinarian time in surgery

C. Prolongs the action of the induction agent

D. All of the above

When evaluating sperm morphology, abnormalities are classified as a “primary defect” if the appearance of the sperm has:

A. Tail-less heads, bent or broken tails, and protoplasmic droplets on the mid-piece

B. Increased viscosity of seminal fluid

C. Reduced mobility

D. Heads that are too large, too small, or oddly shaped; tails that are coiled; and swollen midpieces

Which of the following statements adequately describes the period of time between which a parasite can infect a host and the time at which it can be diagnosed?

A. Post-latent period

B. Post-patent period

C. Pre-patent period

D. Recovery period

Sally is about to premedicate a surgical patient with 0.011mg/kg of glycopyrrolate. What reason(s) do she and the veterinarian have for using this drug?

A. Increases heart rate

B. Dries secretions

C. Long duration of action

D. All of the above

A patient is prescribed a medication with the instructions to apply it O.S. q.i.d. x 10 days. What does this mean?

A. Apply to the left ear, every six hours, for ten days.

B. Administer by mouth, every ten hours, for five days.

C. Apply to the left eye, four times daily, for ten days.

D. Apply to the right eye, every six hours, for ten days.

An 11 ½-pound toy poodle is prescribed Ketoconazole at a recommended dose rate of 10 mg/kg, PO, bid. If the Ketoconazole tablets are 100 mg each, how many milligrams(rounded up or down to the nearest whole number) would this dog need and how often?

A. 50 mg twice daily

B. .25 mg once daily

C. 110 mg twice daily

D. 250 mg once daily

When considering classes of drugs in veterinary pharmacology, what is the mode of action for antiemetic compounds?

A. Suppress the vomiting reflex

B. Anti-parasitic

C. Reduce salivary secretions

D. Both B and C

When considering the effects of arsenic poisoning, which tissues are the most susceptible to arsenic damage?

A. Lymph nodes

B. Eyes

C. Liver

D. Bones

What is the most recognizable clinical sign that occurs almost immediately following ingestion of ethylene glycol?

A. Polydipsia

B. Diarrhea

C. Neurologic malfunction

D. Polyuria

Which of the following is the muscle in a toad responsible for expelling venom through glands?

A. Plantaris

B. Cruralis

C. Periglandular

D. Semimembranosus

What are the simple loops of suture that pass through the viscus of the stomach or bladder and are held together at the ends with a clamp called?

A. Loop sutures

B. Penrose sutures

C. Stay sutures

D. All of the above

Antibodies belong to a class of:

A. carbohydrates.

B. enzymes.

C. hormones.

D. proteins.

In ultrasonography, which of the following terms refers to tissues that reflect more sound back to the transducer than to surrounding tissues?

A. Anechoic

B. Hypoechoic

C. Hyperechoic

D. Isoechoic

A 15.4-lb (7-kg) patient under isoflurane general anesthesia exhibits a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, prolonged capillary refill time, centering of the eyes, pupil dilation, and muscle flaccidity. The most appropriate management option for this patient is to:

A. increase the isoflurane being delivered and increase the IV fluid rate.

B. reduce the isoflurane being delivered and decrease the IV fluid rate.

C. reduce the isoflurane being delivered and increase the IV fluid rate.

D. increase the isoflurane being delivered and decrease the IV fluid rate.

A 12.45 kg dog (2.2 pounds = 1 kg) presents to the clinic 8% hydrated. What is the volume of fluids required to resolve the deficit?

A. 555 mL

B. 996 mL

C. 1592 mL

D. 2192 mL

The analgesic effects of NSAIDs occur mainly because of their ability to:

A. block the transmission of pain impulses by sensory nerves.

B. inhibit the production of prostaglandins.

C. inhibit production of arachidonic acid.

D. block the sodium channels in neurons.

It shall be the responsibility of each licensee to apply for license renewal within 90 days after the expiration date each year.

A. True

B. False?

Upon complaint or information, the Board may revoke or suspend the registration of any veterinary technician.

A. True

B. False?

A veterinarian who willfully practices veterinary medicine without a license is subject to a fine of up to $100 per offense and/or imprisonment.

A. True

B. False?

“Office” means a veterinary practice facility in which the practice conducted is essentially an out-patient practice.

A. True

B. False?

All veterinary licenses shall expire annually or biennially on December 31 as determined by the Board.