Constitution Test-11

Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights:
1. Part III of the Constitution covering Fundamental Rights has been described as the Magna Carta of India.
2. The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy.
3. The Fundamental Rights aim at establishing 'a government of men'.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.3

Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
1. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
2. The Preamble is based on the 'Objectives Resolution', drafted and moved by J.L. Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
3. It has been amended by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), which added two words only - socialist and secular.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.4

Consider the following statements about district courts and other subordinate courts:
1. The control over district courts and other subordinate courts including the posting, promotion of personnel belonging to the judicial services is vested in the state government.
2. The organisational structure, jurisdiction and nomenclature of the subordinate judiciary are laid down by the state government.
3. The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the Governor of the State.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.5

Consider the following statements regarding immunities provided under the Constitution:
1. The Constitution confers immunities to the President of India and Governor of states with regard to their official acts and personal acts.
2. The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts.
3. The Constitution also grants immunity to the ministers for their official acts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.6

Consider the following statements about the procedure of the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368:
1. A bill for amendment can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member with prior permission of the President.
2. Each House of the Parliament must pass the bill separately and in case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting.
3. President can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration, to the Parliament.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.7

The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and in the States. Which of the following statements in this context are correct?
1.Collective Responsibility is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government.
2.President is both the head of the State and the head of the government.
3.The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
Codes:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.8

Consider the following statements about adjudication of inter-state water disputes:
1. Constitution under Article 262, says that, Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any such dispute or complaint.
2. Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
3. The decision of the tribunal setup under the Inter-State Water Disputes Act is final and binding on the parties to the dispute.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.9

Taxes Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the States under Article 268 includes:
1. Stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes and others.
2. Excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol and narcotics.
3. Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
Select the answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

A.

1 and 2

B.

3 only

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 and 3

Que.10

Regarding the Public Service Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission, though appointed by the Governor of the state, can be removed only by the President.
2. The Chairman and members of the JSPSC are appointed by the Governors of the concerned states.
3. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) can serve the needs of a state on the request of the state Governor without the approval of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

3 only

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

1 only

Que.11

Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies that:
1. There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation.
2. A period of 3 years is prescribed for its operation.
3. Repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
4. Once in a year parliamentary approval is required for its continuation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.

2 and 4

B.

1 and 4

C.

1 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Que.12

Which of the following statements related to the provisions mentioned in the Constitution is/are correct?
1. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Election Commission whose decision is final.
2. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other ministers shall be appointed by the Prime Minister.
Select the answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both

D.

None

Que.13

Consider the following statements related to the Vice President:
1. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed from his office only if he is removed from the office of the Vice-President.
2. The Vice President at the time of his removal, can be present and speak in the House and can take part in its proceedings, without voting.
3. The Vice-President cannot preside over a sitting of the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman, when a resolution for his removal is under consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 only

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

None

Que.14

Which of the following dispute fall under the Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
1. Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the States.
2. Inter-state water disputes.
3. Recovery of damages by a State against the Centre.
Codes:

A.

2 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

None

Que.15

In context of the power provided by the Constitution to the Parliament to reorganize the states, consider the following statements:
1. In case of Union Territory reorganization, reference need to be made to concerned legislature to ascertain its views.
2. Views of the concerned state legislature/UT are binding on the President.
3. Such laws does not require a special majority but can be passed by a simple majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

3 only

D.

All

Que.16

Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency and President's Rule:
1. There is no maximum period prescribed for the operation of National Emergency, whereas, for President's rule, it can be in operation for 3 years maximum.
2. Resolution for their continuance must be passed by a special majority.
3. Lok Sabha can pass a resolution for their revocation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 only

C.

All

D.

None

Que.17

Regarding the Office of the President of India which of the following statements is/are true?
1. His electoral college consist all members of both the Houses of Parliament, elected members of Legislative Assembly of States and UT.
2. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha only.
3. His oath of office is administered by the Vice-President of India.
4. He can resign from office by addressing the resignation letter to the Chief Justice of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 only

D.

None

Que.18

Which of the following statements about financial powers and functions of the President are correct?
1. He can make advances out of the Consolidated Fund of India to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
2. No demand for a grant can be made except on his recommendation.
3. Money bills can be introduced in the Parliament only with his prior recommendation.
Codes:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.19

Which of the following statements are correct in the context of functions performed by UPSC?
1. It is mandatory for government to consult UPSC in all disciplinary matters affecting a person such as removal or dismissal from service.
2. UPSC can serve all or any of the needs of a state on the request of the state Governor and with the approval of the President of India.
3. The UPSC presents, annually, to the President a report on its performance.
Select the answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.20

Consider the following statements about powers and functions of Prime Minister:
1. He can ask a minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
2. He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President at any time.
3. He is the crisis manager-in-chief at the political level during emergencies.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.21

The role of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. Which of the following statements in this context are correct?
1. The CAG has more freedom with regard to audit of expenditure than with regard to audit of receipts, stores and stock.
2. In addition to this legal and regulatory audit, the CAG cannot conduct the propriety audit.
3. The CAG has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the answer from the codes given below:
Codes:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 3

D.

All

Que.22

Consider the following statements about Leader of the Opposition:
1. The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the Leader of the Opposition in that House.
2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are given statutory recognition.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both

D.

None

Que.23

In context of the 73rd Amendment Act of panchayati raj, consider the following statements:
1. 21 years is the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayat.
2. There is reservation of 1/3rd seats for women in panchayat at all 3 levels.
3. There is provision for reservation to the backward classes.
4. There is fixed tenure of 5 years for panchayat at all levels.
Which of the above are the compulsory provisions of 73rd Amendment Act?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

1 and 4

Que.24

Which among the following are correct about fundamental rights:
1. They are available to Indian citizens only.
2. They are justiciable.
3. These rights are absolute.
Codes:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 3

C.

2 only

D.

1 only

Que.25

Which of the following are the federal features of the Constitution?
1. Written Constitution
2. Division of Power
3. Independent Judiciary
4. Bicameralism
Select the answer from the codes given below:
Codes: