Comments on: Monthly Gleanings: December 2006http://blog.oup.com/2006/12/monthly_gleanin3/
Academic insights for the thinking world.Fri, 09 Dec 2016 10:12:35 +0000hourly1https://wordpress.org/?v=4.6.1By: Gavin Wraithhttp://blog.oup.com/2006/12/monthly_gleanin3/#comment-408
Thu, 28 Dec 2006 17:33:52 +0000http://216.110.190.15/2006/12/monthly_gleanings_december_2006/#comment-408You remark that taking neuter plurals to be feminine singulars is a common development. I am sure that I have read somewhere a theory that, for PIE at least, the whole feminine gender was a development of inanimate plurals, and that the categorization of nouns developed from (animate/inanimate) to (masculine/feminine/neuter). Is this just a marginal hypothesis or is it widely accepted? At school I remember being taken aback that in Greek neuter plurals took singular verbs. Is that part of the evidence for the hypothesis?
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