I was wondering whence the Greeks got/coined the word Παλαιστίνη. Various sources say that it was derived from Philistine (or the like) but I don't see why, this being the case, they did not adopt some variation of Φιλιστίνη. Surely the sound of Φιλιστίνη would not have been too alien to the Greeks. I'm interested in the etymology of the issue not the politics though the question is inspired by current events in the Middle East.

demetri wrote:Why do you assume that the same people are being referred to by these two different words?

I don't assume so! I just saw some sources speculating that this may be so. I'd just like to know where Herodotus got the word Παλαιστίνη from and I expressed my doubts that it was derived from some form of Philistine.