4 Answers
4

In Acts 5:1-4 it says Ananias has lied to the Holy Spirit and has therefore lied to God:

Now a man named Ananias, together with his wife Sapphira, also sold a
piece of property. With his wife’s full knowledge he kept back part
of the money for himself, but brought the rest and put it at the
apostles’ feet.
Then Peter said, "Ananias, how is it that Satan has so filled your
heart that you have lied to the Holy Spirit and have kept for yourself
some of the money you received for the land? Didn’t it belong to you
before it was sold? And after it was sold, wasn’t the money at your
disposal? What made you think of doing such a thing? You have not lied
just to human beings but to God."

In 2 Corinthians 3:17-18 we see the Spirit is the Lord:

Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there
is freedom. 18 And we all, who with unveiled faces contemplate[a] the
Lord’s glory, are being transformed into his image with
ever-increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit.

Also plenty of other places where the Holy Spirit is described as having 'personal' characteristics.
–
DJClayworthJan 23 '12 at 14:44

In regards to the scripture in Acts, one could argue that the passage could mean the person lied to the Holy Spirit and to God (not that I believe they are separate, but just pointing that out).
–
ShredderJan 25 '12 at 1:35

@Shredder: I suppose. The original question had the implication that the Trinity is God in 3 persons so this passage makes sense in that context (by lying to 1 person in the Trinity, you are also lying to the whole: God). An analogy could be parents: by lying to your mother you are also lying to your parents.
–
styfleJan 25 '12 at 4:54

1

Along those same lines, Jesus is recorded as having warned against blaspheming the Holy Spirit (Mark 3:29, Luke 12:10). This would seem to indicate that Jesus considers the Spirit holy, indeed. There's also the commission from Jesus for the apostles to baptize in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (Matthew 28:19), which implies a divine triune unity of the persons mentioned.
–
StevenJan 25 '12 at 17:33

1

@Shredder: I completely agree. I think people could come up with a reason to explain that away if they wanted to, but as far as biblical evidence goes, those examples seem to be along the same vein of styfle's answer...or at least they raise some good questions for people who might deny the Trinity: why would Jesus suggest forgiveness for blaspheming his name, but not the Spirit; and why would Jesus suggest baptizing in the Spirit's name?
–
StevenJan 25 '12 at 19:16

We can know that the Holy Spirit is God both from his attributes (nature) and actions (function) which are inseparable in the relationship he has with the Father and the Son.In other words, we can know that the Holy Spirit is God within the doctrine known as Trinity.

Mostly the answers here were using ignorant comprehension. This is common in Seminary with this issue. (no offense)
If one goes through the entire Bible in English and Greek, you come up with an entirely different answer. For instance the personality of the Spirit is not Unique apart from God. The Bible references no verse that the Spirit desires (personhood) it also doesn't define the Spirit is a He, She or It. The word we translate He means any of them. The word is used to describe ownership and normally if the Spirit is a "He" and not an "It" the words in Greek would be "He Himself". However nowhere is scripture does it declare the Spirit definitively as a "He", although when you understand what the scriptures say the Spirit "is", it's obvious that we can apply He to what the Spirit "says." But this does not mean the Spirit is a "Person."
The only thing that defines personhood is a "Name". And since the Spirit has no name it is referred to as a "the". You don't see "Spirit said ..." the same as you would see "Jesus said ..." and, since you don't know the Spirit's name you can't understand the text. Jesus is the Spirit. But the Spirit is not Jesus. We do not pray to the Spirit, or Worship it. Nowhere in scripture does it ever say to pray to the Spirit, ask the Spirit etc. The Spirit does not respond the way a person does. There are only 2 verses in scripture that define the Spirit and I'm sure you have heard 1 of them but you ignore what it means when you read it. Most Christians refuse to believe what the text is clearly saying. The Spirit is the Living Word of God. In the first century the Word came upon believers supernaturally. Therefore, Christians are not immediately indwelled by the Spirit in current times since that was a first Century happening. Today we must study the Word. Eph 6:17 many people try and say the Word is the Spirit's sword. But they play grammatical games that do not exist in the text. And we would have to say the belt, was only a part of truth, the helmet only a piece of salvation. And implies something is missing.

John 6:63 clearly states "My (Jesus) words are the Spirit."
The Spirit is always about speaking, reading etc. Hebrews 3:7 and repeated in 4 references the Spirit spoke in the Old Testament in the Psalms. Does that mean:

"He only has some influence in Scripture" like Psalms

"All scripture is the Spirit", the Word is the Spirit?

"The Spirits sword speaks?"

Obviously only #2 can be correct.
The Words and Spirit of the message can be spoken outside of the pages of the Scriptures as it is living and active. But try and reconcile "He (it) will remind you of all that Jesus said." I know no other method to know what Jesus said. Do you believe you don't need the Bible? What the implication is, you can't know God, outside of the Bible. Especially when pastors can distort the truth you should never rely on people to explain the truth. Verify it for yourself.

How can you lie to the Word of God? By correctly understanding the Greek: You have contradicted the Word.

How can you grieve the Spirit? In the same way correctly understanding the Greek: frustrating the movement of the living aspect of the Work of the Spirit in other Christians

How can you quench the Spirit? By refusing to listen to the Word or
Shutting down someone speaking the Word.

Consider now...
- Deu 8:3 (you must have all the words of God).
- What is Baptism of the Holy Spirit?
- How are you filled with the Spirit?
- Unless you eat my flesh and drink my blood? John 5: You refuse to
come to me for that life. (Jesus claims to be the scriptures)
- How are you enabled with the Gifts of the Spirit?
- and Many more...(like what did it look like in Genesis? vyalar "He read (not "said"): Light" etc.)

Conclusion: These are ONLY done by personal reading and study of Scripture. I don't believe it happens well when you are being taught in directed learning (as it is not personal and often over your head). My personal recommendation is to read as many translations as you can when detail matters. Learn to read Greek and Hebrew or at least look up definitions and original texts to see if the implications exist in Greek/Hebrew (they often don't).

It clarifies first that the Spirit's exsistence did not begin after the Ascension of Christ. Since His words were the Spirit. Just like David's words, the other prophets, the OT cannon. etc. In 1 Cor 13:10 it says the supernatural methods of transmission (tongues, prophecy etc) would cease when the [Spirit] was perfected i.e., the New Testament Cannonization. My proof for that is of course after the fact. Tongues ceased and therefore "Perfection came." Similar to the Daily sacrifice was cut off, therefore the Messiah came. (Dan 9)
–
user2366911Oct 1 '14 at 17:33

1

I think you started out pretty good, except for the parts about "ignorant comprehension." Then you really lost track and sort of rambled on. It's hard to see what you're getting at after the first paragraph and even seems to contradict itself. I think you have much to offer the site, but academic is what we are shooting for, so quite a few of us do actually have formal theological training.
–
fredsbendOct 1 '14 at 19:32

2

Now, on to how you answered the question. The scope of the question assumes the Trinity, as traditionally defined, is accurate and is basically asking for the reasons that we should believe that the Spirit is indeed a person of the Trinity and is God. You have seemingly answered with reasons that you should not believe that. So this is an answer to a very similar question, but not this one. If that other question exists, you can post this there, but clean it up a bit first. If not, then you can ask it and self-answer.
–
fredsbendOct 1 '14 at 19:33

If John 16:13 doesn't definitively show that the Spirit is a he, then nothing can. You aren't learning from the Bible but forcing it to fit your pre-existing beliefs.
–
curiousdanniiOct 1 '14 at 23:28

Reading comprehension is a problem with many Seminary students and the reliance upon what everyone else thinks is bordering on idol worship. For instance, it is common for a Seminary or formal Bible student to claim the reason for the Gospel of John writing the book is to quote Chapter 20- "So that you may believe" however this is a horrible comprehension that is a commonly taught and clung to reality. It's used out of context and completely incoherant to the content of John.
–
user2366911Oct 3 '14 at 16:49