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I think Matthew Henry's Commentary answers your question best:
It is not so much an abuse of the body as of somewhat else, as of wine by the drunkard, food by the glutton, etc. Nor does it give the power of the body to another person. Nor does it so much tend to the reproach of the body and render it vile. This sin is in a peculiar manner styled ...

The classical Greek word ἀρρενοκοίτης (or ἀρσενοκοίτης in Koine Greek) means "sodomy" according to its usage in antiquity (please click here, and note its use and translation in paragraph 686, line 5, where the direct reference are to those Arabs who lie with other men for sexual intercourse). So there is no ambiguity of the use of this word in 1 Cor 6:9-10 ...

Yes!
A considerable portion of the text is explicitly sexual and much of the rest lends itself to rich sexual imagery. The particular verse quoted in the question uses the image of a fruit tree to describe the beloved. Both are unique among their fellows in terms of the fruitfulness and the delight they offer to the bride. While there are many ways a man ...

The concept of finding strong sexual undertones to every romantic poem may be a more recent intellectual pursuit based on Freudianism. Though he may have never really said it, ‘sometimes a cigar is just a cigar.’ One can easily tell from the tenor of the Old Testament that what occurs under the coverings of the marriage bed, or the thoughts of what might ...

I don't think any of your four options answer your question. From an Orthodox Jewish perspective, the answer to your question is that each verse serves a different purpose.
In the Torah -- the Five Books of Moses (Genesis through Deuteronomy) negative commandments (i.e. anything that says, "thou shalt not...") are brought out in two separate verses -- one ...

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, ...

It seems that many people want to quote the lexicon and be on there way, however in this case the lexicon does not tell the whole story.
While the lexicon clearly indicates that the word Arsenokoites came to mean sodomy, it is not at all clear that this is what Paul meant it to mean. Unfortunately, this word has no established context prior to Paul's use of ...

Homosexuality is an invention of the 19th century. Before then, people had words for specific sexual acts (sodomy etc.), but they did not have the concept of any inherent or acquired “sexual orientation”. This concept originated in modern psycho-pathology. To translate ἀρσενοκοίτης as “homosexual”, as some modern Bible translations do, is an anachronism, if ...

An examination of Greek compound words used to translate Hebrew may be especially helpful in sorting the meaning of Paul’s αρσενοκοίτης (arsenokoites). In using this apparent neologism – only extant in 1Cor.6:9, 1Tim.1:10, and in references back to these verses – Paul seems to have purposely avoided the available Greek vocabulary for idolatry, prostitution, ...

I would say 1. And explain it with the following:
Blessed are they which do hunger and thirst after righteousness: for they shall be filled. Matthew 5:6
Jesus is setting standards that would be impossible to meet without the Holy Spirit. But he is promising that those who strongly desire righteousness will be filled with righteousness.
Paul describes ...

Jesus is simply correcting the Sadducee's wrong assumption that the marriage ties here on earth will continue after the resurrection.
God has things in store for his followers that we can't even imagine (and I don't know about you, but I can imagine quite a lot):
But as it is written: “Eye has not seen, nor ear heard, nor have entered into the heart of ...