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2 Answers
2

Mix 1 fluid ounce of beef gravy with 59 fluid ounces of water. We don't have 1:60 yet, so the pot is "meaty." Then pour in 1 fluid ounce milk. The pot now contains 60:1 against the milk, but also 60:1 against the meat. It's therefore pareve.

Compared to my previous answer:

-- Both answers only work if there are no recognizable pieces of meat.
-- This answer is better in that the milk is "normal" milk.
-- This answer is also better in that the pot is really, really pareve (human milk, while pareve after-the-fact, should not be used to cook with meat, as it looks really weird!)
-- The previous answer is better as the only ingredients are in fact "meat" and "milk"; not "very dilute meaty substance."

Are you allowed to do this? Or would this count as a problem of אין מבטלין איסור לכתחילה?
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CuriouserMay 30 '11 at 14:56

Yes you'd be allowed to do so; at no point was there a pot of "issur" that you diluted. You took one thing that was 100% kosher (albeit dairy) and added another that was 100% kosher (albeit meat).
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ShalomOct 28 '11 at 0:15

You have a meat mixture and you are intentionally adding milk to it. When the first drop of milk hits the meat mixture, you are nullifying it l'chatchila, no?
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CuriouserOct 28 '11 at 2:37

Nope. The prohibition is to take something that is right now non-kosher, and add something to it. Pot A is kosher, Pot B is kosher.
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ShalomOct 28 '11 at 12:40

3

If you look at Ohr Sameach's answer, you will see they are talking about how does one "have" such a mixture, not "make" such a mixture. They don't say "mix", rather they say "falls in". So your "recipe" is, I think, ossur. If you disagree, find a source to allow it.
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CuriouserOct 28 '11 at 19:55