Thanks for your input on Greek pronouns. I'll verify what you say is fully
applicable in all the cases to which I have referred to in this discussion.
However, even if what you say turns out to prove that the pronoun "I" should
be understood every time Paul was quoting false teachers, that will only show
that he was quoting the written opinion of one writer, which was probably the
case anyway.

You wrote: I Timothy 3 gives qualifications for male overseers but not
female, but it also lists qualifications for both male and female deacons
(See vs. 11), which might indicate that women were eligible for one of these
offices but not the other.

It might. But I think the evidence, both biblical and extrabiblical, shows
that women held both offices in the early church. So I think this must be an
incorrect assumption.