At 8:34 AM +1000 2/13/01, Paul Cruice wrote:
>B-Greekers,
>
>1 Tim 5:8
>EI DE TIS TWN IDIWN KAI MALISTA OIKEIWN OU PRONOEI THN PISTIN
>KAI ESTIN APISTOU CEIRWN.
>This is always translated in the masculine yet there is nothing in the
>text which specifies this. In fact the grammar indicates it can be
>either masculine or feminine. This only leaves the context to determine
>the gender. That this text is part of a context is indicated by the
>connector DE and since the context before and after is "widows" the
>gender should be feminine and NOT masculine.
>Is this thinking correct???

I think you could argue this, but the pronouns and the adjective are common
gender--and although much of the immediate context does concern widows, the
larger context speaks of elders as well; I would think that verse 8 would
be as applicable to elders as to widows.