A particle moves along the x-axis so that at time t its position is given by $x(t) = t^3-6t^2+9t+11$ during what time intervals is the particle moving to the left? so I know that we need the velocity for that and we can get that after taking the derivative but I don't know what to do after that the velocity would than be $v(t) = 3t^2-12t+9$ how could I find the intervals

So, the whole discussion is about some polynomial $p(A)$, for $A$ an $n\times n$ matrix with entries in $\mathbf{C}$, and eigenvalues $\lambda_1,\ldots, \lambda_k$.

Anyways, part (a) is talking about proving that $p(\lambda_1),\ldots, p(\lambda_k)$ are eigenvalues of $p(A)$. That's basically routine computation. No problem there. The next bit is to compute the dimension of the eigenspaces $E(p(A), p(\lambda_i))$.

Seems like this bit follows from the same argument. An eigenvector for $A$ is an eigenvector for $p(A)$, so the rest seems to follow.

Finally, the last part is to find the characteristic polynomial of $p(A)$. I guess this means in terms of the characteristic polynomial of $A$.

Well, we do know what the eigenvalues are...

The so-called Spectral Mapping Theorem tells us that the eigenvalues of $p(A)$ are exactly the $p(\lambda_i)$.

Usually, by the time you start talking about complex numbers you consider the real numbers as a subset of them, since a and b are real in a + bi. But you could define it that way and call it a "standard form" like ax + by = c for linear equations :-) @Riker

"a + bi where a and b are integers" Complex numbers a + bi where a and b are integers are called Gaussian integers.

I was wondering If it is easier to factor in a non-ufd then it is to factor in a ufd.
I can come up with arguments for that , but I also have arguments in the opposite direction.
For instance : It should be easier to factor When there are more possibilities ( multiple factorizations in a non-ufd...

Does anyone know if $T: V \to R^n$ is an inner product space isomorphism if $T(v) = (v)_S$, where $S$ is a basis for $V$? My book isn't saying so explicitly, but there was a theorem saying that an inner product isomorphism exists, and another theorem kind of suggesting that it should work.

@TobiasKildetoft Sorry, I meant that they should be equal (accidently sent this before writing my answer. Writing it now)

Isn't there this theorem saying that if $v,w \in V$ ($V$ being an inner product space), then $||v|| = ||(v)_S||$? (where the left norm is defined as the norm in $V$ and the right norm is the euclidean norm) I thought that this would somehow result from isomorphism

@AlessandroCodenotti Actually, such a $f$ in fact needs to be surjective. Take any $y \in Y$; the maximal ideal of $k[Y]$ corresponding to that is $(Y_1 - y_1, \cdots, Y_n - y_n)$. The ideal corresponding to the subvariety $f^{-1}(y) \subset X$ in $k[X]$ is then nothing but $(f^* Y_1 - y_1, \cdots, f^* Y_n - y_n)$. If this is empty, weak Nullstellensatz kicks in to say that there are $g_1, \cdots, g_n \in k[X]$ such that $\sum_i (f^* Y_i - y_i)g_i = 1$.

For any transitive G action on a set X with stabilizer H, G/H $\cong$ X set theoretically. In this case, as the action is a smooth action by a Lie group, you can prove this set-theoretic bijection gives a diffeomorphism