INSIGHTS IAS REVISION PLAN FOR PRELIMS 2018 - DAILY REVISION TESTS

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Question 1 of 25

1. Question

2 points

Consider the following Statements with respect to “Preamble of the Indian Constitution”

The word ‘Fraternity ‘means – “No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior”.

It reveals Nature of the State, Objectives and Date of implementation of the Constitution.

Which of the above is/are CORRECT?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) Neither

Correct

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1: “Fraternity” –All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: It reveals Nature of the State, Objectives and Date of adoption [Not Date of Implementation] of the Constitution

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

Additional Relevant information:

INGREDIENTS OF THE PREAMBLE:

The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:

Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.

Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.

Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.

Incorrect

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1: “Fraternity” –All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: It reveals Nature of the State, Objectives and Date of adoption [Not Date of Implementation] of the Constitution

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

Additional Relevant information:

INGREDIENTS OF THE PREAMBLE:

The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:

Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.

Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.

Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.

Question 2 of 25

2. Question

2 points

Which of the following word indicates that “People have the Supreme right to make decisions” in our Preamble?

a) Republic

b) Sovereign

c) Secular

d) None of the above

Correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

The word SOVEREIGN means People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the government of India.

Hence the answer is B.

For the detailed description of terms in the Preamble, please refer to the Source mentioned below

[Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-1 Chapter-3 Constitutional Design]

Incorrect

Answer: B

Explanation:

The word SOVEREIGN means People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the government of India.

Hence the answer is B.

For the detailed description of terms in the Preamble, please refer to the Source mentioned below

[Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-1 Chapter-3 Constitutional Design]

Question 3 of 25

3. Question

2 points

Which of the following Statements is CORRECT?

a) Constitution is about values, not about institutions.

b) No Constitution in the World is based on ethnic identity.

c) A just constitution commands voluntary allegiance of the people.

d) Liberty without equality would kill the individual initiative

Correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Constitution in general is embodiment of Values. For example, Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. They guide all the articles of the Indian Constitution. But, A constitution is not merely a statement of values and philosophy. As we noted above, a constitution is mainly about embodying these values into institutional arrangements. Much of the document called Constitution of India is about these arrangements.

[Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-1 Chapter-3 Constitutional Design]

Incorrect

Answer: C

Explanation:

Constitution in general is embodiment of Values. For example, Values that inspired and guided the freedom struggle and were in turn nurtured by it, formed the foundation for India’s democracy. These values are embedded in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. They guide all the articles of the Indian Constitution. But, A constitution is not merely a statement of values and philosophy. As we noted above, a constitution is mainly about embodying these values into institutional arrangements. Much of the document called Constitution of India is about these arrangements.

[Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-1 Chapter-3 Constitutional Design]

Question 4 of 25

4. Question

2 points

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT in the Context of Democracy?

The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of Democracy

Democracy and development cannot go together

Democracies are based on Social equality

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 1 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 1 and 3 Only

Correct

Answer: B

Statement 1: Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The example of many western countries-USA and EUROPE– which have succeeded with Democracy [at least in principle] prove that Democracy and Development can go together. But that does not mean that Democracy ensures development. Democracy is Just a form of government. Economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-II Chapter 7

Incorrect

Answer: B

Statement 1: Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The example of many western countries-USA and EUROPE– which have succeeded with Democracy [at least in principle] prove that Democracy and Development can go together. But that does not mean that Democracy ensures development. Democracy is Just a form of government. Economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

Source: NCERT Democratic Politics-II Chapter 7

Question 5 of 25

5. Question

2 points

Which of the following are envisaged by the “Right to Freedom” in the Constitution of India?

8. Question

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha which got transmitted from the Rajya Sabha does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Quorum includes the Presiding Officer

Which of the following is correct?

a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 3 Only

d) 2 Only

Correct

Answer:C

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die, when the business of a session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a notification for prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is INCORRECT

STATEMENT 2: The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows:

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).

A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.

A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.

A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

STATEMENT 3: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each House including the presiding officer.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 22

Incorrect

Answer:C

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die, when the business of a session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a notification for prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.

Hence STATEMENT 1 is INCORRECT

STATEMENT 2: The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows:

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).

A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.

A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.

A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.

Hence STATEMENT 2 is INCORRECT

STATEMENT 3: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each House including the presiding officer.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 22

Question 9 of 25

9. Question

2 points

Which of the following must be voted upon as part of Parliamentary proceedings?

Private Member’s Resolution

Government Resolution

Statutory Resolution

a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 1 and 2 Only

d) All

Correct

Answer: D

Explanation: All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is to say, every resolution is a particular type of motion. All motions need not necessarily be substantive. Further, all motions are not necessarily put to vote of the House, whereas all the resolutions are required to be voted upon.

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 22

Incorrect

Answer: D

Explanation: All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is to say, every resolution is a particular type of motion. All motions need not necessarily be substantive. Further, all motions are not necessarily put to vote of the House, whereas all the resolutions are required to be voted upon.

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 22

Question 10 of 25

10. Question

2 points

Promotion of World/International peace is included in the

Preamble to the Indian Constitution

Directive Principles of State Policy

Objectives Resolution

Fundamental Duties

a) 2 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All

Correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Reg. 2 – Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

Reg. 3 – One can find in the Objectives Resolution —“The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind.”

Hence the answer is C

Source: NCERT- INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK CHAPTER-1

Incorrect

Answer: C

Explanation:

Reg. 2 – Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

Reg. 3 – One can find in the Objectives Resolution —“The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind.”

Hence the answer is C

Source: NCERT- INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK CHAPTER-1

Question 11 of 25

11. Question

2 points

Which of the following is/ are CORRECT?

The Constitution of India dictated that the Speaker does not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after dissolution

The President of India cannot nominate more than two Anglo-Indians to the House of the People as per the Constitutional mandate.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 94 of the Indian Constitution contains this provision.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is now 552 (530 members to represent the states, 20 members to represent the union territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian community to be nominated by the President, if, in his opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House)

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

Additional Relevant information:

Article 94 of the Indian Constitution:

Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People

(a) shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People;

(b) may at any time, by writing under his hand addressed, if such member is the Speaker, to the Deputy Speaker, and if such member is the Deputy Speaker, to the Speaker, resign his office; and

(c) may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House: Provided that no resolution for the purpose of clause (c) shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution: Provided further that, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution

Incorrect

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 94 of the Indian Constitution contains this provision.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is now 552 (530 members to represent the states, 20 members to represent the union territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian community to be nominated by the President, if, in his opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House)

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

Additional Relevant information:

Article 94 of the Indian Constitution:

Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker A member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People

(a) shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People;

(b) may at any time, by writing under his hand addressed, if such member is the Speaker, to the Deputy Speaker, and if such member is the Deputy Speaker, to the Speaker, resign his office; and

(c) may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House: Provided that no resolution for the purpose of clause (c) shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution: Provided further that, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution

Question 12 of 25

12. Question

2 points

Standing Committees in each house of the Indian Parliament are divided in terms of their functions. In this context, Committee on Privileges comes under which of the following category?

a) Committees to Inquire

b) Committees to Scrutinize

c) Joint Committee on Salaries and allowances of Members of Parliament

d) Committees relating to day-to-day Business of the House

Correct

Answer: A

Explanation:

(i) COMMITTEES TO INQUIRE: (a) Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public interest and also entertains representations on matters concerning subjects in the Union List; and (b) Committee of Privileges examines any question of privilege referred to it by the House or Speaker/Chairman;

(ii) COMMITTEES TO SCRUTINIZE : (a) Committee on Government Assurances keeps track of all the assurances, promises, undertakings, etc., given by Ministers in the House and pursues them till they are implemented; (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc., conferred by theConstitution or Statutes is being properly exercised by the delegated authorities; and (c) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table examines all papers laid on the table of the House by ministers, other than statutory notifications and orders which come within the purview of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation, to see whether there has been compliance with the provisions of the Constitution, Act, rule or regulation under which the paper has been laid;

(iii) COMMITTEES RELATING TO THE DAY-TO-DAY BUSINESS OF THE HOUSE: (a) Business Advisory Committee recommends allocation of time for items of Government and other business to be brought before the Houses; (b) Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions of the Lok Sabha classifies and allocates time to bills introduced by private members, recommendsallocation of time for discussion on private members’ resolutions and examines Constitution amendment bills before their introduction by private members in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha does not have such committee. It is the Business Advisory Committee of that House which recommends allocation of time for discussion on stage or stages of private members’ bills and resolutions; (c) Rules Committee considers matters of procedure andconduct of business in the House and recommends amendments or additions to the rules; and (d) Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House of the Lok Sabha considers all applications from members for leave or absence from sittings of the House. There is no such committee in the Rajya Sabha. Applications from members for leave or absence areconsidered by the House itself;

JOINT COMMITTEE ON SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF MEMBERS OF PARLIAMENT, constituted under the Salary,Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, apart from framing rules for regulating payment of salary, allowances and pension to Members of Parliament, also frames rules in respect of amenities like medical, housing, telephone, postal, constituency and secretarial facility;

Incorrect

Answer: A

Explanation:

(i) COMMITTEES TO INQUIRE: (a) Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public interest and also entertains representations on matters concerning subjects in the Union List; and (b) Committee of Privileges examines any question of privilege referred to it by the House or Speaker/Chairman;

(ii) COMMITTEES TO SCRUTINIZE : (a) Committee on Government Assurances keeps track of all the assurances, promises, undertakings, etc., given by Ministers in the House and pursues them till they are implemented; (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc., conferred by theConstitution or Statutes is being properly exercised by the delegated authorities; and (c) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table examines all papers laid on the table of the House by ministers, other than statutory notifications and orders which come within the purview of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation, to see whether there has been compliance with the provisions of the Constitution, Act, rule or regulation under which the paper has been laid;

(iii) COMMITTEES RELATING TO THE DAY-TO-DAY BUSINESS OF THE HOUSE: (a) Business Advisory Committee recommends allocation of time for items of Government and other business to be brought before the Houses; (b) Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions of the Lok Sabha classifies and allocates time to bills introduced by private members, recommendsallocation of time for discussion on private members’ resolutions and examines Constitution amendment bills before their introduction by private members in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha does not have such committee. It is the Business Advisory Committee of that House which recommends allocation of time for discussion on stage or stages of private members’ bills and resolutions; (c) Rules Committee considers matters of procedure andconduct of business in the House and recommends amendments or additions to the rules; and (d) Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House of the Lok Sabha considers all applications from members for leave or absence from sittings of the House. There is no such committee in the Rajya Sabha. Applications from members for leave or absence areconsidered by the House itself;

JOINT COMMITTEE ON SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF MEMBERS OF PARLIAMENT, constituted under the Salary,Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, apart from framing rules for regulating payment of salary, allowances and pension to Members of Parliament, also frames rules in respect of amenities like medical, housing, telephone, postal, constituency and secretarial facility;

Question 13 of 25

13. Question

2 points

In 1976, Official Language Rules were framed under the provisions of Official Languages Act, 1963 [as amended in 1967]. They apply to whole of India except to the State/UT of

14. Question

Who among the following has to resolve the disputes related to splits/mergers of Political Parties?

a) Indian Parliamentary Group

b) Lok Sabha Speaker

c) Election Commission of India

d) President on the recommendation of Supreme Court

Correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

15. Question

2 points

Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) is a combined initiative of Indian Parliamentary group and Lok Sabha Secretariat to contribute to developing stronger democratic institutions and support the efforts of ECI in carrying out its mandate and functions.

It was set up recently after 2014 general elections.

It has conducted training on Election Management to SAARC Countries in a Program supported by Ministry of External Affairs

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 3 only

d) 1 only

Correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2:In June 2011, the Election Commission of India (ECI), established the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) to advance its professional competence in election management, promote peoples participation, contribute to developing stronger democratic institutions and support the efforts of ECI in carrying out its mandate and functions.

Hence Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are INCORRECT

Statement 3: The India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) has conducted training on Election Management of SAARC Countries. It was conducted by Election Commission of India (ECI) and sponsored by the Union Ministry of External Affairs with aim of promoting free, fair, peaceful and inclusive elections.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT.

Incorrect

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2:In June 2011, the Election Commission of India (ECI), established the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) to advance its professional competence in election management, promote peoples participation, contribute to developing stronger democratic institutions and support the efforts of ECI in carrying out its mandate and functions.

Hence Both STATEMENT 1 and STATEMENT 2 are INCORRECT

Statement 3: The India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM) has conducted training on Election Management of SAARC Countries. It was conducted by Election Commission of India (ECI) and sponsored by the Union Ministry of External Affairs with aim of promoting free, fair, peaceful and inclusive elections.

Hence STATEMENT 3 is CORRECT.

Question 16 of 25

16. Question

2 points

which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT with respect to Supreme Court?

Supreme Court is the Original, exclusive and final authority related to disputes regarding the election of the President and the Vice-President.

Appeal by Special Leave is not limited to Criminal matters.

Indian Supreme Court’s scope of Judicial review is wider compared to American Counter part.

a) 1 and 3 Only

b) 2 and 3 Only

c) 1 Only

d) 1 and 2 Only

Correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vicepresident. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:

(i) It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.

(ii) It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.

(iii) It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, incometax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.

(iv) It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (of course, except a military court).

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

Statement 3:The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than what exists in the USA, though the American Constitution does not explicitly mention the concept of judicial review in any of its provisions. This is because, the American Constitution provides for ‘due process of law’ against that of ‘procedure established by law’ which is contained in the Indian Constitution.

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 26

Incorrect

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1: It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the vicepresident. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:

(i) It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.

(ii) It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.

(iii) It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, incometax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.

(iv) It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (of course, except a military court).

Hence Statement 2 is CORRECT

Statement 3:The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than what exists in the USA, though the American Constitution does not explicitly mention the concept of judicial review in any of its provisions. This is because, the American Constitution provides for ‘due process of law’ against that of ‘procedure established by law’ which is contained in the Indian Constitution.

Hence Statement 3 is INCORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 26

Question 17 of 25

17. Question

2 points

In which of the following States Governor has special responsibility with respect to law and order under Special Provisions of the Constitution?

a) Manipur

b) Arunachal Pradesh

c) Assam

d) Meghalaya

Correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

In respect of Nagaland, the Governor has special responsibilityunder Article 371 A of the Constitution with respect to law and order and even though it is necessary for him to consult Council of Ministers in matters relating to law and order, he can exercise his individual judgement as to the action to be taken. Similarly, in respect of Arunachal Pradesh, the Governor has special responsibility under Article 371 H of the Constitutionwith respect to law and order.

Incorrect

Answer: B

Explanation:

In respect of Nagaland, the Governor has special responsibilityunder Article 371 A of the Constitution with respect to law and order and even though it is necessary for him to consult Council of Ministers in matters relating to law and order, he can exercise his individual judgement as to the action to be taken. Similarly, in respect of Arunachal Pradesh, the Governor has special responsibility under Article 371 H of the Constitutionwith respect to law and order.

Question 18 of 25

18. Question

2 points

Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

Legislative Council of a state comprises not more than two-thirds of total number of members in Legislative Assembly of the state.

The Chairman of Legislative Councils is the Governor/His nominee of the concerned State.

With respect to enlargement of the Jurisdiction of the State Public Service Commission Legislative Council’s position is equivalent to that of Legislative assembly

a) 3 Only

b) All

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1 Only

Correct

Answer: A

Statement 1: Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement 2: The Chairman is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:

Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.

Approval of ordinances issued by the governor

Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.

Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 32

Incorrect

Answer: A

Statement 1: Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state. This is done to ensure the predominance of the directly elected House (assembly) in the legislative affairs of the state. Though the Constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength of a Council is fixed by Parliament

Hence Statement 1 is INCORRECT

Statement 2: The Chairman is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Statement 3: In the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:

Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council.

Approval of ordinances issued by the governor

Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.

Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission

Hence Statement 3 is CORRECT

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 32

Question 19 of 25

19. Question

2 points

Who among the following comprises of the electorate for the legislative Council?

Members of Legislative Assembly

Members of Lok Sabha of concerned State

Members of Rajya Sabha of concerned State

Registered graduates of more than three years Standing [Residing within the state]

Members of local bodies

a) 1 and 5 Only

b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Only

c) 1, 4 and 5 Only

d) All

Correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Of the total number of members of a legislative council:

1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc.,

1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state,

1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary school,

1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly, and

the remainder are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.

Thus, 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are nominated by the governor

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 32

Incorrect

Answer: C

Explanation:

Of the total number of members of a legislative council:

1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc.,

1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state,

1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary school,

1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly, and

the remainder are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.

Thus, 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are nominated by the governor

Source: INDIAN POLITY-5th EDITION-M LAXMIKANTH-CHAPTER 32

Question 20 of 25

20. Question

2 points

Which of the following Statements is/are CORRECT?

Project Monitoring Group (PMG), is an institutional mechanism for resolving a variety of issues including fast tracking of approvals for setting up an expeditious commissioning of large Public, Private and Public-Private Partnership (PPP) project.

Project Monitoring Group (PMG) is currently functioning under Cabinet Secretariat.

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both

d) None

Correct

Answer: A

Statement 1: Project Monitoring Group (PMG), is an institutional mechanism for resolving a variety of issues including fast tracking of approvals for setting up an expeditious commissioning of large Public, Private and Public-Private Partnership (PPP) project.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: Project Monitoring Group (PMG) was set up in 2013 under cabinet secretariat. PMG is presently functioning under Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) since2015.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Additional Relevant Information:

As part of its efforts to ensure timely disposal of applications submitted by investors, PMG is monitoring the development and operation of online digital platforms by various ministries and departments through its web portal e-nivesh monitor (e-nivesh.gov.in). The monitoring mechanism has been developed to track the progress achieved in online processing and disposal of different types of clearances in various central ministries/departments, etc. The portal tracks all digitalized proposals starting from the online submission till clearance by pulling the information from various online central services/ clearance portals of ministries/departments, etc.

Incorrect

Answer: A

Statement 1: Project Monitoring Group (PMG), is an institutional mechanism for resolving a variety of issues including fast tracking of approvals for setting up an expeditious commissioning of large Public, Private and Public-Private Partnership (PPP) project.

Hence Statement 1 is CORRECT

Statement 2: Project Monitoring Group (PMG) was set up in 2013 under cabinet secretariat. PMG is presently functioning under Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) since2015.

Hence Statement 2 is INCORRECT

Additional Relevant Information:

As part of its efforts to ensure timely disposal of applications submitted by investors, PMG is monitoring the development and operation of online digital platforms by various ministries and departments through its web portal e-nivesh monitor (e-nivesh.gov.in). The monitoring mechanism has been developed to track the progress achieved in online processing and disposal of different types of clearances in various central ministries/departments, etc. The portal tracks all digitalized proposals starting from the online submission till clearance by pulling the information from various online central services/ clearance portals of ministries/departments, etc.

Commonly known as the Shah Bano Act, the 1986 law was enacted by the Rajiv Gandhi government under pressure from the Muslim clergy to overturn the Supreme Court ruling in the Shah Bano case.

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act was a controversially named landmark legislation passed by the parliament of India in 1986 to allegedly protect the rights of Muslim women who have been divorced by, or have obtained divorce from, their husbands and to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Act was passed by the Rajiv Gandhi government to nullify the decision in Shah Bano case. This case caused the Rajiv Gandhi government, with its absolute majority, to pass the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 which diluted the secular judgment of the Supreme Court.

Commonly known as the Shah Bano Act, the 1986 law was enacted by the Rajiv Gandhi government under pressure from the Muslim clergy to overturn the Supreme Court ruling in the Shah Bano case.

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act was a controversially named landmark legislation passed by the parliament of India in 1986 to allegedly protect the rights of Muslim women who have been divorced by, or have obtained divorce from, their husbands and to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Act was passed by the Rajiv Gandhi government to nullify the decision in Shah Bano case. This case caused the Rajiv Gandhi government, with its absolute majority, to pass the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 which diluted the secular judgment of the Supreme Court.

Question 22 of 25

22. Question

2 points

For providing additional funds for research and related infrastructure, Higher Education Funding Agency (HEFA), has started its operations. What’s the source of funding for HEFA?

The Union Cabinet had approved HEFA in September 2016 as a Special Purpose Vehicle with a public sector bank (Canara Bank). It would be jointly funded by the promoter/bank and the MHRD with an authorised capital of ₹2,000 crore. The government equity would be ₹1,000 crore.

The Union Cabinet had approved HEFA in September 2016 as a Special Purpose Vehicle with a public sector bank (Canara Bank). It would be jointly funded by the promoter/bank and the MHRD with an authorised capital of ₹2,000 crore. The government equity would be ₹1,000 crore.

Question 23 of 25

23. Question

2 points

With reference to the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), consider the following statements:

It is based on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model in India, under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE)

What is it? The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a one-of-its-kind, Public Private Partnership (PPP) model in India, under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). A not-for-profit company set up by the Ministry of Finance, under Section 25 of the Companies Act, it has an equity base of Rs.10 crore, of which the Government of India holds for 49%, while the private sector has the balance 51%.

It aims to promote skill development by catalyzing creation of large, quality and for-profit vocational institutions.

Functions: NSDC provides funding to build scalable and profitable vocational training initiatives. Its mandate is also to enable support system which focuses on quality assurance, information systems and train the trainer academies either directly or through partnerships. NSDC acts as a catalyst in skill development by providing funding to enterprises, companies and organisations that provide skill training. It will also develop appropriate models to enhance, support and coordinate private sector initiatives.

What is it? The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a one-of-its-kind, Public Private Partnership (PPP) model in India, under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). A not-for-profit company set up by the Ministry of Finance, under Section 25 of the Companies Act, it has an equity base of Rs.10 crore, of which the Government of India holds for 49%, while the private sector has the balance 51%.

It aims to promote skill development by catalyzing creation of large, quality and for-profit vocational institutions.

Functions: NSDC provides funding to build scalable and profitable vocational training initiatives. Its mandate is also to enable support system which focuses on quality assurance, information systems and train the trainer academies either directly or through partnerships. NSDC acts as a catalyst in skill development by providing funding to enterprises, companies and organisations that provide skill training. It will also develop appropriate models to enhance, support and coordinate private sector initiatives.

Question 24 of 25

24. Question

2 points

With reference to the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS), consder the following statements:

It was launched by India

It is a regional forum of Indian Ocean littoral states

It is represented by the Navy chiefs of member states

It is a security arrangement to ensure mutual cooperation during regional wars

The IONS is a regional forum of Indian Ocean littoral states, represented by their Navy chiefs, launched by India in February 2008. It presently has 23 members and nine observers.

It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues and, in the process, endeavors to generate a flow of information between naval professionals that would lead to common understanding and possibly agreements on the way ahead.

Under the charter of business adopted in 2014, the grouping has working groups on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR), Information Security and Interoperability (IS&I) and anti-piracy now renamed as maritime security.

The IONS is a regional forum of Indian Ocean littoral states, represented by their Navy chiefs, launched by India in February 2008. It presently has 23 members and nine observers.

It is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues and, in the process, endeavors to generate a flow of information between naval professionals that would lead to common understanding and possibly agreements on the way ahead.

Under the charter of business adopted in 2014, the grouping has working groups on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR), Information Security and Interoperability (IS&I) and anti-piracy now renamed as maritime security.

Question 25 of 25

25. Question

2 points

With reference to CRISPR technology, consider the following statements:

CRISPR sequences contain snippets of DNA from viruses that have attacked the prokaryotic microorganisms

CRISPR is a family of DNA sequences in bacteria and archaea. The sequences contain snippets of DNA from viruses that have attacked the prokaryote. These snippets are used by the prokaryote to detect and destroy DNA from similar viruses during subsequent attacks. These sequences play a key role in a prokaryotic defense system, and form the basis of a technology known as CRISPR/Cas9 that effectively and specifically changes genes within organisms

CRISPR is a family of DNA sequences in bacteria and archaea. The sequences contain snippets of DNA from viruses that have attacked the prokaryote. These snippets are used by the prokaryote to detect and destroy DNA from similar viruses during subsequent attacks. These sequences play a key role in a prokaryotic defense system, and form the basis of a technology known as CRISPR/Cas9 that effectively and specifically changes genes within organisms