Regarding a man who intentionally broke his fast in Ramadhaan, then had sexual intercourse [with his wife]. Is he required to make up [the fast] in addition to making an expiation, or is he just required to make up [the fast] without making an expiation?

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Concerning an imaam of a Hanafee masjid who mentioned to his congregation that he has a book in which it mentions – if the intention for the fasts of Ramadhaan are not made before the last appointed time for the ‘Ishaa [prayer] or [even] after it or at the time of sahoor (the pre-dawn meal), then there is no reward for his fast. So is this correct or not?