Trying more general circumstances, where p is any prime, we get the simpler question of whether the product (p-1)...(p-n) is divisible by n+1 for all n <= p - 1.
Ie., for n = 1, we question whether p-1 is divisible by 2, which is trivial. (p-1)(p-2) divisibility by 3 can be seen as well with a little more care.
There is a basic divisibility theorem about these products that you may have already proven earlier. If not, it is not difficult to prove by a little inspection.

This question may only be trivial in retrospect. ;) The quotient [itex]\frac{(r-1)!}{(r-k)!k!}[/itex] trivially simplifies to [itex]\frac{(r-1)\cdots(r-k-1)}{k!}[/itex] which depends on k! successfully dividing the product on the top. This is not generally true when r is not prime. Ie., 8 does not divide 8C4.
It is then up to the OP to show why this is true for primes, but not necessarily composites.