But remember that only reality matters when getting an idea of the "performance" of an economy.

Regarding your main question... The word "credit" as such, is used to describe the scriptural ex-nihilo creation of money by commercial banks (and its debt counterpart). When the credit is reimbursed, the money is scripturally destroyed.

Money demand, in contrast, can refer to any type of demand for money, be it stemming from final consumers, firms or even commercial banks themselves. Thus, money demand is conceptually a bigger set than that that we can associate to credits.

Credit isn't necessarily linked to money. It's linked to the fact that people desire to consume today rather than tomorrow. You can have credit, borrowing and an interest rate in a cashless economy.

Demand for money could be abstracted as an extra term in the utility function and/or a cash-in-advance restriction, meaning that the individual seeks to hold money because it makes them happy and allows him to pay for real goods. This, in turn, leads to demand for money.

$\begingroup$Thank you very much for your answer. So basically an increase in demand for money doesn't necessarily mean debt (As one could sell all his bonds in order to get money). None the less and increase in credit is equal to an increase in debt as you?$\endgroup$
– FozoroJan 30 '19 at 19:18

$\begingroup$I'd say yes, credit and debt should be the same.$\endgroup$
– one_teach_wonderFeb 8 '19 at 17:42