Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 First Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST
answer.

1. The “scientific method” is (a) a hypothesis(b) a theory(c) a set of rules for forming and testing hypotheses(d) model(e) an informed guess.

2. A hypothesis is (a) an informed guess about the way nature
works(b) an experiment(c) a statement about what makes a good
control group(d) a statement about what
makes a good experimental group(e) an
ultimate question.

3. In order to be scientific, a hypothesis must(a) be true(b) address a question about nature(c) be testable (= disprovable)(d) make some prediction about the answer to an ultimate question(e) all of these.

4. Following
a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and
experimental groups (a) should be zero(b) must be zero(c) could be
zero or some other value(d) must not be
zero(e) none of these answers is
correct.

5. General
ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject
scientific hypotheses based on these ideas(b) use a reductionist approach in testing
these ideas(c) ask ultimate questions
based on such ideas(d) commonly fail to
reject testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

6. If you
measured the height of all the people in this room, then carefully recorded
those heights, you would have (a) performed an experiment(b) taken a sample of the human population(c) tested a hypothesis(d) constructed a frequency distribution(e) all of these.

7. If you
measured the height of all the people in this room, then did the same for the
11:30 Bios 101 class, you would have the data to(a) test a hypothesis(b) answer an ultimate question(c) answer a proximal question(d) demonstrate an emergent property(e) all of these.

8. If you
measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency
distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable?(a) height(b) numbers of people of a particular height(c) number of people in the room(d) mean height(e) none of these.

9. If you
measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency
distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable?(a) height(b) numbers of people of a particular height(c) number of people in the room(d) mean height(e) any of these.

10. Reductionists approach scientific problems by(a) constructing a theory(b) looking for emergent properties(c) looking for answers to ultimate
questions(d) breaking the problem down
into smaller ones(e) designing
experiments without a control group.

11. Which of
the following would biologists consider a property that emerges from a
particular organization of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and many other
chemical elements?(a) a cell(b) a human being(c) art and literature(d) all of these(e) none of these.

12. Which of
the following processes would you expect to be characteristic of all campus
plants?(a) an evolutionary history(b) ontogeny or maturation(c) metabolism(d) some kind of a response to their
immediate environment(e) all of these.

13. What do you
know about the cells of your three favorite campus plants?(a) They came from pre-existing cells.(b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions.(c) They carry out dehydration
synthesis.(d) They are eukaryotic.(e) all of these.

14. What do you
know about the bacteria that live on the underside of the leaves of your three
favorite campus plants?(a) They form
peptide bonds.(b) They are
prokaryotes.(c) They came from
pre-existing bacteria.(d) They contain
C, N, H, and O.(e) all of these.

17. Ethanol and
acetic acid(a) are both polymers(b) have properties based on their molecular
structure(c) are macromolecules(d) all of these(e) none of these.

18.
Glucose(a) is a carbohydrate(b) is a polymer(c) contains relatively large amounts of
nitrogen(d) has the same properties as
CO2 and H2O(e)
none of these.

19. Glycogen
and cellulose(a) contain many amino
acids(b) differ in the way their
glucose units are linked together(c)
perform similar functions for humans(d)
are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds(e) all of these.

21. Which of
the following would be made by the process of dehydration synthesis?(a) amino acids(b) polypeptides(c) fatty acids(d) glycerol(e) glucose.

22. Which of
the following would be broken down by the process of hydrolysis?(a) glycogen(b) starch(c) triglycerides(d) enzymes(e) all of these.

23. Beginning
with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an
enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis?(a) glycerol and fatty acids(b)
glycogen(c) glucose(d) nucleic acids(e) polypeptides.

24. Unsaturated
fatty acids (a) have double bonds between their carbon atoms(b) have nitrogen atoms in place of their
amine groups(c) have amine groups
instead of carboxyl groups(d) are
linked to nucleotides instead of glycerol(e) are produced by dehydration synthesis.

26. Glycogen
and cellulose differ in (a) the roles they play in living systems(b) the manner in which their molecules
branch(c) the way their monomers are
linked together(d) all of these(e) none of these.

27. Glycogen
and starch differ in(a) the roles they
play in living systems(b) the manner in
which their molecules branch(c) the way
their monomers are linked together(d)
all of these(e) none of these.

28. Starch and
cellulose differ in(a) the roles they
play in living systems(b) the manner in
which their molecules branch(c) the way
their monomers are linked together(d)
all of these (e) none of these.

29. The primary
structure of a polypeptide is its(a)
number of fatty acids(b) amino acid
sequence(c) manner of coiling or
folding(d) number of peptide bonds(e) sequence of nucleotides.

30. The
quaternary structure of a protein is(a)
number of amino acids(b) amino acid
sequence(c) manner of coiling
or folding(d) number of peptide
bonds(e) combination of polypeptide
subunits.

31. The
secondary structure of a polypeptide is(a) number of amino acids(b)
amino acid sequence(c) manner
of coiling or folding(d) number of
peptide bonds(e) combination of
polypeptide subunits.

37. The
information contained in nucleic acids is to be found in(a) the sequence of amino acids(b) the sequence of nucleotides(c) the tertiary and quarternary
structures(d) the manner in which the
polymer is twisted(e) all of these.

38. Which of
the following represents RNA?(a)
AATCTGCCA(b) met-ser-lys-arg-his-trp(c) GAUCGCUAUAC(d) GCGAATCGCAAT(e) leu-ala-val-gly-ser-ser-asp

39. The Central
Dogma states that in a cell, information “flows” from(a) DNA to protein to RNA(b) RNA to protein to DNA(c) protein to RNA to DNA(d) DNA to RNA to protein(e) none of these answers are correct.

40. Lewis
Thomas’ analogy of the earth as a cell is based on(a) his reductionist
approach to science(b) the large number
of polymers in cells(c) the complex
organization and many interactions that occur between both parts of earth and
parts of cells(d) the fact that both
are made primarily of C, H, and O(e)
all of these.

41. Thomas’
view of viruses is that they are(a)
agents of disease(b) eukaryotic
cells(c) mobile genes(d) the original mitochondria(e) prokaryotic cells.

42.Thomas’
claim that we are not single entities is based on (a) the large number of micro-organisms
that live in us(b) the fact that
mitochondria have their own DNA(c) his
view of viruses(d) all of these.

43. According
to Thomas, (a) most of our associations are cooperative ones(b) we have real knowledge about most of the
microbes of earth(c) soil is pretty
much sterile, lacking bacteria(d) all
of these.

44. According
to Thomas, science achieves a collective power(a) in approximately the same manner as termites(b) from a reductionist
approach to problems(c) from an understanding
of the way pheromones work(d) from a
real knowledge of most microbes(e) from
its knowledge of DNA.

45. According
to Thomas, pheromones(a) are usually
small molecules(b) act in extremely
small concentrations(c) function in a
wide variety of species(d) may operate
in humans as well as in other primates(e) all of these.

A key to this exam will be posted in the glass showcase next
to 424 Manter, probably by 12:00, but the grades will not be posted until
Friday morning.Please keep your exam.

Bios 101 Janovy
I-04-05FIRST EXAM

Choose the BEST
answer.Put your name, clicker pad
number, and the words “BS101 First Exam” on your answer sheet, and fill in the
mark/sense dots for name and pad number.If you wish to comment on a question, answer it, then write on the back
of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with choice___ because . .
.”Answer sheets are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST answer.

1.A scientific theory is (a) a true
statement(b) a false statement that
scientists try to prove true(c) an
assertion that is demonstrated to be false(d) a general explanation for natural phenomena(e) an assertion that has failed to be
falsified.

2.A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true
statement(b) a false statement that scientists
try to prove true(c) an assertion that
can be demonstrated to be false(d) a
general explanation for natural phenomena(e) an assertion that cannot be falsified.

3. Following a
scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and
experimental groups (a) should be zero(b) must be zero(c) could be
zero or some other value(d) must not be
zero(e) none of these answers is
correct.

4. General
ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject scientific
hypotheses based on these ideas(b) use
a reductionist approach in testing these ideas(c) ask ultimate questions based on such
ideas(d) commonly fail to reject
testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

5. Life’s
uniformity can be seen in(a) the manner
in which polypeptides are assembled(b)
the structure of glucose(c) cell
surface glycoproteins specific to a certain cell type(d) the characteristics that distinguish one
campus plant species from another (e) all of these.

6. A good
example of life’s enormous diversity superimposed on uniformity can be seen in
(a) use of DNA evidence to convict a criminal(b) genetic diversity of the organisms in tropical forests(c) the numbers of different polypeptides
found in a cell(d) students at UNL(e) all of these.

7. What should
the average person remember about the Permian extinction?(a) It’s when the dinosaurs died out.(b) It’s still going on today.(c) About 90% of the Earth’s biodiversity
(genera) evidently became extinct.(d)
It was caused by humans.(e) All of
these answers are appropriate ones.

8. Which of the
following could you easily find in an ecosystem if you had the right techniques
and equipment?(a) lysosomes(b) polypeptides(c) pre-predator relationships(d) organelles(e) all of these.

9. In general,
what does a “Tree of Life” based on molecular data suggest?(a) Scientific hypotheses about evolutionary
relationships can be developed and tested using appropriate technology.(b) There are two major groups of organisms
we call “bacteria.”(c) Among what we
call “bacteria” there are organisms no more closely related to one another than
to humans.(d) Dogs, mushrooms, and
campus plants are more closely related to one another than any of them is to
bacteria.(e) all of these.

10. If the
fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a)
membrane proteins to move around(b)
membrane proteins to remain fixed in place(c) lipid molecules to occur in a single layer(d) numerous lysosomes to be floating in the
membrane(e) none of these.

12.Which of the following are most likely to
contain hydrolytic enzymes?(a)
mitochondria(b) cell wall(c) chloroplasts(d) lysosome(e) nuclear envelope.

13.During the process of differentiation,
eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new
kinds of proteins(b) acquire new
functions(c) stop making some kinds of
protein(d) become parts of different
tissues(e) all of these.

14.In theories of the symbiotic origin of
eukaryotic cells, which of the following would be considered degenerate
symbionts?(a) lysosomes(b) chloroplasts and mitochondria(c) endoplasmic reticulum(d) Golgi apparatus(e) all of these.

23.A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol
and a fatty acid(b) nucleotides in
DNA(c) amino acids in a protein(d) cytochromes and
electrons(e) all of these.

24. The primary
structure of soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids(b) the sequence of its nucleotides(c) the folding of its polypeptides(d) the manner in which its nucleotides are
paired(e) the number of fatty acids
attached to its glycerol.

1.
The “scientific method” is (a) a hypothesis(b) a theory(c) a set of rules
for forming and testing hypotheses(d)
model(e) an informed guess.

2.
A hypothesis is (a) an informed guess about the way nature works(b) an experiment(c) a statement about what makes a good
control group(d) a statement about what
makes a good experimental group(e) an
ultimate question.

3.
In order to be scientific, a hypothesis must(a) be true(b) address a
question about nature(c) be testable
(= disprovable)(d) make some
prediction about the answer to an ultimate question(e) all of these.

9. If you
measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency
distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable?(a) height(b) numbers of people of a particular height(c) number of people in the room(d) mean height(e) any of these.

10. Reductionists approach scientific problems by(a) constructing a theory(b) looking for emergent properties(c) looking for answers to ultimate questions(d) breaking the problem down into smaller
ones(e) designing experiments without a
control group.

11. Which of
the following would biologists consider a property that emerges from a
particular organization of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and many other
chemical elements?(a) a cell(b) a human being(c) art and literature(d) all of these(e) none of these.

12. Which of
the following processes would you expect to be characteristic of all campus
plants?(a) an evolutionary history(b) ontogeny or maturation(c) metabolism(d) some kind of a response to their
immediate environment(e) all of these.

13. What do you
know about the cells of your three favorite campus plants?(a) They came from pre-existing cells.(b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions.(c) They carry out dehydration
synthesis.(d) They are
eukaryotic.(e) all of these.

14. What do you
know about the bacteria that live on the underside of the leaves of your three
favorite campus plants?(a) They form
peptide bonds.(b) They are
prokaryotes.(c) They came from
pre-existing bacteria.(d) They contain
C, N, H, and O.(e) all of these.

1. Which of the
following would you expect to be able to actually see in an electron micrograph
of a eukaryotic cell?(a) rough
endoplasmic reticulum(b) fatty
acids(c) peptide bonds(d) the citric acid cycle(e) the Calvin cycle.

2. In an
electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to distinguish smooth ER
from rough ER, you would look for(a)
lysosomes(b) chloroplasts(c) ribosomes(d) Golgi complex(e) centrioles.

3. In an
electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion,
you would look for(a) a sausage-shaped
body with internal folded membranes(b)
a stack of flattened sacs(c) lines of
double membranes with dark particles attached to them(d) a group of circular vesicles.

4. Which of the
following would you expect to see in an electron micrograph of a plant cell,
but not in an electron micrograph of an animal cell?(a) Golgi complex(b) chloroplast(c) nuclear envelope(d) endoplasmic reticulum(e) none of these.

5. Which of the
following would you expect to see in electron micrographs of both an animal and
a plant cell?(a) mitochondria(b) nuclear envelope(c) membrane-bound compartments(d) all of these.

7. If the fluid
mosaic model accurately describes all cellular membranes, where might you
expect to find transport proteins?(a)
mitochondria(b) plasma membrane(c) Golgi apparatus(d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum(e) in all of these organelles.

8. If the fluid
mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect(a) membrane proteins to move around.(b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in
place.(c) lipid molecules to occur in a
single layer.(d) numerous lysosomes to
be floating in the membrane.

9. If the fluid
mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a)
glycoproteins to be on a membrane surface.(b) to find transport proteins in the membrane.(c) both saturated and unsaturated fatty
acids to be in the lipid bilayer.(d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer.(e) all of
these.

18.
Glucose(a) is a carbohydrate(b) is a polymer(c) contains relatively large amounts of
nitrogen(d) has the same properties as
CO2 and H2O(e)
none of these.

19. Glycogen
and cellulose(a) contain many amino
acids(b) differ in the way their
glucose units are linked together(c)
perform similar functions for humans(d)
are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds(e) all of these.

23. Beginning
with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an
enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis?(a) glycerol and fatty acids(b)
glycogen(c) glucose(d) nucleic acids(e) polypeptides.

28. Starch and
cellulose differ in(a) the roles they
play in living systems(b) the manner in
which their molecules branch(c) the way
their monomers are linked together(d)
all of these(e) none of these.

30. The
quaternary structure of a protein is(a)
number of amino acids(b) amino acid
sequence(c) manner of coiling
or folding(d) number of peptide
bonds(e) combination of polypeptide
subunits.

33. What would
be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids?(a) glycerol(b) amino acids(c) glucose polymers(d) longer nucleic acids(e) nucleotides.

34. What would
be the substrate of an enzyme that hydrolyzed nucleic acids?(a) nucleic acids(b) nucleotides(c) polypeptides(d) polysaccharides(e) none of these.

35. What would
be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes?(a) glycerol(b) amino acids(c) glucose polymers(d) longer nucleic acids(e) nucleotides.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02SECOND
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST
answer.

1. Which of
the following would you expect to be able to actually see in an electron
micrograph of a eukaryotic cell?(a)
rough endoplasmic reticulum(b) fatty
acids(c) peptide bonds(d) the citric acid cycle(e) the Calvin cycle.

2. In an
electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to distinguish smooth ER
from rough ER, you would look for(a)
lysosomes(b) chloroplasts(c) ribosomes(d) Golgi complex(e) centrioles.

3. In an
electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion,
you would look for(a) a sausage-shaped
body with internal folded membranes(b)
a stack of flattened sacs(c) lines of
double membranes with dark particles attached to them(d) a group of circular vesicles.

4. Which of
the following would you expect to see in an electron micrograph of a plant
cell, but not in an electron micrograph of an animal cell?(a) Golgi complex(b) chloroplast(c) nuclear envelope(d) endoplasmic reticulum(e) none of these.

5. Which of
the following would you expect to see in electron micrographs of both an animal
and a plant cell?(a) mitochondria(b) nuclear envelope(c) membrane-bound compartments(d) all of these.

6. What might
be contained in a membrane-bound compartment?(a) enzymes(b) protein(c) bacteria(d) amino acids and lipids(e)
any of these.

7. If the
fluid mosaic model accurately describes all cellular membranes, where might you
expect to find transport proteins?(a)
mitochondria(b) plasma membrane(c) Golgi apparatus(d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum(e) in all of these organelles.

8. If the
fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect(a) membrane proteins to move around.(b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in
place.(c) lipid molecules to occur in a
single layer.(d) numerous lysosomes to
be floating in the membrane.

9. If the
fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a)
glycoproteins to be on a membrane surface.(b) to find transport proteins in the membrane.(c) both saturated and unsaturated fatty
acids to be in the lipid bilayer.(d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer.(e) all of
these.

11. What
happens during endocytosis?(a) A cell’s
environment is taken into the cell.(b)
The plasma membrane gets turned inside out.(c) A cellular compartment is formed.(d) all of these.

12. When
enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the
substrate for another.(b) both enzymes
produce the same product.(c) the
product of one reaction is a substrate for the next.(d) one enzyme carries out two different
reactions.

13. A
metabolic pathway (a) consists of several linked enzyme reactions.(b) produces carbon skeletons.(c) produces several substrates.(d) may produce a usable form of energy.(e) all of these.

14. The
energy contained in molecules such as glucose and amino acids (a) is greater
than the energy required to build the molecules.(b) is present because of the chemical
structure of those molecules.(c) can be
extracted by means of Calvin cycle pathways.(d) cannot be converted to other forms of energy.

15. Which of
the following components of peanuts and Kellogg’s Nutri-Twists
contain potential chemical energy that can be converted into ATP? (a) partially
hydrogenated soybean oil.(b) starch.(c) protein.(d) all of these.(e) none of
these.

16. Assuming
your textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in a
Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist?(a) polypeptides(b) DNA(c) cell membrane(d)
polysaccharides(e) all of these.

17. If the
answer to #16 is (a), that necessary synthesis would occur by way of(a) anabolic reactions.(b) catabolic reactions.(c) the Calvin cycle.(d) photosynthesis.

18. If the
answer to #16 is (c), then the process would likely(a) generate useable ATP.(b) consume existing supplies of ATP.(c) fix CO2 by way of Calvin cycle
reactions.(d) all of these.

19. Assuming
textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which
of the following ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist
could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic
reactions?(a) tapioca starch(b) cream cheese solids (c) citric acid(d) oats(e) all of these.

20. If the
answer to #19 is (a), then the first step in that process would be(a) glycolysis.(b) hydrolysis.(c) oxidation.(d) reduction.(e) electron transfer.

21. If the
answer to #19 is (c), the conversion would probably first involve(a) the Calvin cycle.(b) the citric acid cycle.(c) glycolysis.(d) light-dependent reactions.(e) any of these.

22. According
to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook and handout,
which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up
in amino acids.

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
lipids.

(c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as
CO2.

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
carbohydrates.

(e) all of these.

23. Which of
the following ingredients of a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist
would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin?(a) niacinamide(b) diglycerides(c) sugar(d) monoglycerides(e) all of these.

24. Which of
the following are products of citric acid cycle reactions? (a) amino acids(b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes(c) CO2 and reduced hydrogen carriers(d) polypeptides(e) all of these.

25. In the
citric acid cycle, (a) glucose is produced.(b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates.(c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps.(d) peptide bonds are formed.(e) all of these.

26. What role
do cytochromes play in cellular respiration?(a) They carry out oxidation-reduction
reactions(b) They are an essential part
of oxidative phosphorylation.(c) They are essential to ATP synthesis.(d) all of these.

28. Which of
the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a)
oxygen(b) CO2 (c) ADP(d) glucose(e) all of these.

29. Which of
the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H2O(b) ATP(c) glucose(d) all of these(e) none of these.

30. Which of
the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light
reactions? (a) H2O is
split(b) CO2 is fixed(c) ADP is converted to ATP(d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized(e) all of these.

31. Which of
the following processes are carried out by producers but not by primary (1o)consumers?(a) cellular respiration(b) photosynthesis(c) predation(d) nucleic acid synthesis(e)
all of these.

32. Which of
the following is carried out by both primary (1o) and secondary (2o)
consumers?(a) Calvin cycle
reactions(b) glycolysis(c) photophosphorylation(d) all of these(e) none of these.

33. If the
diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of
polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in(a) a dragonfly amino acid.(b) the lipid bilayer
in a chloroplast.(c) a ground squirrel
gene.(d) atmospheric CO2.(e) any of these.

34. Lewis
Thomas believes that human communications(a) are restricted to signals containing real information.(b) contain vast amounts of “small talk.”(c) eliminate the silence of the natural
world.(d) enable us to understand the
meaning of natural sounds and place those sounds into a proper context.

35. According
to Thomas, which of the following are used, by non-human animals, to make
sounds?(a) feet(b) abdomen(c) head(d) teeth(e) all of these.

36. The
evidence Thomas cites for purely musical content of bird and whale songs
includes the fact that(a) some of these
songs match known human compositions.(b) the songs rarely vary in their melody.(c) the songs can be highly variable, even
from a single animal.(d) the songs are
repeated exactly by different individuals.

37. In the
chapter “An Earnest Proposal,” Thomas suggests that(a) we already have enough information about
non-human organisms.(b) we should defer
military actions until we know everything about a single non-human
organism.(c) Myxotrichaparadoxa is the best organism to use for
biological warfare.(d) the organisms
that live on M. paradoxa
will help us survive a biological warfare.

38. Myxotrichaparadoxa
is(a) a producer [in the ecological
sense].(b) a species of insect.(c) a supposedly single-celled animal that
lives inside termites.(d) a highly
contagious bacteria.(e) none of these.

40. Examples
of what Thomas considers “genuinely decisive technology” are(a) supportive care for the terminally
ill.(b) expensive procedures such as
heart transplants.(c) vaccines and
antibiotics.(d) the treatment of
certain disorders with hormones.(e) all
of these.

41. Examples
of what Thomas considers “nontechnology” include(a) supportive care for the terminally
ill.(b) expensive procedures such as
heart transplants.(c) vaccines.(d) the treatment of certain disorders with
hormones.(e) all of these.

43. According
to Thomas, current treatments for which of the following diseases illustrate
best the impact of scientific research and genuinely decisive technology on the
field of medicine?(a) heart
disease(b) cancer(c) polio and typhoid fever(d) kidney disease [chronic glomerulonephritis](e) all of these.

45. The term
“allelochemics” refers to(a) the use of chemicals in warfare.(b) the chemistry of halfway medical
technology.(c) the use of chemicals as
a means of communication in plants and animals.(d) the use of chemicals to make
sounds.(e) development of antibiotics.

46. In the
chapter “Ceti,” Thomas suggests that the most
effective means of communication with intelligent life on other planets would
be(a) chemical signals.(b) music, specifically Bach.(c) a mixture of languages.(d) light of various colors.(e) manned spacecraft.

47. In the
chapter “Ceti,” Thomas argues that(a) intelligent life exists on planets around
various stars.(b) the best question to
ask intelligent extra-terrestrials is “Did you think yourselves unique?”(c) the CETI project is actually biological
research being conducted using our most complex physics.(d) intelligent extra-terrestials might already have genuinely decisive medical
technology.

48. In his
essay “The Long Habit,” Thomas claims that(a) long lives are not necessarily pleasurable in the kind of society we
live in.(b) modern medicine does not
handle death with as much skill as did doctors in previous times.(c) death on a grand scale does not seem to
bother us as much as death of close relatives.(d) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05SECOND
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, pad number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your
answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST answer.

1. During
which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the
construction of a polynucleotide?(a)
M(b) G1(c) S(d) G2(e) any of these phases.

2.
CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information.Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that
satisfies the base pairing rules?(a)
CATTGCGCAAT(b) GTAACGCGTTA(c) CTTAGCGCAAT(d) TTACAAGTTGC(e) any of these.

4. If a
mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future
generations, during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur?(a) M(b) G1(c) S(d) G2(e) any of these phases.

5. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair(b) have half many chromosomes as the parent
cell(c) have twice as many chromosomes
as the parent cell(d) have only one member of each
homologous pair(e) enter G2 before they
enter S.

6. Daughter
cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair(b) have as many chromosomes as the parent
cell(c) have twice as many chromosomes
as the parent cell(d) have only
one member of each homologous pair(d)
enter G1 before they enter M.

7. How many
chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of
chromosomes?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16.

8. What happens
during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis anaphase?(a) synapsis(b) separation of members of homologous
pairs(c) cytokinesis(d) DNA synthesis(e) mutations.

9. What
happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during anaphase II?(a) synapsis(b) separation of members of homologous
pairs(c) cytokinesis(d) DNA synthesis(e) mutations.

10. What
happens during meiosis anaphase II that does not happen during anaphase I?(a) synapsis(b) separation of members of homologous
pairs(c) cytokinesis(d) sister chromatids separate(e) none of these

11. Which of
the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than
was present in the parents?(a) aa x aa(b) aa x Aa(c) Aa x Aa(d) AA x AA(e) both b and c.

12. Which of
the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic
diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a)b(b)
both a and d(c)both b and c(d) c(e) none of them.

13. Which of
the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than
was present in the parents?(a) AaBb x AaBb(b) aabb x Aabb(c) AABB x aabb(d) AAbb x AAbb(e) both b and c.

14. Which of
the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic
diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a)b(b)
both a and d(c)both b and c(d) c(e) none of them.

15. Which of
the following processes is responsible for the genetic diversity seen in
offspring?(a) independent
assortment(b) crossing over(c) mutation(d) all of these(e) none of
these.

NOTE: In the following five questions,
“kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

16. How many
different kinds of gametes would DdMmRrQq be able to
make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

17. Which of
the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in the
previous question?(a)DMrq(b) DdMmRrQq(c)dmrq(d)dMmQq(e) any of these.

18. How many
different kinds of gametes would AaDdTTGg be
able to make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

19. Which of
the following could be a gamete made by the individual in the previous
question?(a) adTTg(b) ADTG(c) aDdG(d) AdtG(e) any of these.

20. What
proportion of the gametes made by the individual in the last two questions
would be AdTg?(a) 1/2(b) 1/4(c) 1/8(d) 1/16(e) you can’t determine this answer from the information given.

21. If the
individual referred to in the last five questions is actually the same
individual organism, then based only on the information provided in those
questions and answers, what do you know about the species to which this
individual belongs?(a) It has at least
8 different homologous pairs of chromosomes.(b) The A, D and G loci are linked.(c) It can make at least 128 different kinds of gametes.(d) the T and M loci are linked.(e) all of these.

22. If the
individual in question #18 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG
and adTg, then which of the following
processes would produce gametes with AdTg or aDTG?(a) synapsis(b) non-disjunction(c) crossing
over(d) base pairing(e) any of these.

23. If the
individual in question #18 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG
and adTg, then which of the following
individuals would you cross it with to determine whether it actually had
produced gametes with AdTg or aDTG?(a) aaddttgg(b)
AADDTTGG(c) AaDdTTGG(d) any of these(e) you can’t tell from the information
given.

For the following few questions, let us consider the traits
Mendel used in studying his pea plants.The traits are:

30. Which of
the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your
answers to questions #28 and #29?(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy(b) ttAaPpIiggRryy(c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy(d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy(e) ttaappiiggrryy.

31. Why would
you use the plant you chose for the answer to question #30?(a) Offspring phenotype proportions would
reflect parent gamete types.(b)
Offspring genotype ratios would be 1:2:1.(c) Some of the loci in the parent
plants are linked.(d) You could detect
crossing over in this particular mating.(e) all of these.

32. If you
cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have purple
flowers?(a) zero(b)1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

33. If you
cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have both
purple flowers and yellow pods?(a)
zero(b) 1/8(c) 1/4(d) 3/4(e) 3/8.

34. If you
allowed Plant #1 to self fertilize (or cross with another genetically equal plant),
what fraction of the seeds would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

35. Both
parents of Plant #1 must have (a)
been tall(b) been dwarf(c) had yellow seeds(d) had axial flowers(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

36. At how
many of the loci in Plants #1 and #2 would alleles assort independently from
one another?(a) 3(b) 5(c) 8(d) all of them(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

37. How many
different genotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing?(a) 6(b) 54(c) 108(d) 324(e) 648.

38. How many
different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing?(a) 8(b) 16(c) 32(d) 64(e) 128.

39. If you
started a garden by allowing Plant #1 to self fertilize and planting the seeds,
which of the following traits would breed true?(a) flower color(b) flower
position(c) height(d) seed shape(e) all of these.

40. What is
“genetic information”?(a) traits such
as flower color(b) nucleotide
sequences(c) histone
amino acid sequences(d) purines and pyrimidines(e) the probability of obtaining a particular
kind of offspring.

41. In humans
and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele
is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous
recessive(b) males can be
heterozygous(c) males can express the
dominant allele but not the recessive allele(d) both sexes can be heterozygous(e) all of these.

42. What
would you expect to find in both adenine and guanine?(a) nitrogen atoms(b) phosphate groups (c) carbohydrates(d) ring structures(e) all of these.

43. If
ATTGCGTAT is a part of a DNA molecule, which of the following would not
be part of a mutant allele produced during S phase of the cell containing such
DNA?(a) TAACGCATA(b) TAAGGCATA(c) TAACGGTAT(d) ATTGCGTTT(e) all of
these.

44. If
ATTGCGTAT is a part of a cell’s DNA, which of the following do you know
would be part of a sister chromatid made during S
phase of mitosis in that cell?(a)
ATTGCGTAT(b) TATGGGTTA(c) TAAGCGATA(d) TAACGCTAT(e) any of these.

45. When
marine organisms die, their calcium carbonate shells sink to the ocean floor,
become covered with sediments, and form (a) granite(b) basalt(c) limestone(d) chitin(e) polynucleotides.

46. Which
of the following are plausible events in the carbon cycle?(a) A hippo is
bitten by a mosquito. (b) A cell’s mitochondrion is
digested in a vacuole fused with a lysosome.(c) Coal is burned by a power plant.(d) Muffins are sold and consumed by an Iraqi
child.(d) all of these.

47. What
events can occur during the life of a mosquito?(a) If females the insect would seek blood meals.(b) Plasmodium
falciparium could mate in its gut.(c)Plasmodium falciparum
could undergo meiosis in its gut.(d)
Its larvae molt.(e) all of these.

48. In human
beings, which of the following genetic conditions result from non-disjunction
of chromosome #21?(a) Down
syndrome(b) Klinefelter
syndrome(c) XYY syndrome(d) Woody Guthrie disease(e) muscular dystrophy.

49. In human
beings, which of the following genetic conditions is associated with resistance
to malaria? (a) Down syndrome(b) sickle
cell trait(c) cystic fibrosis(d) Huntington’s disease(e) muscular dystrophy.

50. The
statistics on children born with a particular genetic disorder demonstrate that
the probability of such children being born varies according to (a) cultural
practices of parents(b) historical
social behavior of certain groups(b)
the child’s sex(d) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02THIRD
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Third Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST
answer.

1. In the
cell cycle, what happens during M?(a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) the cell differentiates into
an embryonic stem cell.

2. In the
cell cycle, what happens during S?(a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) homologous pairs
segregate(e) the chromosomes become
visible as distinct bodies.

3. During
prophase (a) chromosomes separate(b)
chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct
bodies(d) the cell actually divides into
two.

4. During
metaphase (a) chromosomes separate(b)
chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct
bodies(d) the cell actually divides
into two.

5. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal(b) have half as many chromosomes as the
parent cell(c) have twice as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(d) have
only one member of each homologous pair.

6. Daughter
cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous
pair(b) have only one member of each
pair of alleles(c) have half as many
chromosomes as the parent cell (d) all
of these(e) none of these.

7. How many
chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of
chromosomes?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16.

8. What
happens during meiosis anaphase I that does not happen during mitosis
anaphase?(a) synapsis(b) separation of members of homologous
pairs(c) cytokinesis(d) DNA synthesis(e) mutations.

10. Which of
the following would be a piece of mRNA?(a) AATGCTCATCGAT(b) AUGCGCACC
(c) TAATCGCATC(d) AAAAAAAAA(e) all of these.

11. How many
amino acids would you expect to be present in the polypeptide resulting from
expression of the gene ATACCGATTCAGCAT?(a) one(b) five(c) fifteen(d) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

12. Which of
the following sequences would be a transcript from the DNA sequence AATGCTACG?
(a) TTACGATGC(b) AAUGCTACG(c) AATGCTACG(d) UUACGAUGC (e) none of these.

13. Which of
the following sequences would be considered a translation of some DNA sequence?
(a) AATGCTACG (b) UUACGAUGC
(c) rRNA (d) mRNA (e) ala-lys-met-val-glu.

Answer the
following questions about this cross:rrYyPpIiGgAAssxRrYyPpIiggAass

NOTE: In the
following questions you can assume complete dominance, and “kinds” means
different combinations of alleles.

14. How many
homologous pairs of chromosomes are represented by these genotypes?(a) 2(b) 4(c) 5(d) 7(e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

15. How many
different kinds of gametes can the plant on the left make?(a) 2(b) 4(c) 8(d) 16(e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

16. Which of
the following could be a gamete made by the plant on the right?(a) rryy(b) rypigas(c) Rrgg(d) YyPp(e) any of these.

17. What
fraction of the offspring from these plants will have round seeds?(a) none of them(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

18. What do you
know about the parents of the plant on the left?(a) They both had axial flowers.(b) One had long stems.(c) One had terminal flowers.(d) Both had white flowers.(e) You can’t answer this question from the
information given.

19. Given the
above information about the plant on the right, you cannot determine whether one of its
parents had(a) purple flowers(b) wrinkled seeds(c) yellow seeds(d) axial flowers(e) inflated pods.

20. What can
you discover about the parents of the plant on the left by crossing each of
them with plants homozygous recessive at all loci?(a) the kinds and proportions of gametes
being made(b) the number of
heterozygous loci(c) the number of
homozygous loci(d) all of these(e) none of these.

21. What
fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have both yellow seeds and
axial flowers?(a) none(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) you can’t answer this question from the
information given.

22. What
fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have wrinkled seeds, short
stems, and yellow pods? (a) none(b)
1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

23. In order to
figure out how many different kinds of gametes are made by each of these
plants, you would have to cross each of them with(a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs(b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS(c) rryyppiiggaass(d) any of these(e) none of these crosses will reveal the
answer.

24. Why do the
alleles at these 7 loci assort independently?(a) They are linked.(b) They are
on the same homologous pairs of chromosomes.(c) They are on sister chromatids.(d) Each locus is on a different pair of homologous chromosomes.(e) You can’t answer this question from the
information given.

25. If you knew
only the phenotypes of the above plants, what kind of genotype should you use
in a cross in order to determine which loci of each plant are homozygous
dominant and which are heterozygous? (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs(b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS(c) rryyppiiggaass(d) any of these(e) none of these crosses will reveal the
answer.

26. How many
phenotypes could be present in the offspring from these two plants?(a) 2(b) 8(c) 16(d) 32(e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information
given.

27. Which
phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two
plants?(a) green pods(b) terminal flowers(c) short stems(d) wrinkled seeds(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

28. Which
phenotypes do you know were present in at least one of the
“grandparents” of these plants?(a) green pods(b) terminal
flowers(c) short stems(d) wrinkled seeds(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

29. For how
many of these traits are these plants “true breeding”?(a) one(b) two(c) four(d) seven(e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information
given.

30. For how
many of these traits couldall
four “grandparents” of these plants have been “true breeding”?(a) one(b) two(c) four(d) seven(e) you can’t determine the answer to this question from the information
given.

31. For how
many of these traits mustall four
“grandparents” of these plants have been “true breeding”? (a) one(b) two(c) four(d) seven(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

32. What
fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous dominant at all
loci? (a) none(b) 1/16(c) 1/32(d) 1/128(e) you can’t answer
this question from the information given.

33. What
fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous recessive at all
loci? (a) none(b) 1/4 (c) 1/16(d) 1/256(e) you can’t answer
this question from the information given.

34. What
fraction of the offspring of these plants will be heterozygous at all loci? (a)
none(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

35. How many
different phenotypes should be present in the offspring from this mating?(a) 2(b) 4(c) 16(d) 32(e) 128.

36. What
fraction of the short-stemmed offspring will also have purple flowers and
wrinkled seeds?(a) none(b) 1/4(c) 1/8(d) 3/8(e) you can’t answer this question from the
information given.

37. What
fraction of the purple-flowered offspring will have green pods but carry the
gene for yellow pods?(a) none(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

38. What
fraction of the inflated-pod plants will be “true breeding” for seed
color?(a) none(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

(End of pea
plant questions.)

39. How many
different kinds of gametes would an organism with the genotype AaDdMm be able to make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d)
16(e) 32.

40. Which of
the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #39?(a) adm(b) ADM(c) adM(d) AdM(e) any of these.

41. According
to Lewis Thomas, (a) there is no such thing as an individual ant or termite.(b) ants survive perfectly well as
individuals but termites do not.(c)
plastic enclosures are the secret to keeping army ants alive.(d) 2 million ants together show capacity for
insight and learning.

42. According
to Thomas, the behavior of social insects (a) is rigidly stereotyped.(b) serves as a source of parables for
humans.(c) has been used to teach us
virtues such as altruism and patience.(d) can vary depending on how many individuals are present.(e) all of these.

43. According
to Thomas, research at the Woods Hole Marine Biological Laboratory (a)
explained why plastic enclosures keep army ants alive.(b) used squid nerves to develop the science
of neuro-biology.(c) is successful because scientists are isolated from one another. (d) all of these.

44. According
to Thomas,(a) internal functions such
as heart rate may be subject to modification through “learning.”(b) if he could control his own liver
functions he would be healthier.(c)
smooth muscle cells and secretory cells require some level of control from an
individual.(d) all of these.

45. According
to Thomas, developments in molecular biology(a) show mitochondrial DNA to be distinctly different from eukaryotic
nuclear DNA.(b) suggest that some
organelles are actually “enslaved creatures” of different evolutionary origin
from the cells in they reside.(c)
suggest that organisms are actually just homes for symbiotic organelles.(d) all of these.

46. According
to Thomas, (a) we are obsessed with our health.(b) most bacteria are harmless.(c) some bacteria become dangerous when they are infected with viruses (bacteriophages).(d)
pathogenicity is so rare as to be almost
freakish.(e) all of these.

47. According
to Thomas, (a) our mechanisms for killing bacteria are often responsible for
disease.(b) because of the lipopolysaccharideendotoxin in
their cell walls, gram-negative bacteria are ignored by our tissues.(c) endotoxin can
cure bacterial infections.(d) all of
these.

48. According
to Thomas, (a) humans need constant care in order to stay healthy.(b) diseases develop because of carelessness
about the preservation of our health.(c) families of physicians receive much more health care than the
population at large.(d) most things
[health problems] get better by themselves, in fact most things get better by
morning.(e) all of these.

49. According
to Thomas, (a) language is the one trait that separates us from other
species.(b) our ability to use language
probably has a genetic basis.(c) language
evolves on its own.(d) different
languages can exist side by side for centuries without influencing one
another.(e) all of these.

50. According
to Thomas, (a) lymphocytes [white blood cells] function exactly like
caterpillar-killing wasps.(b)
lymphocytes vary as individual cells in their ability to recognize molecular
information.(c) ambiguity is often
ignored by cells such as lymphocytes.(d) ambiguity eliminates the transfer of information by way of spoken
language.(e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-01-02FINAL
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Final Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 12:00.Choose the BEST
answer.

1. A hypothesis is (a) an informed guess about the way nature
works(b) an experiment(c) a statement about what makes a good
control group(d) a statement about what
makes a good experimental group(e) an
ultimate question.

2. In order to be scientific, a hypothesis must(a) be true(b) address a question about nature(c) be testable (= disprovable)(d) make some prediction about the answer to an ultimate question(e) all of these.

3. Following
a scientific experiment, the observed difference between your control and
experimental groups (a) should be zero(b) must be zero(c) could be zero
or some other value(d) must not be
zero(e) none of these answers is
correct.

4. General
ideas about nature can become theories when scientists (a) routinely reject
scientific hypotheses based on these ideas(b) use a reductionist approach in testing
these ideas(c) ask ultimate questions
based on such ideas(d) commonly fail to
reject testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

5. If you
measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency
distribution from the data, what would be the independent variable?(a) height(b) numbers of people of a particular height(c) number of people in the room(d) mean height(e) none of these.

6. If you
measured the height of all the people in this room, then made a frequency
distribution from the data, what would be the dependent variable?(a) height(b) numbers of people of a particular height(c) number of people in the room(d) mean height(e) any of these.

7. Reductionists approach scientific problems by(a) constructing a theory(b) looking for emergent properties(c) looking for answers to ultimate
questions(d) breaking the problem down
into smaller ones(e) designing
experiments without a control group.

8. What do you
know about the cells of your three favorite campus plants?(a) They came from pre-existing cells.(b) They carry out hydrolysis reactions.(c) They carry out dehydration synthesis.(d) They are eukaryotic.(e) all of these.

9. What do you
know about the bacteria that live on the underside of the leaves of your three
favorite campus plants?(a) They form
peptide bonds.(b) They are
prokaryotes.(c) They came from
pre-existing bacteria.(d) They contain
C, N, H, and O.(e) all of these.

10. Glycogen
and cellulose(a) contain many amino
acids(b) differ in the way their
glucose units are linked together(c)
perform similar functions for humans(d)
are polymers whose units are linked by peptide bonds(e) all of these.

11. Which of
the following would be made by the process of dehydration synthesis?(a) amino acids(b) polypeptides(c) fatty acids(d) glycerol(e) glucose.

12. Which of
the following would be broken down by the process of hydrolysis?(a) glycogen(b) starch(c) triglycerides(d) enzymes(e) all of these.

13. Beginning
with lipid as a substrate, which of the following would be the product of an
enzyme reaction that carried out hydrolysis?(a) glycerol and fatty acids(b)
glycogen(c) glucose(d) nucleic acids(e) polypeptides.

14. Unsaturated
fatty acids (a) have double bonds between their carbon atoms(b) have nitrogen atoms in place of their
amine groups(c) have amine groups
instead of carboxyl groups(d) are
linked to nucleotides instead of glycerol(e) are produced by dehydration synthesis.

16. What would
be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed nucleic acids?(a) glycerol(b) amino acids(c) glucose polymers(d) longer nucleic acids(e) nucleotides.

17. What would
be the product of an enzyme reaction that hydrolyzed other enzymes?(a) glycerol(b) amino acids(c) glucose polymers(d) longer nucleic acids(e) nucleotides.

18. The Central
Dogma states that in a cell, information “flows” from(a) DNA to protein to RNA(b) RNA to protein to DNA(c) protein to RNA to DNA(d) DNA to RNA to protein(e) none of these answers are correct.

19. Which of
the following would you expect to be able to actually see in an electron
micrograph of a eukaryotic cell?(a)
rough endoplasmic reticulum(b) fatty
acids(c) peptide bonds(d) the citric acid cycle(e) enzymes.

20. In an
electron micrograph of a eukaryotic cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion,
you would look for(a) a sausage-shaped
body with internal folded membranes(b)
a stack of flattened sacs(c) lines of
double membranes with dark particles attached to them(d) a group of circular vesicles.

21. Which of
the following would you expect to see in an electron micrograph of a plant
cell, but not in an electron micrograph of an animal cell?(a) Golgi complex(b) chloroplast(c) nuclear envelope(d) endoplasmic reticulum(e) none of these.

22. If the
fluid mosaic model accurately describes all cellular membranes, where might you
expect to find transport proteins?(a) mitochondria(b) plasma membrane(c) Golgi apparatus(d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum(e) in all of these organelles.

23. If the
fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect(a) membrane proteins to move around.(b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in
place.(c) lipid molecules to occur in a
single layer.(d) numerous lysosomes to
be floating in the membrane.

24. If the
fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is accurate, then you would expect (a)
glycoproteins to be on a membrane surface.(b) to find transport proteins in the membrane.(c) both saturated and unsaturated fatty
acids to be in the lipid bilayer.(d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer.(e) all of
these.

25. When
enzyme reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the
substrate for another.(b) both enzymes
produce the same product.(c) the
product of one reaction is a substrate for the next.(d) one enzyme carries out two different
reactions.

26. Which of
the following components of peanuts and Kellogg’s Nutri-Twists
contain potential chemical energy that can be converted into ATP? (a) partially
hydrogenated soybean oil.(b) starch.(c) protein.(d) all of these.(e) none of
these.

27. Assuming
your textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in a
Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist?(a) polypeptides(b) DNA(c) cell membrane(d)
polysaccharides(e) all of these.

28. Assuming
textbook and handout metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which
of the following ingredients in a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist
could you, personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic
reactions?(a) tapioca starch(b) cream cheese solids (c) citric acid(d) oats(e) all of these.

29. According
to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook and handout,
which of the following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up
in amino acids.

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
lipids.

(c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as
CO2.

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
carbohydrates.

(e) all of these.

30. If the
diagrams in your textbook are correct, a carbon atom that is now part of
polysaccharide in a grass seed could easily end up in(a) a dragonfly amino acid.(b) the lipid bilayer
in a chloroplast.(c) a ground squirrel
gene.(d) atmospheric CO2.(e) any of these.

31. Which of
the following ingredients of a Kellogg’s Nutri-Twist
would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin?(a) niacinamide(b) diglycerides(c) sugar(d) monoglycerides(e) all of these.

32. Which of
the following are products of citric acid cycle reactions? (a) amino acids(b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes(c) CO2 and reduced hydrogen
carriers(d) polypeptides(e) all of these.

33. In the
citric acid cycle, (a) glucose is produced.(b) some end products are the same as the starting substrates.(c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several steps.(d) peptide bonds are formed.(e) all of these.

34. What role
do cytochromes play in cellular respiration?(a) They carry out oxidation-reduction
reactions(b) They are an essential part
of oxidative phosphorylation.(c) They are essential to ATP synthesis.(d) all of these.

35. Which of
the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a)
oxygen(b) CO2 (c) ADP(d) glucose(e) all of these.

36. Which of
the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H2O(b) ATP(c) glucose(d) all of these(e) none of these.

37. Which of
the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light
reactions?(a) H2O is
split(b) CO2 is fixed(c) ADP is converted to ATP(d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized(e) all of these.

38. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal(b) have half as many chromosomes as the
parent cell(c) have twice as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(d) have
only one member of each homologous pair.

39. Daughter
cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous
pair(b) have only one member of each
pair of alleles(c) have half as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(d) all
of these(e) none of these.

40. How many
amino acids would you expect to be present in the polypeptide resulting from
expression of the gene ATACCGATTCAGCAT?(a) one(b) five(c) fifteen(d) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

41. Which of
the following sequences would be a transcript from the DNA sequence AATGCTACG?
(a) TTACGATGC(b) AAUGCTACG(c) AATGCTACG(d) UUACGAUGC (e) none of these.

42. Which of
the following sequences would be considered a translation of some DNA
sequence?(a) AATGCTACG (b) UUACGAUGC (c) rRNA (d) mRNA
(e) ala-lys-met-val-glu.

43. How might
you alter the frequency of the recessive seed color allele in a large garden of
pea plants?(a) select for round
seeds(b) cross axial flowered plants
with terminal flowered plants (c) choose plants to cross based on stem
length(d) any of these methods would
work. (Pea genes on next page.)

44. What
phenotypes must you count in order to calculate the frequency of the recessive
seed color allele in your garden? (a) purple flowers(b) yellow seeds(c) green seeds(d) green pods(e) you can’t determine this frequency from
data obtained by counting phenotypes. (Pea genes on next page.)

Answer the
following questions about this cross:rrYyPpIiGgAAssxRrYyPpIiggAass

NOTE: In the
following questions you can assume complete dominance, and “kinds” means
different combinations of alleles.

45. What do you
know about the parents of the plant on the left?(a) They both had axial flowers.(b) One had long stems.(c) One had terminal flowers.(d) Both had white flowers.(e) You can’t answer this question from the
information given.

46. What can
you discover about the parents of the plant on the left by crossing each of
them with plants homozygous recessive at all loci?(a) the kinds and proportions of gametes
being made(b) the number of
heterozygous loci(c) the number of homozygous
loci(d) all of these(e) none of these.

47. What
fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have wrinkled seeds, short
stems, and yellow pods? (a) none(b)
1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

48. If you knew
only the phenotypes of the above plants, what kind of genotype should you use
in a cross in order to determine which loci of each plant are homozygous
dominant and which are heterozygous? (a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs(b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS(c) rryyppiiggaass(d) any of these(e) none of these crosses will reveal the
answer.

49. Which
phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two
plants?(a) green pods(b) terminal flowers(c) short stems(d) wrinkled seeds(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

50. Why do the
alleles at these 7 loci assort independently?(a) They are linked.(b) They are
on the same homologous pairs of chromosomes.(c) They are on sister chromatids.(d) Each locus is on a different pair of homologous chromosomes.(e) You can’t answer this question from the
information given.

51. Given only
the information above about these pea plants, how many different
polypeptides should these plants build from the genetic information shown?(a) 7(b) 14(c) 12(d) 13(e) 28.

52. All
members of the family Canidae(a) are in the same genus.(b) are in the same order.(c) are in the same class but in different
orders.(d) are in the same order but in
different classes.

53. Two
species in the same order(a) must also
be in the same family.(b) can be in the
same genus.(c) can be in different
classes.(d) must also have the same
genus name.(e) none of these.

54. What can
you assume about all members of the order Carnivora?(a) They possess homologous structures.(b) Some of their structures are homologous
to structures in different orders.(c)
One of the species of Carnivora exhibits considerable
structural diversity.(d) all of
these.(e) none of these.

55. If you
found some rocks of Cambrian age, what kind of fossils would you expect to
discover in these rocks?(a)
trilobites.(b) members of the Carnivora.(c)
dinosaurs(d) pre-human primates.(e) any of these.

56. If you
found some rocks of Mesozoic age, what kind of fossils would you expect to
discover in these rocks? (a) trilobites.(b) members of the Carnivora.(c) dinosaurs(d) pre-human primates.(e) any
of these.

57. If you
were a researcher whose specialty was the earliest land plants, you would
probably go looking for rocks from the (a) Cambrian.(b) Ordovician.(c) Silurian or Devonian.(d) Permian.(e) Tertiary or Quaternary.

58. If you
were a graduate student working on the evolution of cockroaches, you might go
exploring for rocks of what age?(a)
Triassic.(b) Jurassic.(c) Mesozoic.(d) Cenozoic.(e) any of these.

59. If you
were a graduate student working on the evolution of cockroaches, what kind of
evidence might you use in your research?(a) primary structure of proteins(b) nucleotide sequences(c) the structure of homologous parts in other insects(d) all of these(e) none of these.

60. According
to the fossil record, what happened at the end of the Permian?(a) cockroaches appeared.(b) fish and amphibians first appeared.(c) most of the world’s species became
extinct.(d) dinosaurs became extinct.(e) most of the animal phyla appeared.

61. If you
were a scientist studying the fossil record, what kind of materials might you
be working with?(a) bone fragments(b) burrows and tracks(c) shells(d) leaves(e) any of these.

62. If the fossil
record is correct, there have been fish and fish-like organisms on Earth (a)
for at least 400 million years.(b) for
approximately 100 million years.(c) for
no more than 230 million years.(d) at
least since the Cambrian.(e) from the
Pre-Cambrian until the Permian Extinctions.

63. If the
fossil record is correct, which of the following processes occurred during the
evolution of horses?(a) elongation of
toes(b) loss of homologous structures(c) fusion of bones(d) all of these(e) none of these.

64. Which of
the following processes evidently occurred during the evolution of birds’ wings
but did not occur during the evolution of bats’ wings? (a) shortening of finger
bones(b) loss of homologous structures(c) fusion of bones(d) all of these(e) none of these.

65. Fossils
of a group of organisms that originally evolved on Pangaea might be found in
(a) Europe(b) Kentucky(c) Brazil(d) Africa(e) any of these places.

66. The term
“superfecundity” refers to (a) random genetic drift.(b) the limits placed on populations by
environmental conditions.(c) production
of offspring in excess of survival.(d)
phenotypic variation.(e) changes in
allele frequencies as a result of selection.

67. The term
“Darwinian fitness” refers to (a) production of offspring in excess of
survival.(b) relative reproductive
output.(c) size and strength.(d) individual variation.(e) changes in allele frequencies as a result
of selection.

68. Which of
the following sources of data did Darwin
use to infer the accumulation of adaptive traits within a population?(a) superfecundity(b) individual phenotypic variation(c) differences in reproductive output among
offspring(d) all of these(e) none of these.

69. Which of
the following data sources can be used to construct a phylogenetic
hypothesis?(a) fossils(b) comparison of homologous structures(c) nucleotide sequences(d) amino acid sequences(e) all of these.

70. Which of
the following data sources can be used to test a phylogenetic hypothesis?(a) fossils(b)comparison of homologous structures(c) nucleotide sequences(d)
amino acid sequences(e) all of these.

71. Which of
the following would be considered an essential part of the “modern
synthesis”?(a) the fossil record of
horses(b) the Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium(c) phenotypic
variation(d) super-fecundity(e) the voyage of the Beagle.

72. Which of
the following concepts can be truly understood only within the context of the
“modern synthesis”?(a) random [genetic]
drift(b) the founder effect(c) vicariance(d) mutations(e) all of these.

73. You have
a very large healthy garden with many pea plants.In order for the seed color alleles in this
garden to satisfy the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium conditions, you must (a)
select for green seeds.(b) select
against green seeds.(c) select for both
seed color and pod color.(d) do
nothing.

74. You pick
a hundred pea plants from your very large healthy garden and discover that only
one of them has white flowers and the rest have purple flowers.How many of these purple-flowered plants
probably carry a hidden recessive allele for white flowers?(a) 1(b) 18(c) 81(d) all of them(e) none of them.

75. Out of
that same batch of plants you just picked, how many of the purple-flowered
plants would be true-breeding for purple flower color? (a) 1(b) 18(c) 81(d) 49(e) all of them.

76. Your next
door neighbor has just planted a very large pea plant garden, but most of her
plants produce white flowers.What
process best describes what’s likely to happen to these two gardens over the
next few years if both you and your neighbor do nothing but watch them?(a) random drift(b) gene flow(c) natural selection(d)
mutation(e) non-random mating.

78. What
property or trait of your garden peas tells you they are the same species as
the peas in your neighbor’s garden?(a)
they are structurally very similar(b)
there are flowers of the same color in both gardens(c) your pea plants freely interbreed with
your neighbor’s(d) both your peas and
your neighbor’s peas evolved from a common ancestor.

79. Which of
the following would be considered a post-zygotic barrier that would split the
pea gene pool so that your peas are isolated from your neighbor’s?(a) You each breed a different flower color
plant at every generation.(b) You breed
your peas so that the frequency of the r
allele = 0.4(c) Your neighbor gives you
all her wrinkled peas and you plant them in your garden.(d) You give all the seeds from your
short-stemmed, axial-flowered, plants to your neighbor and she plants them in
her garden.

80. Which of
the answers to question #79 provide the kind of observations that Darwin used to support
his theories of evolution?(a) a(b) b(c) c(d) d(e) all of them.

81. In
question #79, how would you know when you’d made the frequency of the r allele = 0.4?(a) Half your plants would always
have wrinkled seeds. (b) Year after year, nearly 85% of your plants have round
seeds.(c) 40% of your plants have
wrinkled seeds.(d) 40% of your plants
have round seeds.(e) You can’t
determine whether you are successful in this evolutionary experiment.

82. What is
the original source of the r allele in your peas?(a) natural selection(b) non-random mating(c) mutation(d) random drift(e) gene flow.

83.
Approximately what fraction of known
species are insects?(a) 1/10(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4.

84.
Approximately how many species of plants are known?(a) 1,000 (b) 57,700(c) 69,000(d)
248,000(e) 751,000.

85. What is
the best explanation for the distribution of ensatina
salamander subspecies in California?(a) allopatric
speciation(b) geographic distance and
natural selection(c) random drift(d) gene flow(e) mutations.

86. You are a
scientist who has successfully cloned humans in order to supply yourself with
stem cells for research.At what age
will you be able to harvest the inner cell mass from your embryos?(a) a few hours old(b) 6 or 7 days old(c) several weeks(d) not until the testes or ovaries develop.

87. You are a
scientist who has successfully cloned humans in order to supply yourself with
stem cells for research.What do you
hope to actually do with the cells you obtain from the inner cell mass?(a) make new human beings(b) use them in in vitro fertilization treatments for infertile couples(c) provide cell cultures that can
differentiate into various tissues(d)
all of these.

89. Examples
of what Thomas considers “genuinely decisive technology” are(a) supportive care for the terminally
ill.(b) expensive procedures such as
heart transplants.(c) vaccines and
antibiotics.(d) the treatment of
certain disorders with hormones.(e) all
of these.

90. Examples
of what Thomas considers “nontechnology” include(a) supportive care for the terminally
ill.(b) expensive procedures such as
heart transplants.(c) vaccines.(d) the treatment of certain disorders with
hormones.(e) all of these.

92. Thomas’
analogy of the earth as a cell is based on(a) his reductionist approach to science(b) the large number of polymers in
cells(c) the complex organization and
many interactions that occur between both parts of earth and parts of
cells(d) the fact that both are made
primarily of C, H, and O(e) all of
these.

93. According
to Thomas, science achieves a collective power(a) in approximately the same manner as termites(b) from a reductionist
approach to problems(c) from an
understanding of the way pheromones work(d) from a real knowledge of most microbes(e) from its knowledge of DNA.

94. According
to Thomas, the behavior of social insects (a) is rigidly stereotyped.(b) serves as a source of parables for
humans.(c) has been used to teach us
virtues such as altruism and patience.(d) can vary depending on how many individuals are present.(e) all of these.

95. According
to Thomas, developments in molecular biology(a) show mitochondrial DNA to be distinctly different from eukaryotic
nuclear DNA.(b) suggest that some
organelles are actually “enslaved creatures” of different evolutionary origin
from the cells in they reside.(c)
suggest that organisms are actually just homes for symbiotic organelles.(d) all of these.

96. According
to Thomas, current treatments for which of the following diseases illustrate
best the impact of scientific research and genuinely decisive technology on the
field of medicine?(a) heart
disease(b) cancer(c) polio and typhoid fever(d) kidney disease [chronic glomerulonephritis](e) all of these.

97. According
to Thomas, (a) our mechanisms for killing bacteria are often responsible for
disease.(b) because of the lipopolysaccharideendotoxin in
their cell walls, gram-negative bacteria are ignored by our tissues.(c) endotoxin can
cure bacterial infections.(d) all of
these.

98. According
to Thomas, (a) language is the one trait that separates us from other
species.(b) our ability to use language
probably has a genetic basis.(c)
language evolves on its own.(d)
different languages can exist side by side for centuries without influencing
one another.(e) all of these.

Bios 101
Janovy I-04-05FINAL
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, clicker pad number, and the words “BS101 Final Exam” on
your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad
number.If you wish to comment on a
question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered
question #___ with choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets are due at 12:00.Choose the BEST answer.

1.Rejection of a scientific null hypothesis
means (a) the hypothesis was not testable(b) the hypothesis was true(c)
there was no control group in the experiment(d) there was a very low probability that the hypothesis was true(e) there was no difference between control
and experimental groups.

2.Failure to reject a scientific null hypothesis
means (a) the hypothesis was not testable(b) the hypothesis was false(c)
there was no control group in the experiment(d) there was an observable difference between the control and
experimental group(e) there was a high
probability that the hypothesis was true.

3.General ideas about nature can become
theories when scientists (a) routinely reject scientific hypotheses based on
these ideas(b) use a reductionist approach in testing these ideas(c) ask ultimate questions based on such
ideas(d) commonly fail to reject
testable hypotheses based on the ideas.

4.Statistical methods typically tell you(a) what kind of a question you have
written(b) whether a theory is true(c) the probability of obtaining your
observed results if your prediction about how the universe works is true(d) the probability that your experiment does
not have a control group(e) none
of these answers are correct.

5.Reductionists
approach scientific problems by(a)
constructing a theory(b) looking for
emergent properties(c) looking for
answers to ultimate questions(d)
breaking the problem down into smaller ones(e) designing experiments without a control group.

6.What do you know about the cells of your
three favorite campus plants?(a) They form
peptide bonds.(b) They carry out
hydrolysis reactions.(c) They carry out
dehydration synthesis.(d) They contain
steroids and surface glycoproteins.(e)
all of these.

7.What do you know about the bacteria that live
on the underside of the leaves of your three favorite campus plants?(a) They carry out dehydration
synthesis.(b) Their proteins exhibit
tertiary structure.(c) They can
hydrolyze polysaccharides.(d) They
contain DNA.(e) all of these.

8.In general, what should the average person
know about the Galapagos finches?(a)
They became extinct at the end of the Permian.(b) They exhibit diverse and variable bill structures related to food
sources and availability.(c) Most are
brightly colored.(d) all of these.

9.In general, what does a “Tree of Life” based
on molecular data suggest?(a)
Scientific hypotheses about evolutionary relationships can be developed and
tested using appropriate technology.(b)
There are two major groups of organisms we call “bacteria.”(c) Among what we call “bacteria” there are
organisms no more closely related to one another than to humans.(d) Dogs, mushrooms, and campus plants are
more closely related to one another than any of them is to bacteria.(e) all of these.

10.If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is
accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around(b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in
place(c) lipid molecules to occur in a
single layer(d) numerous lysosomes to
be floating in the membrane(e) none of
these.

12.If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is
accurate, then you would expect (a) glycoproteins to be on a membrane
surface.(b) to find transport proteins
in the membrane.(c) both saturated and
unsaturated fatty acids to be in the lipid bilayer.(d) to find cholesterol in the lipid bilayer.(e) all of
these.

13.During the process of differentiation,
eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new
kinds of proteins(b) acquire new
functions(c) stop making some kinds of
protein(d) become parts of different
tissues(e) all of these.

14.The primary structure of soybean protein
found in junk food would be (a) the sequence of its amino acids(b) the sequence of its nucleotides(c) the folding of its polypeptides(d) the manner in which its nucleotides are
joined together(e) the number of fatty
acids attached to its glycerol.

15.In an electron micrograph of a eukaryotic
cell, in order to identify a mitochondrion, you would look for(a) a sausage-shaped body with internal
folded membranes(b) a stack of
flattened sacs(c) lines of double
membranes with dark particles attached to them(d) a group of circular vesicles.

16.Which of the following would you expect to
see in an electron micrograph of a plant cell, but not in an electron
micrograph of an animal cell?(a) Golgi
complex(b) chloroplast(c) nuclear envelope(d) endoplasmic reticulum(e) none of these.

17.Beginning with lipid as a substrate, which of
the following would be the product of an enzyme reaction that carried out
hydrolysis?(a) glycerol and fatty
acids(b) glycogen(c) glucose(d) nucleic acids(e) polypeptides.

18.
CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information.Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that
satisfies the base pairing rules?(a)
CATTGCGCAAT(b)
GTAACGCGTTA(c) CTTAGCGCAAT(d) TTACAAGTTGC(e) any of these.

19. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair(b) have half many chromosomes as the parent
cell(c) have twice as many chromosomes
as the parent cell(d) have only
one member of each homologous pair(e)
enter G2 before they enter S.

20. Daughter
cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair(b) have as many chromosomes as the parent
cell(c) have twice as many chromosomes
as the parent cell(d) have only
one member of each homologous pair(d)
enter G1 before they enter M.

21. Which of
the following crosses will produce more genetic diversity in the offspring than
was present in the parents?(a) AaBb x AaBb(b) aabb x Aabb(c) AABB x aabb(d) AAbb x AAbb(e) both b and c.

22. Which of
the crosses in the previous question would you expect to produce less genetic
diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents? (a)b(b)
both a and d(c)both b and c(d) c(e) none of them.

NOTE: In the following three questions,
“kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

23. How many
different kinds of gametes would DdMmRrQq be able to
make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

24. Which of
the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in the
previous question?(a)DMrq(b) DdMmRrQq(c)dmrq(d)dMmQq(e) any of these.

25. What
proportion of the gametes made by the individual in the last two questions
would be DMRq?(a) 1/2(b) 1/4(c) 1/8(d) 1/16(e) you can’t determine
this answer from the information given.

26. If an
organism has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG and adTg, then which of the following processes would
produce gametes with AdTg or aDTG?(a) synapsis(b)
non-disjunction(c) crossing over(d) base pairing(e) any of these.

27. If the
individual in question #26 has the following homologous pair of chromosomes: ADTG
and adTg, then which of the following
individuals would you cross it with to determine whether it actually had
produced gametes with AdTg or aDTG?(a) aaddttgg(b)
AADDTTGG(c) AaDdTTGG(d) any of these(e) you can’t tell from the information
given.

For the following few questions, let us consider the traits
Mendel used in studying his pea plants.The traits are:

30. If you
cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have purple
flowers?(a) zero(b)1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

31. If you
cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have both
purple flowers and yellow pods?(a)
zero(b) 1/8(c) 1/4(d) 3/4(e) 3/8.

32. Both
parents of Plant #1 must have (a)
been tall(b) been dwarf(c) had yellow seeds(d) had axial flowers(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

33. How many
different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing?(a) 8(b) 16(c) 32(d) 64(e) 128.

34. In humans
and fruit flies, if the H locus is found on the X chromosome, and the H allele
is completely dominant over the h allele, then (a) females can be homozygous
recessive(b) males can be heterozygous(c) males can express the dominant allele but
not the recessive allele(d) both sexes
can be heterozygous(e) all of these.

35. In human
beings, which of the following genetic conditions result from non-disjunction
of chromosome #21?(a) Down
syndrome(b) Klinefelter
syndrome(c) XYY syndrome(d) Woody Guthrie disease(e) muscular dystrophy.

36. In human
beings, which of the following genetic conditions is associated with resistance
to malaria? (a) Down syndrome(b) sickle
cell trait(c) cystic fibrosis(d) Huntington’s disease(e) muscular dystrophy.

37.
The Darwinian principles state that (a) all individuals that are produced
actually survive. (b) no individuals of a particular phenotype survive.
(c) more individuals are produced than can survive in nature. (d) all
phenotypes are equally successful.(e)
selection is mainly against homozygous recessives.

39.
The Darwinian principles state that (a) in nature some variants within a
species are more likely than others to reproduce successfully. (b) in
nature, all variants within a species are equally likely to reproduce.
(c) all phenotypic variants are equally likely to survive in nature. (d)
all genotypes are equally likely to survive. (e) gene pools are split by
selection against homozygous recessives.

40.
How could you test a phylogenetic hypothesis regarding members of the Euphorbaceae? (a) Use their DNA to construct a cladogram. (b) Use some homologous protein to
construct a cladogram. (c) Dissect all the species and
discover some more structural characters used in a new cladogram.
(d) Find some new species of euphorbs to include in
the analysis.(e) all of these.

41.
In plants, the best evidence for establishing that two species represent convergence
instead of being related includes (a) flower structure(b) habitat(c) geographical distribution(d)
fossil record(e) growth habit.

42.
Homologous structures presumably (a) have the same evolutionary origin.
(b) have the same function. (c) have different evolutionary origins.
(d) have different functions. (e) Any of these answers could be true
depending on the organisms involved.

43.
Evidence used to establish homology of vertebrate appendages is derived
primarily from (a) radio-isotope dating of Permian-age rocks. (b)
comparative studies of embryological development. (c) use of the appendages as indicated
by Cretaceous and Tertiary fossils. (d) phylogenies based on amino acid
sequences of certain proteins. (e) studies of gene frequency changes in
populations undergoing selection.

44.
According to the fossil record, the Cambrian period (a) ended with the
extinction of the dinosaurs. (b) began with the extinction of the
dinosaurs. (c) was the time most modern animal phyla appeared on Earth.
(d) was the time mammals first appeared on Earth. (e) was the time when
the first land vertebrates appeared on Earth.

45.
According to the fossil record, what evidently happened at the end of the
Permian? (a) Most of the modern animal phyla first appeared. (b)
The dinosaurs became extinct. (c) Vast numbers of species became
extinct. (d) Flowering plants appeared. (e) There was a great
increase in the diversity of mammals, birds, and pollinating insects.

46.
If the frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the
expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero
(b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 (e) 1.00.

47.
If the frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.51, what is the
expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.2
(b) 0.7 (c) 0.49 (d) zero (e) you can’t determine the answer
from the information given.

48.
If you know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.6,
what is the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same
trait? (a) 0.6 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.64 (e) you
can’t determine the answer from the information given.

49.
In a breeding population where you know for certain that only 1% of the individuals
are true breeding dominant phenotypes, what would you predict is the frequency
of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.99 (b)
0.9 (c) 0.18 (d) 0.1 (e) you can’t determine the answer
from the information given.

50.
An example of a temporal pre-zygotic isolating mechanism would be (a) rise of a
mountain range.(b) flowering at
different seasons.(c) barriers
preventing sperm from penetrating an egg membrane.(d) infertile hybrids.(e) any of these.

51. If you grow the bacterium Escherichia
coli (E. coli) in a culture medium without the sugar lactose, then E.
coli (a) expresses the lactase gene. (b) expresses a gene for a
protein that inhibits lactase production. (c) transcribes the lactase
gene but doesn’t translate it. (d) translates the lactase gene but
doesn’t transcribe it.(e) None of these
answers are correct.

52. Examples of
protistan genera that are of major economic importance include (a) Paramecium(b) heliozoans(c) Rickettsia(d) Plasmodium(e) all of these.

53. Study of the lacoperon has revealed that (a) genes may be arranged in
groups with related functions. (b) cells may make repressor
proteins. (c) the interactions between repressor proteins and substrates
differ according to regulatory mechanisms. (d) All of these answers are
correct (e) None of these answers are correct.

54.
Heterotrophic protistans should (a) carry out photosynthesis(b) be transmitted to humans by lice(c) require their energy in the form of
complex molecules(d) contain chloroplasts(e) all of these.

55. Diatoms are
(a) photosynthetic protists(b) members
of Archaea (c) transmitted to humans by lice(d) transmitted to humans by mosquitoes(e) members of Eubacteria.

56. Sciuruscarolinensis
is a member of (a) Sciuridae(b) Eukarya(c) Chordata(d) the same phylum as fish(e) all of these.

57. What do you
know about members of the animal family Sciuridae?(a) They are all in the same genus.(b) They are all in different genera.(c) They are all in the same order.(d) They are all in different orders.(e) Some, but not all, are in the same order.

58. Two species
in the same order(a) must also be in
the same family.(b) can be in the same
genus.(c) can be in different
classes.(d) must also have the same
genus name.(e) none of these.

59. Which of the following pairs of species do you
know are in the same family and the same order?(a) Poaalpina and Tenebriomolitor(b) Agropyrondesertorum
and Agropyronyukonense(c) Mimuspolyglottis and Corvusbrachyrhynchos(d)Asiootis and Otis asio(e) none of these.

60. If you used
the terms Hymenolepis nana andHymenolepisdimnuta,
you would be communicating information about(a) a presumed relationship.(b)
synapomorphic character states.(c) a
presumed monophyletic group.(d) the
literary history of names.(e) All of
these.

61. Two species
that are in the same subphylum must also be (a) in the same domain.(b) in the same class. (c) in the same
order.(d) in different phyla.(e) all of these.

62. Two species
that are in different orders can also be (a) in the same domain.(b) in different families.(c) in different subphyla.(d) in the same subphylum.(e) all of these.

63. Which of
the following structures would you expect to find inside a prokaryote but not
inside a member of the domain Eukarya?(a) ribosomes(b) DNA(c) mitochondria(d) all of these(e) none of these.

64. Which of
the following structures would you expect to find inside both a member of the
genus Rickettsia
and a member of the subphylum Vertebrata? (a) ribosomes(b) DNA(c) mitochondria(d) all of
these(e) none of these.

65. What do you
know about methanogens and thermophiles?(a) They are members of Eukarya.(b) They occur in most processed foods.(c) They cause plague.(d) They are heterotrophic.(e) None of these answers is correct.

66. Which of
the following would you expect to find in gram-negative bacteria but not in
gram-positive bacteria?(a) a thick
layer of lipopolysaccharide(b) a flagellum(c) a thick layer of peptidoglycan(d) a single circular loop of DNA(e) all of these.

67. What do you
know about spirochaetes?(a) They have a flagellum.(b) Some of them cause diseases in
humans.(c) They are rod-shaped and occur
in chains.(d) They tend to live in
extreme environments.(e) all of these.

68. What do you
know about rickettsias? (a) They have a
flagellum.(b) Some of them cause
diseases in humans.(c) They are
rod-shaped and occur in chains.(d) They
tend to live in extreme environments.(e) all of these.

In the
following questions, match the human disease with the genus names of the
causative organisms:

69. Syphilisa.
Helicobacter

70. Typhusb.
Bacillus

71. Malariac.
Vibrio

72. Ulcersd. Plasmodium

73. Plaguee.
Rickettsia

74. Typhoida.
Salmonella

75.Cholerab.
Yersinia

76. Anthraxc.
Treponema

77. Lyme
diseased.
Borrelia

78. Leprosye.
Mycobacterium

79. If you
collected sedimentary rocks of Permian age, you would expect to find fossils of
(a) flowering plants(b) dinosaurs(c) birds(d) amphibians(e) all of these.

80. If you
collected sedimentary rocks of Tertiary age, you would expect to find fossils
of (a) trilobites(b) placoderms(c) ostracoderms(d)
mammoths(e) any of these.

81. If you
collected sedimentary rocks of Ordovician age, you would expect to find fossils
of (a) birds (b) insects(c) ostracoderms(d)
mammoths(e) any of these.

82. According
to available evidence, mass extinctions occurred (a) at the end of the
Paleozoic.(b) last year.(c) at the end of the Mesozoic.(d) at the end of the Cambrian.(e) at all of these times.

83. Which of
the following groups would be represented in Paleozoic fossils but not in
Mesozoic fossils?(a) dinosaurs(b) flowering plants(c) trilobites(d) mammals(e) birds.

84. Which of
the following groups would be prominent among Mesozoic fossils but not among
Paleozoic fossils?(a) dinosaurs(b) flowering plants(c) trilobites(d) mammals(e) birds.

85. Which of
the following processes do scientists either know or believe have contributed
to the present distribution and diversity of living organisms on Earth?(a) meteors(b) fire(c) continental
drift(d) evolution(e) all of these.

86. Which of
the following would you expect to be represented in the fossil record?(a) protists(b) prokaryotes(c) mammals(d) flowering plants(e) all of
these.

87. Which of
the following organisms undergo zygotic meiosis?(a) flowering plants(b) humans(c) malarial parasites (d) Yersiniapestis(e) all of these.

88. Which of
the following disease-causing organisms are transmitted by insects?(a) Helicobacter
pylori(b) Plasmodium species(c) Bacillus anthracis(d) Vibriocholerae(e) all
of these.

89. During the
life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages undergo syngamy?(a) sporozoites(b) merozoites(c) spores(d) zygotes(e) gametes.

90. During the
life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages undergo asexual
reproduction?(a) merozoites(b) gametocytes(c) sporozoites(d) zygotes(e) none of these.

91. During the
life cycle of malarial parasites, which of the following stages are
haploid?(a) sporo-
zoites(b) merozoites(c)
gametocytes(d) all of these(e) none of these.

92. Where would
you expect to find foraminiferans?(a)
in any local lake or pond(b) inside a
mosquito(c) in fossil deposits of
marine origin(d) inside a louse(e) in any of these places.

93. During an
algal life cycle, which of the following stages would be a product of syngamy?(a) gametes(b) zygospores(c) merozoites(d)
gametocytes(e) gametophytes.

94. During the
life cycle of a flowering plant, which of the following stages would be
haploid?(a) sporophyte(b) merozoite(c)
zygotes(d) gametophytes(e) none of these.

95. The endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic cell origin
proposes that (a) mitochondria are derived from bacteria(b) chloroplasts are derived from
foraminiferans(c) nuclear envelopes are
constructed according to the fluid mosaic model(d) Golgi bodies are derived from chloroplasts(e) all of these events are possible.

96. Evidence to
support the endosymbiont theory of modern eukaryotic
cell origin comes mainly from the (a) structure of diatoms.(b) biochemistry of chloroplasts.(c) function of plasma membrane.(d) life cycle of malarial parasites.(e) structure of mitochondria.

97. How does one
catch cholera?(a) through the bites of
lice(b) through fecal
contamination(c) by the bite of a
mosquito(d) through the bite of
fleas(e) by direct contact with
infected individuals.

98. How does
one catch plague? (a) through the bites of lice (b) through fecal contamination(c) by the bite of a mosquito(d) through the bite of fleas(e) by direct contact with infected
individuals.

99. How does
one contract leprosy? (a) through the
bites of lice(b) through fecal
contamination(c) by the bite of a
mosquito(d) through the bite of
fleas(e) by direct contact with
infected individuals.

100. How does
one contract typhus? (a) through the
bites of lice(b) through fecal
contamination(c) by the bite of a
mosquito(d) through the bite of
fleas(e) by direct contact with
infected individuals.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00FIRST
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 First Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST
answer.

1.A scientific theory is (a) a true statement(b) a false statement that scientists try to
prove true(c) an assertion that is
demonstrated to be false(d) a general
explanation for natural phenomena(e)
all of these.

2.A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true
statement(b) a false statement that
scientists try to prove true(c) an
assertion that can be demonstrated to be false(d) a general explanation for natural phenomena(e) all of these.

3.A scientific null hypothesis is (a) a true
statement(b) a false statement(c) an assertion of no difference(d) an untestable assertion(e) all of these.

4.A hypothesis is or can be (a) a test of a
theory(b) a prediction(c) a tool used in scientific investigation(d) false(e) all of these.

5.In a forest community, a northern hawk owl
could be viewed in terms of its (a) DNA(b) role in the community(c)
evolutionary history(d) structure and
color(e) all of these.

6.What do you know about the name Surniaulula (Linné)?(a) It
applies to an organism Linnaeus described.(b) The description was probably published in 1758.(c) It is the name of a species.(d) It acquired its DNA from another S. ulula.(d) all of these.

7.Ginkgo biloba Linnaeus, 1758 is (a) the
name of a tree(b) an example of a known
and named species(c) a species that has
probably been on earth for at least 100 million years(d) the name of an individual that could
live 1000 years(e) all of these.

8.A biologist who looks at campus vegetation is
able to “see” (a) cells (b) DNA (c) processes of nutrient flow (d) ecological
relationships(e) all of these.

9.Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are
processes (a) that biologists see in ecosystems(b) by which energy moves through an
ecosystem(c) by which nutrients are
made and move through an ecosystem(d)
that occur in cells(e) all of these.

10.A bird and a butterfly seeking nectar from
the same flower represent (a) competition(b) energy flow(c) three
species, only some of which may be known to science(d) three different sets of DNA [genetic
information](e) all of these.

11.A butterfly taking nectar from a flower
illustrates (a) energy flow in an ecosystem(b) nutrient cycling in an ecosystem(c) the role of a herbivore in an ecosystem(d) at least one heterotrophic organism(e) all of these.

12.A cladogram is (a)
a diagram of energy flow(b) a diagram
of nutrient flow through an ecosystem(c) a phylogenetic hypothesis(d)
a process by which autotrophic organisms build molecules(e) none of these.

13.A phylogenetic hypothesis is (a) an assertion
about evolutionary relationships(b) an
assertion about heterotrophic organisms’ role in an ecosystem(c) generally true(d) untestable(e) all of these.

14.In biology, taxonomic schemes are (a) used to
classify organisms(b) hierarchical(c) nested(d) all of these.

15.Approximately how many species of beetles are
known to science?(a) 10,000(b) several million(c) 25,000(d) 250,000+(e) only a few.

16.Which of the following are found in Eukarya but not in Archaea? (a) DNA(b) cell membranes(c) nuclear envelope(d) ability to survive in extreme
environments.

17.Which of the following are likely to have
cell membranes made according to the fluid mosaic model?(a) you(b) Ginkgo biloba(c) the northern hawk owl(d) a tapeworm in your dog(e) all of these.

18.Which of the following kinds of organisms are
most likely to obtain energy only from organic molecules such as glucose?(a) Archaea(b) green plants(c) you and
owls(d) all of these(e) none of these.

19.Glucose is (a) an amino acid(b) a 6-carbon sugar(c) a peptidoglycan(d) a lipid(e) a source of nitrogen for Archaea.

20.Which of the following are most likely to
require their nitrogen in the form of a mixture of amino acids?(a) Archaea(b) green plants(c) you and
owls(d) all of these(e) none of these.

21.Where would you expect to find members of the
Archaea?(a) in your intestine(b) on the sidewalk(c) in some extreme environment such as a hot
spring(d) all of these(e) none of these places.

22.What would you expect to find in an
nucleoid?(a) lipids with branched
carbon chains(b) DNA(c) peptidoglycans(d) fluid mosaic-type membranes(e) none of these.

23.Where would you expect to find a
nucleoid?(a) in intestinal
bacteria(b) inside a Ginkgo biloba
cell(c) inside a dog’s cell(d) in all of these places(e) in none of these places.

24.Eukaryotic organisms are likely to have (a)
mitochondria(b) nuclear envelope(c) lysosomes(d) Golgi apparatus(e) all of these.

25.If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is
accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around(b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in
place(c) lipid molecules to occur in a
single layer(d) numerous nucleoids to be floating in the membrane.

26.You would expect to find membranes built
according to the fluid mosaic design in (a) nuclear envelope(b) mitochondria(c) Golgi apparatus(d) endoplasmic reticulum(e) all of these.

27.Which of the following could be considered
“compartments” in a cell?(a)
mitochondria(b) vacuole(c) lysosome(d) peroxisome(e) all of these.

28.Which of the following could be considered
organelles in eukaryotic cells?(a)
mitochondria(b) flagellum(c) Golgi apparatus(d) chloroplast(e) all of these.

30.Which of the following are most likely to
contain hydrolytic enzymes?(a)
mitochondria(b) cell wall(c) chloroplasts(d) lysosome(e) nuclear envelope.

31.A hydrolytic enzyme is (a) a protein(b) a product of gene expression(c) a molecule that catalyzes a particular
chemical reaction(d) all of these.

32.In a eukaryotic cell, where is the main site
of protein synthesis?(a)
mitochondria(b) rough endoplasmic
reticulum(c) Golgi apparatus(d) lysosome(e) chloroplast.

33.During the process of differentiation,
eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new
kinds of proteins(b) acquire new
functions(c) stop making some kinds of
protein(d) all of these.

34.In theories of the symbiotic origin of
eukaryotic cells, which of the following would be considered degenerate
symbionts?(a) lysosomes(b) chloroplasts and mitochondria(c) endoplasmic reticulum(d) Golgi apparatus(e) all of these.

35.Which of the following might you expect to
see in the paintings of Charles Rain? (a) members of the genus Rubus(b) scarab beetles(c) lepidopterans
on their host plant(d) planorbid snails(e)
all of these.

36.Which of the following might you expect to
see in Cro-Magnon paintings in Altamira?(a) scarab beetles(b) northern hawk owls(c) horses(d) Monarch butterflies(e) all
of these.

37.What biological phenomenon was Frederick
Remington able to see and record that most others could not?(a) the dependence of lepidopterans
on particular host plants(b) high speed
action by large mammals(c) energy flow
in forest ecosystems(d) the role of
actin and myosin in muscle contraction.

38.What does a Deborah Butterfield sculpture
have in common with extracted DNA?(a)
both are shaped like a double helix(b)
both contain the “essence” of their subjects(c) both are made of materials that either were or are living(d) neither has much commercial value(e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-04-05SECOND
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, pad number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your
answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and pad#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST
answer.

8. During
which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the
construction of a nucleotide polymer?(a) M(b) G1(c) S(d) G2(e) any of these phases.

9.
CATTGCGCAAT is a piece of genetic information.Which of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that
satisfies the base pairing rules?(a)
CATTGCGCAAT(b) GTAACGCGTTA(c) CTTAGCGCAAT(d) TTACAAGTTGC(e) any of these.

10. In the
cell cycle, what happens during M? (a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) the cell differentiates into
an embryonic stem cell.

11. In the
cell cycle, what happens during S?(a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) the cell differentiates into
an embryonic stem cell(e) the
chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies.

12. If a
mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future
generations, during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur?(a) M(b) G1(c) S(d) G2(e) any of these phases.

13. During
prophase (a) chromosomes separate(b)
chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct
bodies(d) the cell actually divides
into two.

14. During
metaphase (a) chromosomes separate(b)
chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct
bodies(d) the cell actually divides
into two.

15. During
anaphase (a) chromosomes separate(b)
chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct
bodies(d) the cell actually divides
into two.

16. During cytokinesis (a) chromosomes separate(b) chromosomes line up across the middle of
the cell(c) chromosomes become
visible as distinct bodies(d) the cell
actually divides into two.

17. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) are genetically equal(b) have half as many chromosomes as the
parent cell(c) have twice as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(d) have
only one member of each homologous pair.

18. Daughter
cells resulting from meiosis (a) have only one member of each homologous
pair(b) have only one member of each
pair of alleles(c) have half as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(d) all
of these(e) none of these.

19.Which of the following crosses will produce
more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents?(a) aa x aa(b) aa x Aa(c) Aa x Aa(d) AA x AA(e) none of these.

20.Which of the crosses in question #19 would
you expect to be “true breeding”?(a)b(b) a and d(c)b and c(d) c(e) all of them.

21.Which of the crosses in question #19 would
you expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present
in the parents? (a)b(b) a and d(c)b and c(d) c(e) none of them.

NOTE: In the following four questions,
“kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

22. How many
different kinds of gametes would AaBbRr be able to
make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

23. Which of
the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question
#22?(a) aabbrr(c) AAb(c) abr(d) aRr(e) none of these.

24. How many
different kinds of gametes would AaDdGg be
able to make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

25. Which of
the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #24?(a) adg(b) ADG(c) adG(d) AdG(e) any of these.

26. If the
individual referred to in both question #22 and question #24 is actually the
same individual organism, then what do you know about the species to which this
individual belongs?(a) it has at least
3 different homologous pairs of chromosomes(b) it can make at least 32 different kinds of gametes(c) the A and G loci are linked(d) all of these(e) none of these.

27. Which of
the following processes is responsible for the genetic diversity seen in
offspring?(a) independent
assortment(b) crossing over(c) mutation(d) all of these(e) none of
these.

For the following questions, let us consider the traits
Mendel used in studying his pea plants.The traits are:

34. Which of the
following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your answers
to questions #32 and #33?(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy(b) ttAaPpIiggRryy(c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy(d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy(e) ttaappiiggrryy.

35. If you
cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have white
flowers?(a) zero(b)1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

36. If you
cross Plant #1 and Plant #2, what fraction of the offspring will have both
white flowers and green pods?(a)
zero(b) 1/8(c) 1/4(d) 1/5(e) 3/4.

37. Both
parents of Plant #1 could have had (a) purple flowers(b) white flowers(c) yellow pods(d) any of these(e) none of these.

38. Both
parents of Plant #1 must have (a)
been tall(b) been dwarf(c) had yellow seeds(d) had axial flowers(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

39. At how
many of the loci in Plants #1 and #2 would alleles assort independently from
one another?(a) 3(b) 5(c) 8(d) all of them(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

40. If you
allowed Plant #1 to self fertilize (or cross with another genetically equal
plant), what fraction of the seeds would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

41. How many loci are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

42. How many
homologous pairs are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

43. How many
phenotypes are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

44. How many
different genotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing?(a) 6(b) 54(c) 108(d) 324(e) 648.

45. How many
different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing?(a) 8(b) 16(c) 32(d) 64(e) 128.

46. If you
started a garden by allowing Plant #1 to self fertilize and planting the seeds,
which of the following traits would breed true?(a) flower color(b) flower
position(c) height(d) seed shape(e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00SECOND
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST
answer.

1.In a frequency distribution describing any
biological phenomenon, what is the dependent variable usually plotted on the Y
(vertical) axis?(a) numbers of
individuals with a particular measurable characteristic(b) categories into which individuals are
placed(c) kinds of cells which carry
out the Krebs cycle(d) rate at which
ATP is formed in a cell(e) number of
different reactions in a metabolic pathway.

2.Which of the following is most likely the
product of a dehydration synthesis (condensation) reaction?(a) glucose(b) cellulose(c) an amino acid(d) adenine(e) thymine.

3.Which of the following is most likely the
product of a hydrolytic reaction?(a)
DNA(b) protein(c) cellulose(d) fatty acid(e) lipid.

4.In a cell, which of the following reactions
are likely to be carried out by an enzyme?(a) oxidation(b) reduction(c) hydrolysis(d) all of these(e) none of these.

5.In a cell, which of the following would most
likely be a substrate for a hydrolytic enzyme?(a) glucose(b) polypeptide(c) glycerol(d) a fatty acid(e) an amino
acid.

7.A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol
and a fatty acid(b) nucleotides in
DNA(c) amino acids in a protein(d) cytochromes and
electrons(e) all of these.

8.Which of the following ingredients of a Dolly
Madison Fruit Pie would be considered a vitamin or part of a vitamin?(a) niacin(b) diglycerides(c) sugar(d) monoglycerides(e) all of these.

9. Which of
the following ingredients of a Dolly Madison Fruit Pie could be metabolized by
way of the Krebs Cycle reactions? (a) sugar(b) enriched wheat flour(c)
starch(d) monoglycerides(e) all of these.

10. The
primary structure of Dolly Madison Fruit Pie soy protein would be (a) the
sequence of its amino acids(b) the
sequence of its nucleotides(c) the
folding of its polypeptides(d) the
manner in which its nucleotides are paired(e) the number of fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

11. Assuming
all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could you, personally, make from a Dolly Madison Fruit
Pie? (a) polypeptides(b) DNA (c)
glycogen(d) diglycerides(e) all of these.

12. Assuming
all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could you, personally, produce from a Dolly Madison
Fruit Pie by hydrolyzing “animal shortening” and “beef fat”?(a) amino acids(b) glycerol and fatty acids (c)
glycogen(d) niacin.

13. If the
potato eaters in Van Gogh’s famous painting were actual people eating real
potatoes, where might some of the carbon atoms in those potatoes end up? (a) in
the eaters’ genes(b) in the air
surrounding the potato eaters(c) in
worms in the local cemetery(d) in a
Dolly Madison Fruit Pie(e) in any of
these places.

14. Assuming
a Cézanne still life was painted using real specimens as models, where could a
carbon atom from one of the Maluspumila in such a painting be now?(a) in the air in Henzlik Hall(b) in the adenine of a sparrow in Paris(c) in a French Vitisvinifera plant(d) in any of these places.

15. What
would a biologist looking at a Cézanne still life “see” in the Prunusdomestica, Prunuspensylvanica, Pyruscommunis, and Maluspumila
represented?(a) sugar(b) polymers(c) Krebs cycle substrates(d)
substrates for hydrolytic enzymes(e)
all of these.

16. Which of
the following is a direct result of gene expression (use of genetic
information) in a cell?(a) an enzyme’s
primary structure(b) an enzyme’s
secondary structure(c) hydrolysis of
cellulose(d) dehydration synthesis to
produce a polymer(e) an enzyme’s active
site.

17. In a
metabolic pathway, (a) the product of one reaction can be the substrate for
another(b) the substrate for one enzyme
is not always a substrate for another enzyme(c) enzyme reactions can be linked(d) some reactions may be reversible(e) all of these.

18. In the
Krebs cycle, (a) glucose is produced(b)
some end products are the same as the starting substrates(c) carbon dioxide is fixed at several
steps(d) peptide bonds are formed(e) all of these.

19. Which of
the following are products of Krebs cycle reactions? (a) amino acids(b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes(c) CO2 and reduced hydrogen
carriers(d) polypeptides(e) all of these.

20. Which of
the following are required as beginning substrates for the Krebs cycle
reactions?(a) ATP (b) reduced hydrogen
carriers(c) acetyl-CoA
and oxalacetic acid(d) glucose(e) cytochromes.

21. According
to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the
following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up
in amino acids

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
lipids

(c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as
CO2

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
carbohydrates

(e) all of these.

22. An
enzyme’s primary structure is its (a) coiled form(b) folded form(c) sequence of amino acids(d) active site(e) combination with several other polypeptides.

23. Which of
the following would be considered macromolecules? (a) starch(b) glycogen(c) proteins(d) DNA(e) all of these.

24. Which of
the following would be considered polymers?(a) starch(b) glycogen(c) cellulose(d) DNA(e) all of these.

25. What role
do cytochromes play in cellular respiration? (a)
oxidation-reduction reactions(b) they
are an essential part of oxidative phosphorylation(c) essential to ATP synthesis (d) all of
these.

27. Which of
the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a)
oxygen(b) CO2 (c) ADP(d) glucose(e) all of these.

28. Which of
the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H2O(b) ADP(c) glucose(d) all of these(e) none of these.

29. Which of
the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light
reactions?(a) H2O is split(b) CO2 is fixed(c) ADP is converted to ATP(d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized(e) all of these.

30. Which of
the following cell types are likely to be participating in all cell cycle
events? (a) nerve(b) muscle(c) skin(d) all of these(e) none of
these.

31. Which of
the following cell types are likely to have “left the cycle”? (a) muscle(b) nerve(c) eye lens(d) all of these(e) none of these.

32. Where is
a cell’s growth factor receptor protein located? (a) in the nucleus(b) in the plasma membrane(c) inside a chloroplast(d) inside a mitochondrion.

33. A growth
factor is most likely to be (a) a carbohydrate(b) a lipid(c) a nucleic
acid(d) a protein(e) a form of cellulose.

34. A cell’s
signal transduction pathway is made up of (a) carbohydrates(b) lipids(c) nucleic acids(d) starch or
cellulose(e) protein.

36. In the
cell cycle, what happens during M?(a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) the cell differentiates.

37. In the
cell cycle, what happens during S?(a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) the cell differentiates.

38. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) are different genetically(b) are genetically identical(c) are stopped in G2(d) are stopped in S.

39. During
prophase (a) chromosomes separate(b) chromosomes
line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct bodies(d) the cell actually divides into two.

40. During
metaphase (a) chromosomes separate(b)
chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct
bodies(d) the cell actually divides
into two.

41. During
anaphase (a) chromosomes separate(b)
chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell(c) chromosomes become visible as distinct
bodies(d) the cell actually divides
into two.

42. During cytokinesis (a) chromosomes separate(b) chromosomes line up across the middle of
the cell(c) chromosomes become
visible as distinct bodies(d) the cell
actually divides into two.

43. From a
genetic point of view, a strain of inbred mice (a) is highly variable(b) is very uniform(c) is immunologically deficient.

44. In the Fantasia segment The Sorcerer’s Apprentice, Mickey Mouse (a) exhibited naiveté about
the power of technology(b) easily
controlled technology(c) understood how
to control technology but chose not to do it.

45. In what
way(s) is a Warhol Mickey Mouse painting or print similar to real mice used in
genetic research?(a) they both look
like Mickey Mouse(b) they both have
immature characteristics such as large heads(c) they both get injected with DNA in their tail veins(d) they both occur in multiple exact
copies(e) they are both high variable
in form and function.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00THIRD
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Third Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST
answer.

1.Daughter cells resulting from mitosis (a) are
genetically equal(b) have half as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(c) have
twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell(d) have only one member of each homologous pair.

2.Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a)
have only one member of each homologous pair(b) have only one member of each pair of alleles(c) have half as many chromosomes as the
parent cell(d) all of these(e) none of these.

3.During either mitosis or meiosis, when would
you first expect to actually see chromosomes?(a) interphase(b) prophase(c) metaphase(d) anaphase(e) telophase.

4.During mitosis, when would you expect to see
tetrads? (a) prophase(b) metaphase(c) telophase(d) interphase(e) never.

5.During meiosis, when would you expect to see
tetrads? (a) prophase(b) metaphase(c) telophase(d) interphase(e) never.

6.Which of the following would you expect to
happen during meiosis but not during mitosis?(a) syn- apsis(b) crossing over(c) independent assortment(d) all of these(e) none of these.

7.Which of the following crosses will produce
more genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in the parents?(a) aa x aa(b) aa x Aa(c) Aa x Aa(d) AA x AA(e) none of these.

8.Which of the crosses in question #7 would you
expect to be “true breeding”?(a)b(b)
a and d(c)b and c(d) c(e) none of these.

9.Which of the crosses in question #7 would you
expect to produce less genetic diversity in the offspring than was present in
the parents? (a)b(b) a and d(c)b and c(d) c(e) none of these.

10. How many
chromatids would you expect to see in a replicated homologous pair of
chromosomes?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16.

11. How many
different kinds of gametes would AaBbRr be able to
make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

12. Which of
the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question
#11?(a) aabbrr(c) AAb(c) abr(d) aRr(e) none of these.

13. How many
different kinds of gametes would AaDdGg be
able to make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

14. Which of
the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #13?(a) adg(b) ADG(c) adG(d) AdG(e) any of these.

15. Consider
the individual in questions #11 and 13.What do you know about this individual?(a) it has at least 4 different homologous pairs of chromosomes(b) it can make at least 64 different kinds
of gametes(c) the A and G loci are
linked(d) the A and B loci are not
linked(e) all of these.

16. Suppose
the individual in question #13 was produced by parents from two “true breeding”
lines, one of which had the dominant phenotype for all traits, the other of
which had the recessive phenotype for all traits.What should be the question #13 individual’s
homologous pair?(a) aDg
and AdG(b) ADg
and adG(c) adg and ADG(d) any of these(e) none of these.

17. Which of
the following processes is responsible for the genetic diversity seen in
offspring?(a) independent
assortment(b) crossing over(c) mutation(d) all of these(e) none of
these.

18. Who is
Georgia O’Keeffe?(a) the scientist who
discovered crossing over(b) the
historian who discovered Mendel’s lost notebooks(c) a famous genetic counselor(d) an artist who painted bright flower
pictures.

For the following questions, let us consider the traits
Mendel used in studying his pea plants.The traits are:

25. Which of
the following plants would you use in a breeding experiment to check your
answers to questions #23 and #24?(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy(b) ttAaPpIiggRryy(c) TTAAPpIiggrrYy(d) TTAaPPIiGGRrYy(e) ttaappiiggrryy.

26. What is
the probability that a cross between Plant #1 and Plant #2 will produce an
offspring with white flowers?(a)
zero(b) 0.25(c) 0.50(d) 0.75(e) 1.00.

27. What is
the probability that a cross between Plant #1 and Plant #2 will produce a tall
offspring with green pods?(a) zero(b) 0.25(c) 0.50(d) 0.75(e) 1.00.

28. The
parents of Plant #1 could have had (a) purple flowers(b) white flowers(c) yellow pods(d) any of these(e) none of these.

29. The
parents of Plant #1 must have (a)
been tall(b) been dwarf(c) had yellow seeds(d) had axial flowers(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

30. How many
of the loci in Plants #1 and #2 would assort independently from one
another?(a) 3(b) 5(c) 8(d) all of them(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

31. If you
allowed Plant #1 to self fertilize, what is the probability that the seeds
would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero(b) 0.25(c) 0.50(d) 0.75(e) 1.00.

32. If you
allowed Plant #2 to self fertilize, what is the probability that the seeds
would grow into a dwarf plant? (a) zero(b) 0.25(c) 0.50(d) 0.75(e) 1.00.

33. If you
started a garden by allowing Plant #1 to self fertilize and planting the seeds,
which of the following traits would breed true?(a) flower color(b) flower
position(c) height(d) seed shape(e) all of these.

34. If you
started your garden from both Plant #1 and Plant #2, allowing them and their
offspring to freely interbreed, which of the following traits would breed
true?(a) height(b) flower color(c) seed shape(d) seed color(e) none of these.

35. What
proportion of the seeds from crossing Plant #1 and Plant #2 would you expect to
be wrinkled and green?(a) none(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 1/8(e) 1/16.

36. What
proportion of the seeds from crossing Plant #1 and Plant #2 would you expect to
round and yellow? (a) none(b) 1/4(c) 1/8(d) 3/8(e) 1/16.

37. How many
different genotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing?(a) 6(b) 54(c) 108(d) 324(e) 648.

38. How many
different phenotypes would you expect in the offspring from this crossing?(a) 8(b) 16(c) 32(d) 64(e) 128.

39. Can this
crossing produce seeds that are heterozygous at all loci?(a) yes(b) no(c) you can’t determine
the answer from the information given.

40. Can this
crossing produce seeds that are homozygous recessive at all loci?(a) yes(b) no(c) you can’t determine
the answer from the information given.

41. Can this
crossing produce seeds that are homozygous dominant at all loci?(a) yes(b) no(c) you can’t determine
the answer from the information given.

42. Using
only these two plants as starting material, is there any trait for which you
could not eventually produce a true
breeding line by selectively crossing plants in your garden?(a) yes(b) no(c) you can’t determine
the answer from the information given.

43. Using
these two plants, what fraction of the seeds will produce true breeding flower
color plants?(a) zero(b) 0.25(c) 0.50(d) 0.75(e) 1.00.

44. For how
many of the seven traits could you instantly get true breeding lines simply by
self fertilization of Plant #1?(a)
none(b) all seven(c) three(d) four(e) you can’t determine
the answer from the information given.

45. For how
many of the seven traits could you instantly get true breeding lines simply by
self fertilization of Plant #2?(a)
none(b) all seven(c) three(d) four(e) you can’t determine
the answer from the information given.

46. How many
loci are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

47. How many
homologous pairs are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

48. How many phenotypes are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

Bios 101 Janovy I-99-00FINAL
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, social security number, and the words “BS101 Final Exam”
on your answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name and SS#.If you wish to comment on a question, answer
it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered question #___ with
choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets
are due at 12:00.Choose the BEST
answer.

1.A scientific theory is (a) a true
statement(b) a false statement that
scientists try to prove true(c) an
assertion that is demonstrated to be false(d) a general explanation for natural phenomena(e) an assertion that has failed to be
falsified.

2.A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true
statement(b) a false statement that
scientists try to prove true(c) an
assertion that can be demonstrated to be false(d) a general explanation for natural phenomena(e) an assertion that cannot be falsified.

3.A bird and a butterfly seeking nectar from
the same flower represent (a) competition(b) energy flow(c) three
species, only some of which may be known to science(d) three different sets of DNA [genetic
information](e) all of these.

4.What do you know about the names Surniaulula (Linné) and Ginkgo biloba Linnaeus 1758?(a) They apply to organisms Linnaeus
described, probably in 1758.(b) You can
tell from the names that they are both in the same genus.(c) You can tell from the names that they are
in the same family.(d) None of
these.(d) All of these.

5.Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are
processes (a) that occur in ecosystems(b) that occur in Surniaulula(c) that must take place before energy flows
through an ecosystem(d) that must take
place before the carbon cycle operates in an ecosystem (e) all of these.

6.Which of the following are found in Eukarya but not in Archaea? (a) DNA(b) cell membranes(c) nuclear envelope(d) ability to survive in extreme environments(e) all of these.

7.Which of the following are likely to have
cell membranes made according to the fluid mosaic model?(a) you(b) Ginkgo biloba(c) the northern hawk owl(d) a tapeworm in your dog(e) all of these.

8.Glucose is (a) an amino acid(b) a 6-carbon sugar(c) a peptidoglycan(d) a lipid(e) a source of nitrogen for Archaea.

9.Which of the following are most likely to
require their nitrogen in the form of a mixture of amino acids?(a) Archaea(b) green plants(c) owls(d) none of these.

10.Eukaryotic organisms are likely to have (a)
mitochondria(b) nuclear envelope(c) lysosomes(d) Golgi apparatus(e) all of these.

11.If the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane is
accurate, then you would expect (a) membrane proteins to move around(b) membrane proteins to remain fixed in
place(c) lipid molecules to occur in a
single layer(d) numerous nucleoids to be floating in the membrane(e) none of these.

13.Which of the following are most likely to
contain hydrolytic enzymes?(a)
mitochondria(b) cell wall(c) chloroplasts(d) lysosome(e) nuclear envelope.

14.During the process of differentiation,
eukaryotic cells with identical genetic makeup usually (a) start making new
kinds of proteins(b) acquire new
functions(c) stop making some kinds of
protein(d) all of these.

15.In theories of the symbiotic origin of
eukaryotic cells, which of the following would be considered degenerate
symbionts?(a) lysosomes(b) chloroplasts and mitochondria(c) endoplasmic reticulum(d) Golgi apparatus(e) all of these.

16.What biological phenomenon was Frederick
Remington able to see and record that most others could not?(a) the dependence of lepidopterans
on particular host plants(b) high speed
action by large mammals(c) energy flow
in forest ecosystems(d) the role of
actin and myosin in muscle contraction(e) gene expression.

17.Which of the following might you expect to
see in Cro-Magnon paintings in Altamira?(a) scarab beetles(b) northern hawk owls(c) horses(d) Monarch butterflies(e) all
of these.

18.Which of the following kinds of organisms are
most likely to obtain energy only from organic molecules such as glucose?(a) Archaea(b) green plants(c) you and
owls(d) all of these(e) none of these.

19.In a frequency distribution describing any
biological phenomenon, what is the dependent variable usually plotted on the Y
(vertical) axis?(a) numbers of
individuals with a particular measurable characteristic(b) categories into which individuals are
placed(c) kinds of cells which carry
out the Krebs cycle(d) rate at which
ATP is formed in a cell(e) number of
different reactions in a metabolic pathway.

20.Which of the following is most likely the
product of a dehydration synthesis (condensation) reaction?(a) glucose(b) cellulose(c) an amino
acid(d) adenine(e) thymine.

21.Which of the following is most likely the
product of a hydrolytic reaction?(a)
DNA(b) protein(c) cellulose(d) fatty acid(e) lipid.

23.A peptide bond occurs between (a) glycerol
and a fatty acid(b) nucleotides in
DNA(c) amino acids in a protein(d) cytochromes and
electrons(e) all of these.

24. The
primary structure of soy protein would be (a) the sequence of its amino
acids(b) the sequence of its
nucleotides(c) the folding of its
polypeptides(d) the manner in which its
nucleotides are paired(e) the number of
fatty acids attached to its glycerol.

25. Assuming
all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could you, personally, make from packaged processed
food? (a) polypeptides(b) DNA(c) glycogen(d) diglycerides(e) all of these.

26. Assuming
all of your textbook’s metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could you, personally, produce from a Dolly Madison
Fruit Pie by hydrolyzing “animal shortening” and “beef fat”?(a) amino acids(b) glycerol and fatty acids (c)
glycogen(d) niacin(e) none of these.

27. Which of
the following is a direct result of gene expression (use of genetic
information) in a cell?(a) an enzyme’s
primary structure(b) an enzyme’s
secondary structure(c) hydrolysis of
cellulose(d) dehydration synthesis to
produce a polymer(e) an enzyme’s active
site.

28. In a
metabolic pathway, (a) the product of one reaction can be the substrate for
another(b) the substrate for one enzyme
is not always a substrate for another enzyme(c) enzyme reactions can be linked(d) some reactions may be reversible(e) all of these.

29. Which of
the following are products of Krebs cycle reactions? (a) amino acids(b) reduced and oxidized cytochromes(c) CO2 and reduced hydrogen
carriers(d) polypeptides(e) all of these.

30. Which of
the following are required as beginning substrates for the Krebs cycle
reactions?(a) ATP (b) reduced hydrogen
carriers(c) acetyl-CoA
and oxalacetic acid(d) glucose(e) cytochromes.

31. According
to the anabolic and catabolic summary diagrams in your textbook, which of the
following statements is true:

(a) Carbon from carbohydrates could end up
in amino acids

(b) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
lipids

(c) Carbon from amino acids could end up as
CO2

(d) Carbon from amino acids could end up in
carbohydrates

(e) all of these.

32. Which of
the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a)
oxygen(b) CO2 (c) ADP(d) glucose(e) none of these.

33. Which of
the following is consumed during the light reactions of photosynthesis? (a) H2O(b) ADP(c) glucose(d) ribulose phosphate(e) none of these.

34. Which of
the following occurs during the Calvin Cycle but not during the light
reactions?(a) H2O is
split(b) CO2 is fixed(c) ADP is converted to ATP(d) hydrogen carriers become oxidized(e) all of these.

35. In the
cell cycle, what happens during S?(a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) the cell differentiates.

36. Where is
a cell’s growth factor receptor protein located? (a) in the nucleus(b) in the plasma membrane(c) inside a chloroplast(d) inside a mitochondrion.

37. If the
potato eaters in Van Gogh’s famous painting were actual people eating real
potatoes, where might some of the carbon atoms in those potatoes end up? (a) in
the eaters’ genes(b) in the air
surrounding the potato eaters(c) in
worms in the local cemetery(d) in a
Dolly Madison Fruit Pie(e) in any of
these places.

38. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) are different genetically(b) are genetically identical(c) are stopped in G2(d) are stopped in S.

39.Daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a)
have only one member of each homologous pair(b) have only one member of each pair of alleles(c) have half as many chromosomes as the
parent cell(d) all of these(e) none of these.

40.During mitosis, when would you expect to see
tetrads? (a) prophase(b) metaphase(c) telophase(d) interphase(e) never.

41.During meiosis, when would you expect to see
tetrads? (a) prophase(b) metaphase(c) telophase(d) interphase(e) never.

42.Which of the following would you expect to happen
during meiosis but not during mitosis?(a) syn- apsis(b) crossing over(c) independent assortment(d) all of these(e) none of these.

43. How many
different kinds of gametes would AaBbRr be
able to make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d) 16(e) 32.

44. Which of
the following would be one of the gametes made by the individual in question
#43?(a) aabbrr(c) ABb(c) abr(d) aRr(e) none of these.

45. Assuming
the capital letters indicate dominant alleles and the lower case letters indicate
recessive alleles, which of the following crosses will produce the most genetic
diversity?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

46. Which of
the following crosses might Mendel have done to demonstrate independent
assortment?(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy
x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

47. Assuming
the alleles indicated are found in pea plants, which of the following crosses
might Mendel have done to demonstrate segregation of alleles?

(a) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy

(b) TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy

(c) TTAaPPIiGgRRYy x TTAAPpIiggrrYy

(d) ttAappIiggRrYy x TTAaPPIiGGRrYy

(e)
TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttaappiiggrryy.

48. How many
loci are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

49. How many
homologous pairs are represented by the genotypettAaPpIiggRryy?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 4(d) 7(e) 14.

50. Consider
the cross ttAaPpIiggRryy
x TtAaPpIiGgRrYy
that produces a thousand offspring.In
these offspring, what will be the frequency of the recessive allele at the Y
locus?(a) zero(b) 0.25(c)0.75(d) 1.00(e) you can’t tell from the information given.

51. Assuming
there is random interbreeding among offspring, no selection, and all genotypes
are equally fit, what will be the frequency of the recessive a allele after ten generations of
crossing between the descendents of the cross in question #50?(a) zero(b) 0.25(c) 0.50(d) 0.75(e) none of these.

52.If, after ten generations of interbreeding
among the descendents of the individuals in question number 50, the frequency
of the dominant I allele is 0.87,
what do you know has happened?(a) you can’t answer this question from the information given(b) selection has occurred against genes at
the G locus(c) interbreeding has not
been random(d) all phenotypes are
equally fit.

53. If an
offspring from the cross in question #50 ended up as a YY genotype, what might
be the explanation?(a)
transcription(b) translation(c) selection(d) mutation(e) any of these.

54. If you
started with the cross in question #50 and selected against the dominant A
phenotype for several generations, what would happen to allele frequencies at
the Y locus? (a) recessive allele frequency would increase(b) recessive allele frequency would
decrease(c) nothing(d) you can’t answer this question from the
information given.

55. If an
organism had a homologous pair of chromosomes aBCde
and AbcDE, but its offspring had chromosomes
that looked like adCBe and abcde,
what has happened? (a) independent assortment(b) chromosomal mutation(c)
selection(d) evolution(e) non-random breeding.

56. If an
organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had
the same gene with the sequence ATGCGTATG, what might have happened?(a) selection(b) frame shift mutation(c)
inversion(d) non-random
interbreeding(e) any of these.

57. If an
organism had a gene with the sequence ATTGCGTAT, but one of its offspring had
the same gene with the sequence ATGGCGTAT, what might be the result? (a) an
enzyme would not function properly(b)
nothing(c) selection against the
offspring(d) an altered phenotype(e) any of these.

58. What is
the product of the process known as transcription? (a) DNA(b) RNA(c) protein(d)
mutation(e) any of these.

59. What is
the produce of the process known as translation? (a) DNA(b) RNA(c) protein(d)
mutation(e) any of these.

60. If the
frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.25, what is the
expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero(b) 0.25(c) 0.50(d) 0.75(e) 1.00.

61. If the
frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.84, what is the
expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.16(b) 0.40(c) 0.84(d) zero(e) you can’t determine the answer from the
information given.

62. If you
know that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.1, what is
the expected frequency of the dominant phenotype for that same trait?(a) 0.99(b) 0.9(c) 0.09(d) 0.18(e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

63. In the
populations of the previous three questions, what events might lead to results
other than those expected?(a)
transcription(b) translation(c) independent assortment(d) crossing over(e) non-random interbreeding.

64. If, in an
experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would
expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase(b) decrease(c) stay the same(d) you can’t
test your expectations with the information given.

65. If, in an
experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to
test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after
several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be
(a) higher(b) lower(c) the same as when you started(d) the same as that of the recessive allele.

66. Which of
the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying
microevolution? (a) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium(b) The Central Dogma(c) cladistics(d) paleontology(e) they are all about equally effective.

67. Which of
the following is most likely to be an effective tool for studying
macroevolution?(a) mol-ecular biology(b) cladistics(c)
paleontology(d) comparative
anatomy(e) all of these.

68. Among
various phenotypes in a population of a single species, those that are the most
fit are (a) the largest(b) the strongest(c) the meanest and most aggressive (d) those
that reproduce the most(e) the
fastest.

69. Before
Darwinian selection will occur, a single species’ population must (a) be
variable in phenotype(b) be
limited(c) vary in reproductive capacity(d) all of these(e) none of these.

70. In a
phylogeny of vertebrate classes, endothermy evidently
arose (a) once in the common ancestor of birds and mammals(b) twice, once in birds and once in
mammals(c) in all the classes.

71. Among
vertebrates, behavioral regulation of temperature occurs in (a) amphibians (b)
reptiles(c) some birds(d) some mammals(e) all of these.

72. Among
vertebrates, sources of genetic variation would include (a) mutation(b) independent assortment(c) crossing over(d) all of these.

74. Which of
the following are bugs? (a) ants(b)
wasps(c) beetles(d) members of the Hemiptera(e) all of these.

75. The
biological species concept states that members of a single species (a) can
successfully interbreed(b) are
reproductively isolated from other species(c) are structurally similar (d)
all of these.

76.According to our present understanding of
geological history, when did Pangea break apart?(a) during the Cambrian(b) during the Mesozoic(c) about 500 million years ago(d) during the last Ice Age(e) at the end of the K-T extinctions.

77. According
to our present understanding of the fossil record, the Permian extinction
occurred about (a) half a billion years ago(b) at the end of the Cretaceous(c) at the end of the Cambrian(d) at the end of the Paleozoic(e) during the Cenozoic.

78. The
distribution of living and fossil lungfish suggests these fishes (a) evolved in
South America(b) originated in Australia(c) originated in Pangea prior to its breakup(d) migrated to all the southern continents
after the breakup of Pangea(e) migrated
to Africa and Australia from
South America.

79. Evidence
from the fossil record suggests that during the Permian extinction (a)
dinosaurs became extinct(b) about 90%
of all genera became extinct(c) pentadactyl appendages evolved(d) lungfish migrated to Africa and South
America(e) all of these.

80. Which of
the following are included in the fossil record? (a) footprints(b) burrows(c) skull bones(d) nests and
eggs (e) all of these.

81. Which of
the following can be inferred, at least in some cases, from the fossil
record?(a) nesting behavior(b) movement(c) ecological relationships(d)
fate of homologous structures(e) all of
these.

82. Bat and
bird wings (a) both are made from pentadactyl
appendages(b) have similar internal
structure(c) both exhibit elongation of
several “fingers”(d) both exhibit
reduction in number of “fingers” (e) function similarly but are not homologous.

84. Ultimate
problems are problems (a) of origin(b)
of function(c) that are essentially
“how” questions (d) that must be solved before we can control processes such as
cell division(e) that must be studied
experimentally.

85. Which of
the following structures in your body are considered homologous to the same
structures in fossil plesiosaurs, pterosaurs, and lobe-finned fish? (a) humerus(b) radius(c) ulna(d) all of these(e) none of these.

86. Which of
the following would probably be the best outgroup for constructing a phylogeny
of one family of beetles?(a)
lobe-finned fish(b) another family of
beetles(c) the ingroup family of
beetles(d) some group of plants(e) a true bug.

87. How might
you test a phylogenetic hypothesis involving living Perissodactyla?(a) construct a phylogeny using ribosomal
DNA(b) construct a phylogeny using
primary structure of homologous proteins(c) construct a phylogeny incorporating fossil horses and camels(d) none of these methods would work(e) all of these methods would work.

88. Among the
Artiodactyla, plesiomorphic (primitive) characters
would include (a) endothermy(b) a backbone(c) hair(d) all of these(e) none of
these.

89. If you
were constructing a phylogeny of the Artiodactyla
using structural characters, apomorphic (derived) characters would include(a) loss of toes(b) hair(c) endothermy(d) all of these(e) none of
these.

90. In a
phylogeny, clades are considered (a) members of the
outgroup(b) monophyletic(c) to contain only some descendents of a
common ancestor(d) to contain descendents
of several ancestral groups.

91. In a
cladistic analysis, the principle of parsimony (a) minimizes the number of
necessary evolutionary steps(b)
maximizes the number of necessary evolutionary steps(c) minimizes the number of shared derived
traits(d) eliminates monophyletic clades.

92.
Phylogenies suggest (a) the best outgroup(b) a sequence of evolutionary events(c) the best set of characters to use in analysis(d) the correct plesiomorphic characters(e) all of these.

93. Molecular
phylogenies can be constructed using (a) primary protein structure(b) nucleotide sequences(c) frequencies of isozymes
in a population(d) amino acid
sequences(e) all of these.

94. Early
DNA-DNA hybridization studies showed (a) humans and chimps shared 99% of their
nucleotide sequences(b) humans were
more closely related to gorillas than to chimps(c) DNA hybridization techniques were useless as tools for studying
evolution(d) all of these.

95. If
molecular biologists’ interpretations of human origins are correct, (a) humans
originated in Africa(b) humans evolved
in several different places then interbred(c) Homo sapiens is the only
species of its genus to have ever lived(d) H. sapiens is one of at
least 50 species of Homo that have
lived.

Bios 101 Janovy I-05-06FIRST
EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, clicker number, and the words “BS101 First Exam” on your
answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name (last name first) and
clicker number.If you wish to comment
on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I answered
question #___ with choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST answer.

1.A scientific hypothesis is (a) a true
statement(b) a false statement that
scientists try to prove true(c) an
assertion that can be demonstrated to be false(d) a general explanation for natural phenomena(e) an assertion that cannot be falsified.

2. What is a
null hypothesis?(a) a statement used
for determining which experimental group is more likely to differ from the
controls(b) an assertion of no
difference between experimental and control groups(c) a prediction that there will be a
difference between the control and experimental groups(d) an untestable prediction.

3. In order to
do experiments in biology, you will need (a) organisms that can be grown under
standardized conditions.(b) a design
that includes a testable hypothesis.(c)
a design that should include an alternative testable hypothesis.(d) a means of quantifying your results.(e) all of these.

5. Paradigms
are (a) predictions of no difference between control and experimental
groups.(b) views about nature that tend
to determine acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that
research.(c) evidence used to answer
questions about phylogeny.(d)
predictions that cannot be falsified.

6. Which of these items from a recent OmahaWorld-Herald sports section have
scientific names, sets of environment conditions under which they reproduce,
evolutionary histories, and related species?(a) dog(b) horse(c) leech(d) catfish(e) all of these.

7. Which of the
following BIOS101 vocabulary words are you likely to find in the ingredients
list of junk food from a campus vending machine?(a) protein(b) lipid or monoglycerides (c) sugar(d) polyunsaturated(e) all of these.

8. Which of the following items listed on
junk food from a campus vending machine were probably built by cells carrying
out dehydration reactions?(a) saturated
fat(b) enzymes(c) starch(d) di-glycerides(e) all of these.

9. Which of the following items listed on
junk food from a campus vending machine would be broken down by hydrolytic
enzymes in a lysosome? (a) saturated fat(b) enzymes(c) starch(d) di-glycerides(e)
all of these.

10. In a
typical ecosystem involving plants, prey, predators, and decomposers, (a)
energy is recycled but nutrients are not.(b) nutrients are recycled but energy is not.(c) over long periods of time, both energy
and nutrients are recycled.(d) neither
energy nor nutrients are recycled.

11. If two structurally similar insects have
different color patterns, your testable predictions might include(a) they are different sexes and I’m
seeing sexual dimorphism.(b) they are
different species even though they have similar structure.(c) they are different developmental stages of
one species.(d) they are different
morphs of a highly polymorphic species.(e) any of these.

12. The
environmental conditions that allow a species to exist are termed (a) an
ecological niche.(b) a paradigm.(c) superfecundity.(d) differential survival.(e) a life cycle.

13.
Superfecundity refers to (a) genetically determined differences between
individuals.(b) the point at which
populations stop increasing.(c) the
rate at which populations increase.(d)
the fact that more individuals are produced than can survive.(e) the fact that some individuals are more
likely to survive than others.

14. Different
types of virus vary in their (a) shape and size(b) relationships with their host cells(c) nucleotide sequences(d) primary sequence of their proteins(e) all of these.

15. HIV is (a)
a retrovirus that uses reverse transcriptase to build proteins.(b) a retrovirus that uses proteins to build
host cell membrane.(c) a virus without
glycoproteins attached to its envelope.(d) a virus that uses reverse transcriptase to build DNA.(e) all of these.

16. During the
life cycle of HIV, what would be a product of the enzymatic reaction carried
out by reverse transcriptase?(a)
RNA(b) DNA(c) protein(d) lipid(e) more reverse
transcriptase.

17. During the
life cycle of HIV as outlined in your book, what eventually happens to the
product of a reverse transcription reaction?(a) It ends up in the viral envelope.(b) It is inserted into the host cell DNA.(c) It is put into new viral RNA.(d) It ends up in the viral envelope
glycoproteins.

18. During the
life cycles of both HIV and influenza virus as outlined in your book, what is a
major component of viral envelope?(a)
host cell DNA(b) viral RNA(c) host cell membrane(d) viral DNA(e) provirus DNA.

19. According to
your textbook, what is the major difference between HIV and influenza virus
(IV) life cycles?(a) HIV uses host cell
DNA for its envelope but IV does not.(b) IV DNA is incorporated into host cell chromosome but HIV is
not.(c) HIV DNA is incorporated into
host cell chromosome but IV DNA is not.(d) HIV uses host cell membrane to make envelope but IV does not.

20. Which of
the following would be found in DNA of a host cell infected with HIV? (a)
glycerol(b) glucose(c) amino acids(d) nucleotides like adenine and guanine(e) fatty acids.

21. RNA is (a)
a polymer containing uracil.(b) a product of the reaction carried out by
reverse transcriptase.(c) a monomer
containing adenine and guanine.(d) a
polymer made up of glycerol and fatty acids.(e) a polymer made up of glucose molecules.

22. Which of
the following would be considered an anabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide
bonds to generate a polypeptide(b)
converting lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert
glycogen into glucose(d) breaking down
RNA into nucleotides (e) none of these.

23. Which of
the following would be considered a catabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide
bonds to generate a polypeptide(b)
converting lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert
glucose into glycogen(d) the reactions
carried out by reverse transcriptase(e)
all of these.

24. Which of the following would
result from a dehydration reaction?(a)
triglycerides(b) polypeptides(c) RNA(d) starch or glycogen(e) all of
these.

25. Which of the following would be
the product of a reaction carried out by reverse transcriptase?(a) AUGCCGAGG(b) AATGCTGCG(c) CGCUCGAUG(d) AAAGGGGCU(e) any of these.

26. Which of the following would be a
polypeptide?(a) AATGCTGCG(b) ala-leu-ser-gly(c) glucose-glucose-glucose(d) DNA→RNA→protein(e) AAAGGGGCU

27. A nucleotide molecule consists
of(a) branching chains of glucose.(b) a nitrogen-containing ring, a 5-carbon
sugar, and a phosphate group.(c)
glycerol, fatty acids, and amino acids.(d) glycerol, fatty acids, and a phosphate group.(e) a long chain of carboxyl groups.

28. Which of
the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction?(a) glycerol(b) amino acids(c) nucleotides(d) all of these(e) none of these.

29. Which of
the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction in which glycogen was the
substrate?(a) glycerol(b) fatty acids(c) amino acids(d) glucose(e) all of these.

30. For a protein to function
properly after being built by a cell, which of these must remain
unchanged?(a) primary structure(b) tertiary structure(c) nucleotide sequence(d) amino acid sequence(e) structure of the peptide bonds.

31. Which of
the following functions primarily to “package” cell products such as
proteins?(a) lyso-somes(b) Golgi apparatus(c) mitochondria(d) chloroplast(e) nuclear envelope.

32. Which of
the following are most likely to contain hydrolytic enzymes?(a) mitochondria(b) cell membranes(c) chloroplasts(d) lysosomes(e) nuclear envelope.

33. Which of the following would be
considered an initial step in digestion?(a) production of fatty acids from lipids(b) production of amino acids from proteins(c) production of nucleotides from DNA or
RNA(d) production of glucose from
glycogen(e) any of these.

34. If you digested the plasma
membranes in a piece of beef, what would be some of the products of reactions
carried out by hydrolytic enzymes?(a)
glycerol(b) glucose(c) amino acids(d) fatty acids(e) all of these.

35. Which of the following would you
expect to find inside a stem cell?(a)
mitochondria(b) rough endoplasmic
reticulum(c) nuclear envelope(d) ribosomes(e) all of these.

36. Various cell membrane proteins
probably (a) differ in both primary and tertiary structure.(b) carry out different functions.(c) have polysaccharides attached to them.(d) help transport materials across the
membrane.(e) all of these.

37. Polysaccharide portions of membrane
glycoproteins probably (a) differ in their branching structure.(b) contain different kinds of amino
acids.(c) have different nucleotide
sequences.(d) are built by reverse
transcriptase.(e) all of these.

39. According to the diagrams in your
book, a damaged mitochondrion is likely to be digested by enzymes from (a) peroxisomes.(b) centrioles.(c)
ribosomes.(d) lysosomes.(e) smooth ER.

40. Particles ingested by endocytosis
are likely to contain (a) amino acids.(b) nucleotides.(c) fatty
acids.(d) the same stuff as junk food
from campus vending machines.(e) all of
these.

41. Macromolecules can be highly
specific but built according to the same general design because(a) the general design differs between
species.(b) the sequence of similar
parts can differ among various macromolecules.(c) some macromolecules have nucleotides while others have
carbohydrates.(d) macromolecules built
by dehydration synthesis differ from those built by hydrolysis.

44. If you studied lots of electron
microscope pictures of cells, you would expect to discover (a) several
membrane-bound organelles.(b)
connections between nuclear envelope and rough ER.(c) con-nections
between rough ER and smooth ER(d) vesicles
near the Golgi.(e) all of these.

46. With respect to stem cells, a
major political issue is (a) where they come from.(b) what kind of benefits might come from
their use.(c) how to make them develop
into other kinds of cell types.(d) all
of these.

47. With respect to climate change,
the major scientific issue is (a) whether global warming is occurring.(b) what humans should do to prepare for
altered climate.(c) who is responsible
for global warming.(d) who should pay
the cost for stopping climate change.

48. If scientists’ predictions are
correct, the global human population should stop growing (a) in 200 years (b)
within a decade(c) within the life
expectancy of most people in this class(d) never.

49. Objective evidence that could be
cited to support a claim that humans are still evolving can be found in (a) the
current population growth rate.(b)
differential contribution of various nations to the global human
population.(c) effects of the “Black
Death” in Europe during the Middle Ages(d) birth rates in so-called “developed”
nations.

Bios 101 Janovy
I-05-06SECOND EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, clicker number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your
answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name (last name first) and
clicker number.If you wish to comment
on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I
answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST answer.

1. Which of the
following occurs during endocytosis but does not occur during exocytosis?(a) DNA synthesis(b) transport of particles from outside to
inside a cell(c) movement of particles
from inside to outside a cell(d)
synthesis of macromolecules(e) movement
of fluid from inside to outside a cell.

2. Which of the
following is necessary for a particle such as low density lipoprotein to be
taken up by receptor-mediated mechanism?(a) membrane lipids(b)
exocytosis(c) chromatin(d) receptor proteins on the particle(e) receptor proteins bound to the cell.

3. Which of the following processes moves
molecules inside a cell but against a concentration gradient?(a) receptor-mediated uptake(b) active transport(c) diffusion(d) facilitated diffusion(e)
exocytosis.

4. Active transport (a)
requires the expenditure of ATP.(b) requires
participation of membrane proteins.(c) results in movement of molecules against the concentration
gradient.(d) allows a cell to maintain
concentrations that differ from the concentrations of its surroundings. (e) all of these

5. Which of the
following would likely be products of a catabolic pathway?(a) polynucleotides(b) polypeptides(c) carbon dioxide and water(d) endocytotic vesicles(e) receptor proteins.

6. Which of the
following would likely be products of an anabolic pathway?(a) polypeptides(b) receptor proteins(c) polynucleotides(d) glycogen(e) all of these.

7. When enzyme
reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for
another.(b) both enzymes produce the
same product.(c) the product of one
reaction is a substrate for the next.(d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions.(e) CoA and NAD+
are required for the reactions to occur.

8. According to
the general catabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from
a peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA(b) pyruvate(c) one of the citric acid cycle
intermediates(d) glucose(e) any of these.

9. According to
the general anabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom from a
peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA(b) pyruvate(c) one of the citric acid cycle
intermediates(d) glucose(e) any of these.

10. The energy
contained in molecules such as glucose and amino acids (a) is greater than the
energy required to build the molecules.(b) is present because of the chemical structure of those
molecules.(c) can be extracted by means
of anabolic pathways.(d) cannot be
converted to other forms of energy.

11.
Assuming your textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could you, personally, make from the ingredients in a
typical breakfast cereal?(a)
polypeptides(b) DNA(c) cell membrane(d) polysaccharides(e) all of these.

12.
Assuming textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans, which of
the following ingredients in a box of typical breakfast cereal could you,
personally, convert into useful energy by way of catabolic reactions?(a) starch(b) soy bean protein (c) citric acid(d) oats(e) all of these.

13.
What happens during oxidative phosphorylation?(a) ATP is converted to ADP.(b) ADP is converted to ATP.(c) citric acid cycle intermediates are
produced.(d) all of these.(e) none of these.

14.
Vitamins are (a) large polypeptides that cannot be synthesized by the
cell.(b) polynucleotides that are
synthesized as part of the citrus acid cycle reactions.(c) usually a part of exocytotic vesicle
membrane.(d) often parts of
co-enzymes that act as carriers.(e) all
of these.

15.
Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could end up as part of a mutant DNA strand you pass on
to one of your children?(a) citric acid
cycle intermediates(b) carbon from
mitochondrial membrane lipids(c)
nitrogen from beef(d) a 2-carbon piece
carried by acetyl CoA(e) any of these.

16.
Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could end up part of an influenza virus particle you
pass to your child? (a) citric acid
cycle intermediates(b) carbon from
mitochondrial membrane lipids(c)
nitrogen from beef(d) any of
these(e) none of these.

17.
ATP is (a) a nucleotide.(b) a
polynucleotide.(c) a nucleic acid.(d) a citric acid cycle intermediate.(e) an enzyme that functions in the electron
transport system.

18.
If an enzyme reaction requires energy, that energy is usually supplied in the
form of (a) ADP.(b) ATP.(c) citric acid cycle intermediates.(d) co-enzymes.(e) any of these.

19.
If a metabolic pathway produces energy that is available for use in anabolic
reactions, such energy is usually supplied in the form of(a) ADP.(b) ATP.(c) citric acid cycle
intermediates.(d) co-enzymes.(e) any of these.

21. During
which of the following cell cycle phases would thymine be using in the
construction of a nucleotide polymer?(a) M(b) G1(c) S(d) G2(e) any of these phases.

22. During
which of the following cell cycle phases are sister chromatids actually
produced? (a) M(b) G1(c) S(d) G2(e) any of these phases.

23. In the cell
cycle, what happens during S?(a)
Chromosomes separate and the cell divides.(b) DNA is synthesized.(c) The
cell prepares for DNA synthesis.(d) The
cell differentiates.(e) None of these.

24. In the cell
cycle, what happens during M?(a)
chromosomes separate and the cell divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c)
nothing(d) the cell differentiates into
an embryonic stem cell.

25. In the cell
cycle, what happens during interphase?(a) chromosomes separate and the cell
divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c) nothing(d) the cell differentiates into another type of cell(e) the chromosomes become visible as
distinct bodies.

26. If a
mutation is a mistake in DNA synthesis that can be passed on to future generations,
during which cell cycle phase must that mistake occur?(a) M(b) G1(c) S(d) G2(e) any of these phases.

27. CATTGCGCAAT
is a piece of genetic information.Which
of the following would be the complementary strand of DNA that satisfies the
base pairing rules?(a) CATTGCGCAAT(b) GTAACGCGTTA(c) CTTAGCGCAAT(d) TTACAAGTTGC(e) any of these.

28. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair(b) have half many chromosomes as the parent
cell(c) have twice as many chromosomes
as the parent cell(d) have only one
member of each homologous pair(e) enter
G2 before they enter S.

29. If you used
the correct techniques to study cells undergoing mitosis, you should be able to
see or determine(a) sister
chromatids.(b) homologous pairs of
chromosomes.(c) 2n number for the
species.(d) whether the cells were in M
phase.(e) all of these.

30. The four
daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous
pair(b) have as many chromosomes as
the parent cell(c) have twice as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(d) have
only one member of each homologous pair(e) enter G1 before they enter M.

31. If a
species has 12 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be
in each sperm from a male of that species?(a) 6(b) 12(c) 24(d) The answer depends on the number of sister chromatids produced
during mitosis.(e) You can’t determine
the answer from the information given.

32. If a
species has 24 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be
in each unfertilized egg from a female of that species? (a) 6(b) 12(c) 24(d) The answer depends on the number of
sister chromatids produced during mitosis.(e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

33. If a
species has 24 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many homologous pairs would
be in each fertilized egg of that species? (a) 6(b) 12(c) 24(d) The answer depends on the number of
sister chromatids produced during mitosis.(e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

34. Which of
the following would obey the base-pairing rules of DNA synthesis?(a) adenine(b) thymine(c) guanine(d) cytosine(e) all of these.

36. Which of the
following events would occur during translation?(a) adenine pairing with thymine(b) peptide bonds being
formed(c) DNA ligase linking
polynucleotide pieces(d) addition of
nucleotides to the 3’ end of an existing polynucleotide(e) none of these.

37. Which of
the following could serve as a template for transcription in a eukaryotic
cell?(a) ATTAGCGCT(b) GAUCCGAUG(c) GAAUCUCCG(d) AUGCCGCGG(e) any of these.

38. Which of
the following could serve as a template for translation in a eukaryotic
cell?(a) AUUAGCGCU(b) GAUCCGAUG(c) GAAUCUCCG(d) AUGCCGCGG(e) any of these.

39. Which of
the following would be a product of a reaction carried out by RNA
polymerase?(a) polypeptide(b) a gene(c) mRNA(d) an endocytotic vesicle(e) ATTGCGACG.

40. The enzyme
that links nucleotides to a growing daughter's 3' end of a growing DNA strand
is called (a) DNA ligase. (b) DNA polymerase. (c) mRNA. (d) RNA polymerase.(e) none of the above.

41. DNA ligase
functions to (a) add nucleotides to the 5’ end of an existing
polynucleotide.(b) tie pieces of
polynucleotide together(c) carry out
translation(d) produce mRNA(e) add nucleotides to the 3’ end of an
existing polynucleotide.

42. Redundancy
in the genetic code means that (a) some nucleotide triplets code for several
amino acids(b) each amino acid is coded
for by a unique nucleotide triplet(c)
more than one triplet can code for the same amino acid(d) all of these.

43. What would
you expect to see on a karyotype slide?(a) sister chromatids(b)
homologous pairs of chromosomes(c) any
unusual chromosome structure(d) all of
these.

44. What would
you expect to find at a single locus?(a) homologous pairs(b) genes
that affect the same trait(c) sister
chromatids(d) DNA ligase(e) all of these.

45. What should
the average person know about Aedesaegyptiand
Anopheles gambiae(a) They are or can be very dangerous animals.(b) They are vectors for infectious
diseases.(c) They are mosquitoes that have
influenced human history.(d) All of
these.

46. In the
influenza virus life cycle, evolutionarily significant events can occur during
(a) RNA synthesis.(b) assembly of
the glycoproteins in the coat.(c)
infection of the host cell.(d) the immune
reaction of the host.(e) All of these.

47. Immune
mechanisms that protect a host against virus include(a) antibodies that promote virus
binding.(b) killing of infected cells
by the host.(c) mutations that occur
during viral gene expression.(d)
assembly of viral proteins.(e) all of
these.

48.
According to information provided in the reserve articles, approximately what percent
of the known 1,415 infectious diseases either are or have the potential for
being zoonotic?(a) None of them (0%).(b) All of them (100%).(c) Only a very few, but those few are quite
deadly.(d) About 60%.(e) Almost 90% but most of those are human
diseases we give to other animal species.

49.
Why is a zoonotic viral disease likely to cause the next major
pandemic? (a) Evolutionary
principles suggest that multiple hosts provide a selected environment for
numerous strains to arise.(b) Viruses
reproduce so rapidly that mutations appear relatively quickly.(c) Their appearance is hard to predict of
they occur in wild animals.(d) On a
global scale, humans encounter non-human species frequently and in a great
variety of ways.(e) all of these.

50.
Why was the 1918-1919 influenza epidemic so lethal? (a) People had no
immunity to the new viral proteins. (b)
The infection spread quickly among soldiers, partly because of conditions under
which they lived.(c) Scientists had relatively
little knowledge of viruses at the time.(d) The virus could be spread through the air.(e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy
I-05-06THIRD EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, clicker number, and the words “BS101 Second Exam” on your
answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name (last name first) and
clicker number.If you wish to comment
on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I
answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets are due at 11:20.Choose the BEST answer.

1.Which of the following would be a gamete from
an individual organism with the genotype rrYyPpIiGgAAss? (a) rypigaa(b) rryyss(c) rYGasip(d) PGAirys(e) none of these.

2. Under
typical conditions, which of the following could NOT be a gamete produced by an
individual of genotype rrYyPpIiGgAAss?(a)
yysip(b) GAsiprY(c) rypigAs(d) Asg(e) all of
these.

3. If you knew
only the phenotype of the individual in the previous two questions, how could
you determine for sure which loci were heterozygous?(a) Cross with a homozygous recessive.(b) Cross with a true-breeding line.(c) Cross with an individual of identical
phenotype.(d) Any of these methods
would work.

4. What
proportion of the gametes produce by rrYyPpIiGgAAsscontain
both a recessive r and a recessive g?(a) all of them(b) none of
them(c) one half(d) You can’t determine the answer from the
information given.(e) You can’t
determine the answer without doing a test cross.

5. Which of the
following could be an offspring from doing a test cross with rrYyPpIiGgAAss?(a) rraa(b) PpSs(c) YYAA(d) ggii(e) none of these.

6. If you did a
test cross with rrYyPpIiGgAAss, what fraction of the offspring would
be the correct answer genotype from question #5?(a) 1/2(b)1/4(c) 1/8(d) 1/32(e) 1/128.

7. If you tried
to do a Punnett
Square to calculate the phenotypic ratios
resulting from the following cross: RrYygg x RryyGg, how many squares would that Punnett Square
have?(a) 9(b) 16(c) 32(d) 64(e) you can’t determine the answer
from the information given.

8. According to
your text, which of the following crosses will produce an F1 hybrid?(a) aabb x
AABB(b) AaBb
x AaBb(c) aabb x aabb(d) AABB x AABB(e) none of these.

9. According to
your text, which of the following would be a dihybrid cross? (a) aabb x AABB(b) AaBb
x AaBb(c) aabb x aabb(d) AABB x AABB(e) none of these.

11. Which of
the following are the predicted phenotypic ratios in offspring from a dihybrid
cross?(a) 1:2:1(b) 9:3:3:1(c) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1(d) you
can’t determine the answer from the information given.

12. You suspect
that loci to be considered in a dihybrid cross are linked.Which of the following is the testable
hypothesis regarding phenotype ratios from this cross?(a) 1:2:1(b) 9:3:3:1(c)
1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1(d) you can’t
determine the answer from the information given.

13. Is it
possible to produce a hybrid without knowing whether the loci involved are
linked or not?(a) yes(b) no(c) The answer depends on which loci are being considered.(d) only if the loci are sex linked(e) You can’t determine the answer from
the information given.

14. Is it
possible to do a test cross when the loci involved are linked?(a) yes(b) no(c) only if the loci are
sex linked(d) The answer depends on
which loci are being considered.(e) You
can’t determine the answer from the information given.

15. Alleles
segregate during meiosis because (a) they are on different homologous
chromosome pairs.(b) they are at
different loci.(c) they are on the same
homologous chromosome pair.(d) sex-linked(e) linked.

16. Genes for
different traits would assort independently at meiosis because(a) they are on different homologous
chromosome pairs.(b) they are at
different loci.(c) they are on the same
homologous chromosome pair.(d) sex-linked(e) linked.

17. Which of
the following would most strongly affect the genotypic ratios resulting from a
test cross using linked loci?(a)
independent assortment(b) segregation
of alleles(c) distance between the loci(d) sex linkage(e) any of these.

18. In fruit
flies, genes for traits that are sex linked (a) must also be linked.(b) must assort independently during
meiosis.(c) must be on the Y
chromosome.(d) must be expressed only
in males.(e) all of these.

19. In
offspring from a cross involving a sex linked trait, a dominant phenotype
female, and a recessive phenotype male, (a) males will always have a recessive
phenotype.(b) females will always have
a recessive phenotype.(c) either sex
could show a recessive phenotype depending on the female parent genotype.(d) neither sex could show a recessive
phenotype.(e) You can’t determine the answer
to this question.

22. Here is
the genotype from the individual in Fig. 9.4 of your text: PPaaBb.You could view this individual as one that
(a) “looks” like the dominant P phenotype.(b) “looks” like the recessive a
phenotype.(c) “looks” like the dominant
B phenotype but carries a recessive allele.(d) cannot produce an offspring that “looks”
like a recessive p phenotype.(e)
all of these.

23. In the
cross TtAaPpIiGgRrYy x ttAaPpIiggRryy,
what fraction of the offspring will be TtPp?(a) one half(b) one fourth(c) 1/64(d) 1/128(e) you can’t determine the answer from information given.

24. When you
answered question #23, you multiplied fractions because (a) alleles segregate
at meiosis.(b) different
homologous pairs assort independently at meiosis.(c) some of the loci are linked.(d) the individuals are homozygous at some
loci.(e) the individuals are
heterozygous at some loci.

25. Most
mutations are (a) recessive.(b)
harmful.(c) rare.(d) all of these.

Answer the following questions about this cross:RrYyPpIiggAassxrrYyPPIiGgAass.You can assume complete dominance, and
“kinds” means different combinations of alleles.

26. How many
homologous pairs of chromosomes are represented by these genotypes?(a) 2(b) 4(c) 5(d) 7(e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

27. How many
different kinds of gametes can the plant on the right make?(a) 2(b) 4(c) 8(d) 16(e) you can’t determine the answer from the information given.

28. What
fraction of the offspring from these plants will have green pods?(a) none of them(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.

29. What do you
know about the parents of the plant on the right?(a) They both had axial flowers.(b) One had long stems.(c) One had terminal flowers.(d) Both had purple flowers.(e) You can’t answer this question from the
information given.

30. What
fraction of the offspring from these two plants will have wrinkled seeds, short
stems, and yellow pods? (a) none(b)
1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) you can’t answer this question from the information given.

31. In order to
figure out how many different kinds of gametes are made by each of these plants,
you would have to cross each of them with(a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs(b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS(c) rryyppiiggaass(d) any of these(e) none of these crosses will reveal the
answer.

32. If you knew
only the phenotypes of the above plants, what kind of genotype should you use
in a cross in order to determine which loci of each plant are homozygous
dominant and which are heterozygous?(a) RrYyPpIiGgAaSs(b) RRYYPPIIGGAASS(c) rryyppiiggaass(d) any of these(e) none of these crosses will reveal the
answer.

33. Considering
all the loci, how many phenotypes could be present in the offspring from these
two plants?(a) 2(b) 8(c) 16(d) 32(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

34. Which
phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two
plants?(a) green pods(b) terminal flowers(c) long stems(d) wrinkled seeds(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

35. What
fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous dominant at all
loci? (a) none(b) 1/16(c) 1/32(d) 1/128(e) you can’t answer
this question from the information given.

36. What
fraction of the offspring of these plants will be homozygous recessive at all
loci? (a) none(b) 1/4(c) 1/16(d) 1/256(e) you can’t answer
this question from the information given.

37. What
fraction of the offspring of these plants will be heterozygous at all loci? (a)
none(b) 1/4(c) 1/2(d) 3/4(e) all of them.(End of pea plant questions.)

38. How many
different kinds of gametes would an organism with the genotype AaDdMm be able to make?(a) 2(b) 4(c)8(d)
16(e) 32.

39. Which of
the following could be a gamete made by the individual in question #39?(a) adm(b) ADM(c) adM(d) AdM(e) any of these.

40. If you
knew only that the individual in question #37 had the dominant phenotype for
traits A, D, and M, which of the following crosses would test the hypothesis
that these loci were on different homologous chromosome pairs?(a) AaDdMm x
aaddmm(b) AaDdMm x AaDdMm(c) AaDdMm x
AADDMM(d) none of these
crosses would be an adequate test of the hypothesis.

41. What
information would you get from testing the hypothesis as indicated correctly in the previous question?(a) whether the traits assorted
independently(b) relative distances
between the loci(c) whether the
individual was heterozygous at the three loci(d) all of these(e) none of
these.

42. The Drosophila eye color genes referred to
in your textbook are sex linked, with red (R) dominant over white (r).In a cross between a red-eyed male and a
white-eyed female, (a) all male offspring would have white eyes.(b) all female offspring would have white
eyes. (c) all male offspring would have
red eyes.(d) half of the offspring
would have red eyes regardless of sex.(e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

43. Loci
located on the Drosophila
X-chromosome (a) must be heterozygous in the male.(b) cannot be heterozygous in the male.(c) must be heterozygous in the female.(d) cannot be heterozygous in females.

44. Loci
located on the human X-chromosome (a) must be heterozygous in the male.(b) cannot be heterozygous in the male.(c) must be heterozygous in the female.(d) cannot be heterozygous in females.

45. If there
are multiple alleles in a population, indicated by a1, a2,
a3 . . . an, then individuals can be(a) a1a2(b) a4a9(c) a3a7(d) a1a3(e) any of these.

46. The
sickle trait in humans is considered pleiotropic because (a) it causes
mutations.(b) it affects several
different characteristics.(c) it is
sex-linked.(d) it is represented by
multiple alleles in the population.

47. In
polygenic inheritance (a) multiple alleles must be in the population.(b) genes at several loci affect the same
trait.(c) traits must be sex
linked.(d) genes affecting the trait
must be linked.(e) all of these.

48. Human
blood types are a result of (a) multiple alleles in the population.(b) genes at several loci affecting the same
trait.(c) sex linkage.(d) linked loci.(e) all of these.

49. Before
mutations can be of evolutionary significance, they must (a) occur in somatic
cells.(b) occur in germinal cells.(c) be linked.(d) be sex-linked.(e) have pleiotropic effects.

50. Crossing
over that contributes to genetic diversity occurs (a) between non-homologous
chromosomes.(b) between sister
chromatids.(c) between linked loci.(d) between multiple alleles.(e) all of these.

Bios 101 Janovy
I-05-06FINAL EXAM

Choose the BEST answer.Put your name, clicker number, and the words “BS101 Final Exam” on your
answer sheet, and fill in the mark/sense dots for name (last name first) and
clicker number.If you wish to comment
on a question, answer it, then write on the back of your answer sheet “I
answered question #___ with choice___ because . . .”Answer sheets are due at 12:00.Choose the BEST answer.

1. What is a
null hypothesis?(a) a statement used for
determining which experimental group is more likely to differ from the
controls(b) an assertion of no
difference between experimental and control groups(c) a prediction that there will be a
difference between the control and experimental groups(d) an untestable prediction.

2. If two structurally similar insects have
different color patterns, your testable predictions might include(a) they are different sexes and I’m
seeing sexual dimorphism.(b) they are
different species even though they have similar structure.(c) they are different developmental stages
of one species.(d) they are
different morphs of a highly polymorphic species.(e) any of these.

3. Paradigms
are (a) predictions of no difference between control and experimental groups.(b) views about nature that tend to determine
acceptable lines of research and acceptable results of that research.(c) evidence used to answer questions about
phylogeny.(d) predictions that cannot
be falsified.

4. In a typical ecosystem involving
plants, prey, predators, and decomposers, (a) energy is recycled but nutrients
are not.(b) nutrients are recycled but
energy is not.(c) over long periods of
time, both energy and nutrients are recycled.(d) neither energy nor nutrients are recycled.

5.

During the life
cycle of HIV as outlined in your book, what eventually happens to the product
of a reverse transcription reaction?(a)
It ends up in the viral envelope.(b) It
is inserted into the host cell DNA.(c)
It is put into new viral RNA.(d) It
ends up in the viral envelope glycoproteins.

6. During the
life cycles of both HIV and influenza virus as outlined in your book, what is a
major component of viral envelope?(a)
host cell DNA(b) viral RNA(c) host cell membrane(d) viral DNA(e) provirus DNA.

7. According to
your textbook, what is the major difference between HIV and influenza virus
(IV) life cycles?(a) HIV uses host cell
DNA for its envelope but IV does not.(b) IV DNA is incorporated into host cell chromosome but HIV is
not.(c) HIV DNA is incorporated into
host cell chromosome but IV DNA is not.(d) HIV uses host cell membrane to make envelope but IV does not.

8. Which of the
following would be considered an anabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide bonds
to generate a polypeptide(b) converting
lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert glycogen
into glucose(d) breaking down RNA into
nucleotides (e) none of these.

9. Which of the
following would be considered a catabolic reaction? (a) forming peptide bonds
to generate a polypeptide(b) converting
lipid into glycerol and fatty acids (c) using an enzyme to convert glucose into
glycogen(d) the reactions carried out by
reverse transcriptase(e) all of these.

10. Which of
the following would result from a hydrolytic reaction?(a) glycerol(b) amino acids(c)
nucleotides(d) all of these(e) none of these.

11. For a protein to function
properly after being built by a cell, which of these must remain
unchanged?(a) primary structure(b) tertiary structure(c) nucleotide sequence(d) amino acid sequence(e) structure of the peptide bonds.

12. Which of the following would be
considered an initial step in digestion?(a) production of fatty acids from lipids(b) production of amino acids from
proteins(c) production of nucleotides
from DNA or RNA(d) production of
glucose from glycogen(e) any of these.

13. If you digested the plasma
membranes in a piece of beef, what would be some of the products of reactions
carried out by hydrolytic enzymes?(a)
glycerol(b) glucose(c) amino acids(d) fatty acids(e) all of these.

14. Polysaccharide portions of
membrane glycoproteins probably (a) differ in their branching structure.(b) contain different kinds of amino acids. (c) have different nucleotide sequences.(d) are built by reverse transcriptase.(e) all of these.

15. Macromolecules can be highly
specific but built according to the same general design because(a) the general design differs between
species.(b) the sequence of similar
parts can differ among various macromolecules.(c) some macromolecules have nucleotides while others have
carbohydrates.(d) macromolecules built
by dehydration synthesis differ from those built by hydrolysis.

16. If you studied lots of electron
microscope pictures of cells, you would expect to discover (a) several
membrane-bound organelles.(b)
connections between nuclear envelope and rough ER.(c) con-nections
between rough ER and smooth ER(d)
vesicles near the Golgi.(e) all of
these.

17. Objective evidence that could be
cited to support a claim that humans are still evolving can be found in (a) the
current population growth rate.(b)
differential contribution of various nations to the global human
population.(c) effects of the “Black
Death” in Europe during the Middle Ages(d) birth rates in so-called “developed”
nations.

18. Which of
the following occurs during endocytosis but does not occur during
exocytosis?(a) DNA synthesis(b) transport of particles from outside to
inside a cell(c) movement of particles
from inside to outside a cell(d)
synthesis of macromolecules(e) movement
of fluid from inside to outside a cell.

19. Which of
the following processes moves molecules inside a cell but against a concentration
gradient?(a) receptor-mediated
uptake(b) facilitated diffusion(c) diffusion(d) active transport(e)
exocytosis.

20. When enzyme
reactions are linked (a) the substrate of one enzyme is also the substrate for
another.(b) both enzymes produce the
same product.(c) the product of one
reaction is a substrate for the next.(d) one enzyme carries out two different reactions.(e) CoA and NAD+
are required for the reactions to occur.

21. According
to the general catabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom
from a peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA(b) pyruvate(c) one of the citric acid cycle
intermediates(d) glucose(e) any of these.

22. According
to the general anabolic metabolism diagrams in your textbook, a carbon atom
from a peanut could end up in (a) acetyl CoA(b) pyruvate(c) one of the citric acid cycle
intermediates(d) glucose(e) any of these.

23.
Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could end up as part of a mutant DNA strand you pass on
to one of your children?(a)
citric acid cycle intermediates(b)
carbon from mitochondrial membrane lipids(c) nitrogen from beef(d) a
2-carbon piece carried by acetyl CoA(e) any of these.

24.
Assuming that textbook metabolic pathway diagrams are applicable to humans,
which of the following could end up part of an influenza virus particle you
pass to your child? (a) citric acid
cycle intermediates(b) carbon from
mitochondrial membrane lipids(c)
nitrogen from beef(d) any of
these(e) none of these.

25. In the cell
cycle, what happens during interphase?(a) chromosomes separate and the cell
divides(b) DNA is synthesized(c) nothing(d) the cell differentiates into another type of cell(e) the chromosomes become visible as
distinct bodies.

26. Daughter
cells resulting from mitosis (a) have both members of each homologous pair(b) have half many chromosomes as the parent
cell(c) have twice as many chromosomes
as the parent cell(d) have only
one member of each homologous pair(e)
enter G2 before they enter S.

27. The four
daughter cells resulting from meiosis (a) have both members of each homologous
pair(b) have as many chromosomes as
the parent cell(c) have twice as many
chromosomes as the parent cell(d) have
only one member of each homologous pair(e) enter G1 before they enter M.

28. If a
species has 12 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be
in each unfertilized egg from a female of that species?(a) 6(b) 12(c) 24(d) The answer depends on the number of
sister chromatids produced during mitosis.(e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

29. If a
species has 24 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many homologous pairs would
be in each fertilized egg of that species? (a) 6(b) 12(c) 24(d) The answer depends on the number of
sister chromatids produced during mitosis.(e) You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

30. Which of
the following events would occur during translation?(a) adenine pairing with thymine(b) peptide bonds being
formed(c) DNA ligase linking
polynucleotide pieces(d) addition of
nucleotides to the 3’ end of an existing polynucleotide(e) none of these.

31. Which of
the following could serve as a template for transcription in a eukaryotic
cell?(a)
ATTAGCGCT(b) GAUCCGAUG(c) GAAUCUCCG(d) AUGCCGCGG(e) any of these.

32. Which of
the following could serve as a template for translation in a eukaryotic
cell?(a)
AUUAGCGCU(b) GAUCCGAUG(c) GAAUCUCCG(d) AUGCCGCGG(e) any of these.

33. What should
the average person know about Aedesaegyptiand
Anopheles gambiae(a) They are or can be very dangerous animals.(b) They are vectors for infectious
diseases.(c) They are mosquitoes that
have influenced human history.(d) All
of these.

34. In the
influenza virus life cycle, evolutionarily significant events can occur during
(a) RNA synthesis. (b) assembly of the glycoproteins in the coat.(c) infection of the host cell.(d) the immune reaction of the host.(e) All of these.

35. Immune
mechanisms that protect a host against virus include(a) antibodies that promote virus
binding.(b) killing of infected cells
by the host.(c) mutations that occur
during viral gene expression.(d)
assembly of viral proteins.(e) all of
these.

36.
Why is a zoonotic viral disease likely to cause the next major
pandemic? (a) Evolutionary
principles suggest that multiple hosts provide a selected environment for
numerous strains to arise.(b) Viruses
reproduce so rapidly that mutations appear relatively quickly.(c) Their appearance is hard to predict of
they occur in wild animals.(d) On a
global scale, humans encounter non-human species frequently and in a great
variety of ways.(e) all of these.

37. Why was the
1918-1919 influenza epidemic so lethal? (a) People had no immunity to the
new viral proteins.(b) The infection
spread quickly among soldiers, partly because of conditions under which they
lived.(c) Scientists had relatively little
knowledge of viruses at the time.(d) The
virus could be spread through the air.(e) all of these.

38. If you knew
only the phenotype of an individual, how could you determine for sure which
loci were heterozygous?(a) Cross with a
homozygous recessive.(b) Cross with a
true-breeding line.(c) Cross
with an individual of identical phenotype.(d) Any of these methods would work.

39. If you did
a test cross with rrYyPpIiGgAAss, what fraction of the offspring would
be homozygous recessive at both the Y and G loci?(a) 1/2(b)1/4(c) 1/8(d) 1/32(e) 1/128.

41. You suspect
that loci to be considered in a dihybrid cross are linked.Which of the following is the testable
hypothesis regarding phenotype ratios from this cross?(a) 1:2:1(b) 9:3:3:1(c) 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1(d) you
can’t determine the answer from the information given.

42. Genes for
different traits would assort independently at meiosis because(a) they are on different homologous
chromosome pairs.(b) they are at
different loci.(c) they are on the same
homologous chromosome pair.(d)
sex-linked(e) linked.

43. Which of
the following would most strongly affect the genotypic ratios resulting from a
test cross using linked loci?(a)
independent assortment(b) segregation
of alleles(c) distance between the
loci(d) sex linkage(e) any of these.

44. In
offspring from a cross involving a sex linked trait, a dominant phenotype
female, and a recessive phenotype male, (a) males will always have a recessive
phenotype.(b) females will always have
a recessive phenotype.(c) either sex
could show a recessive phenotype depending on the female parent genotype.(d) neither sex could show a recessive
phenotype.(e) You can’t determine the
answer to this question.

Answer the
following questions about this cross:RrYyPpIiggAassxrrYyPPIiGgAass.You can assume complete dominance, and “kinds” means different
combinations of alleles.

45. What do you
know about the parents of the plant on the right?(a) They both had axial flowers.(b) One had long stems.(c) One had terminal flowers.(d) Both had purple flowers.(e) You can’t answer this question from the
information given.

46. Which
phenotypes do you know cannot be present in the offspring from these two
plants?(a) green pods(b) terminal flowers(c) long stems(d) wrinkled seeds(e) you can’t determine the answer to this
question from the information given.

47. If you knew
only that an individual had the dominant phenotype for traits A, D, and M,
which of the following crosses should test the hypothesis that these loci are
on different homologous chromosome pairs?(a) AaDdMm x aaddmm(b) AaDdMm x
AaDdMm(c) AaDdMm x AADDMM(d) none of these crosses would be an
adequate test of the hypothesis.

48. What
information would you get from testing the hypothesis as indicated correctly in the previous question?(a) whether the traits assorted
independently(b) relative distances
between the loci(c) whether the individual
was heterozygous at the three loci(d)
all of these(e) none of these.

49. The Drosophila eye color genes referred to
in your textbook are sex linked, with red (R) dominant over white (r).In a cross between a red-eyed male and a
white-eyed female, (a) all male offspring would have white eyes.(b) all female offspring would have white
eyes.(c) all male offspring would have
red eyes.(d) half of the offspring
would have red eyes regardless of sex.(e) You can’t answer this question from the information given.

50. If there
are multiple alleles in a population, indicated by a1, a2,
a3 . . . an, then individuals can be(a) a1a2(b) a4a9(c) a3a7(d) a1a3(e) any of these.

51. The sickle
trait in humans is considered pleiotropic because (a) it causes mutations.(b) it affects several different
characteristics.(c) it is
sex-linked.(d) it is represented by
multiple alleles in the population.

52. In
polygenic inheritance (a) multiple alleles must be in the population.(b) genes at several loci affect the same
trait.(c) traits must be sex
linked.(d) genes affecting the trait
must be linked.(e) all of these.

53. Which of
the following is a feature of Bacteria but not of Archaea?(a) introns(b) RNA polymerase(c) peptidoglycan
in the cell wall(d) histones(e) all of these.

54. If you
developed a case of Lyme disease, you would likely conclude you’d been bitten
by a(a) mosquito.(b) tick.(c) an infected raccoon.(d)
spider.(e) Canisfamiliaris.

55. If you were
doing research on phylogeny of Bryophyta, what would you be studying?(a) evolution of angiosperms(b) development of vertebrates(c) relationship between various prokaryote
groups(d) evolutionary history of
moss(e) distribution of fish fossils.

56. If you were
doing research on the life cycles of Basidiomycetes, what might you actually be
doing?(a) raising lungfish from
eggs(b) making slides of mushroom
spores(c) infecting mice with spirochaetes(d)
identifying mosquitoes(e) collecting
Cambrian fossils.

58. What
testable hypothesis could be obtained from a current phylogeny of eukaryotes?(a) Dino-flagellates, apicomplexans, and
ciliates are all alveolates.(b) Fungi
and Animalia share a common ancestor.(c) Plants and algae share a common ancestor.(d) Amebas and molds form a monophyletic group.(e) all of these.

59. If you
could use nucleic acid base sequences to test a phylogeny of eukaryotes, which
of the following conclusions might result from such a test?(a) Plants and animals together form a
monophyletic group.(b) Alveolates are a
monophyletic group.(c) Green algae and
amebas share a close common ancestor.(d) Fungi and plants form a monophyletic group.(e) any of these.

60. Lungfish are commonly used as an
example to explain the fossil record because (a) their current distribution is consistent
with our knowledge of continental drift. (b) they evidently appeared during the
Paleozoic era and occupied fresh water habitats. (c) their fossils can be found throughout the
world today.(d) they have primitive
characters similar to ancient tetrapods.(e) all of these.

61. According
to the fossil record, what happened at the end of the Permian? (a) Hominoidea appeared. (b) fish and amphibians first appeared. (c) most of the world’s genera became extinct. (d) dinosaurs became extinct. (e) most
of the animal phyla appeared.

62. If the
fossil record is correct, there have been fish and fish-like organisms on Earth
(a) for at least 400 million years. (b) for
approximately 100 million years. (c) for no more
than 230 million years. (d) at least since the
Cambrian. (e) from the Pre-Cambrian until the
Permian Extinctions.

63. If you were
looking for shared derived characters among Chordata,
what might you actually be doing?(a)
sequencing nucleic acids(b) comparing
homologous pectoral appendages(c)
dissecting rodents(d) collecting
Mesozoic fossils(e) any of these.

64. If you were
deciding which vertebrate characters were primitive, what might you actually be
doing? (a) sequencing nucleic acids(b)
comparing homologous pectoral appendages(c) dissecting rodents(d)
collecting Mesozoic fossils(e) any of
these.

65. Cladistic
algorithms(a) require coded charcters.(b) establish
groups based on shared derived characters.(c) use outgroup comparisons to polarize characters.(d) minimize the number of transformations
required to construct a phylogeny.(e)
all of these.

67. Which of
the following data sources can be used to construct a phylogenetic
hypothesis? (a) fossils (b) comparison of
homologous structures (c) nucleotide sequences (d) amino acid sequences
(e) all of these.

68. Which of
the following data sources can be used to test a phylogenetic hypothesis?
(a) fossils
(b) comparison of homologous structures (c) nucleotide
sequences (d) amino acid sequences (e) all of these.

69. In
evolutionary terms, “fitness” refers to (a) size.(b) speed and strength.(c) geological time period of a species’
existence.(d) fecundity.(e) genetic diversity.

70. According
to the fossil and geological records, what happened at the end of the
Mesozoic?(a) Lungfish
originated.(b) Pangaea broke
apart.(c) Dinosaurs became
extinct.(d) Humans appeared.(e) Land plants appeared.

71. Which of
the following is considered a post-Darwinian addition to evolutionary
theory?(a) the Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium(b) evidence that eukaryotic
cells arose by symbiosis(c)
genetics(d) amino acid sequence
homology in proteins(e) all of these.

72. Present day
distribution of extant lungfish is considered, by scientists, to be mainly a
result of(a) migration through
the ocean.(b) migration through
rivers.(c) continental drift.(d) divergent evolution following isolation.

73. Present day
diversity of lungfish species is considered, by scientists, to be mainly a
result of(a) migration through
the ocean.(b) migration through
rivers.(c) continental drift.(d) divergent evolution following isolation.

74.
Distribution of fossil lungfish is considered, by scientists, to be evidence of
(a) continental drift.(b) migration through the ocean prior to
the breakup of Pangaea.(c) migration
through the ocean after the breakup of Pangaea (d) migration through rivers and
divergent evolution prior to the breakup of Pangaea.(e) the Permian extinction.

76. Which of
the following moss life cycle stages would you expect to be diploid?(a) spores(b) sporophyte(c) gametes(d) gametophyte(e) all of these.

77. Which of
the following angiosperm life cycle stages would you expect to be haploid?(a) sporophyte (b)
male gametophytes(c) seeds(d) embryos(e) none of these.

78. Life is
sometimes characterized as an emergent property.This idea implies that living organisms are
alive because of (a) the arrangement of their parts.(b) the chemical elements they contain.(c) their fossil record. (d) their evolutionary history.

79. According
to most of the scientific community, Intelligent Design fails as a scientific
theory because (a) it explains only the origin of emergent properties.(b) it generates only null hypotheses.(c) it does not and cannot produce testable
hypotheses.(d) although its causal
processes can be studied using testable hypotheses, ID produces no cladistic
algorithms.(e) its cladistic algorithms
are mathematically incorrect.

80. The main
null hypothesis of Erica Peterson's research would be: (a) shrimps’ respiration
rates remain the same regardless of the solution they are in.(b) oil or other pollutants have no effect on
shrimp immune systems. (c) pufferfish respond negatively when placed into the red
waters. (d) the oil industry has no effect on commercial fisheries in Mexico.(e) protozoans can be used as a means of
exploring the effects of pollution on commercial fisheries.

81. The fossil
record and studies of comparative anatomy both provide structural evidence for
homologies between pectoral appendage bones of(a) amphibians and fish.(b)
virtually all tetrapods.(c) dinosaurs
and birds.(d) humans and bats.(e) all of these.

82. According
to evidence present in various caves in France, for how long have modern
humans been drawing pictures of organisms such as bison and mammoths?(a) since sometime near the end of the
Cretaceous(b) at least 15,000 years(c) since the end of the Paleozoic(d) since the breakup of Pangaea.

83. According
to the fossil evidence as presented in current university level textbooks such
as yours, the genus Homo, to which we
belong, appeared on Earth about (a) 200 million years ago.(b) 2-5 million years ago.(c) sometime near the end of the
Cretaceous.(d) 6000 years ago.

84. According
to the fossil record, the Devonian period was characterized by the appearance
of(a) mammals.(b) hominoids.(c) the first tetrapods.(d) flowering plants.(e) all of these.

85. Hemoglobin
is the protein that carries oxygen to the blood in vertebrates.Study of homologies in vertebrate hemoglobin
suggest that nucleotide sequences in human hemoglobin genes most closely match
those of(a) echinoderms.(b) chickens.(c) frogs.(d) other
primates.(e) alveolates.

86. If you were
looking for an example of some group that was once represented on Earth by a
rich and diverse group of Paleozoic species, but is represented by only a few
extant species, you could choose(a) grasses.(b)
brachiopods.(c) orchids.(d) mammals in general.(e) angiosperms in general.

87. Highly
diverse and numerous groups abundantly represented in the fossil record but
rarely if ever discussed in freshman biology texts include (a) amebas and
brachiopods.(b) Bryophyta and alveolates.(c) Pongidae and Hylobatidae.(d)
mammals.(e) vertebrates in general.

88. The groups
most prominently represented in the fossil record are probably (a)
mammals.(b)
hominoids.(c) echinoderms and mollusks.(d) insects.(e) algae.

89. Desert
plants from Baja California and Madagascar are
typically used to illustrate which of the following evolutionary concepts?(a) disruptive selection(b) convergence(c) superfecundity(d) symbiotic origin of eukaryotic
cells(e) the Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium.

90. Which of
the following evolutionary concepts could easily, and probably have been
easily, applied to agricultural research for the past 3000 years? (a)
directional selection(b) disruptive
selection(c) variable and heritable
traits(d) differential survival(e) all of these.

93. If the
frequency of a recessive phenotype in a population is 0.49, what is the
expected frequency of the dominant allele for that same trait? (a) zero (b) 0.30 (c) 0.51 (d) 0.70 (e)
You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

94. If the
frequency of the dominant phenotype in a population is 0.99, what is the
expected frequency of the recessive allele for that same trait? (a) 0.10 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.90 (d) zero (e)
You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

95. If you know
that the frequency of the recessive allele in a population is 0.1, what is the
expected frequency of individuals heterozygous for that trait? (a) 0.99 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.09 (d) 0.18 (e)
You can’t determine the answer from the information given.

96. In the
populations of the previous three questions, what events might lead to results
other than those expected? (a) transcription (b)
translation (c) independent assortment (d) crossing over (e)
non-random interbreeding.

97. If, in an
experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele, you would
expect the frequency of the dominant phenotype to (a) increase.
(b) decrease. (c) stay the same. (e) decrease to zero within
a few generations.(d) You can’t test
your expectations with the information given.

98. If, in an
experimental population, you selected against the recessive allele in order to
test for the effects of selection, your null hypothesis states that after
several generations of selection, the frequency of the dominant allele would be
(a) higher (b) lower (c) the same as when you started (d) the
same as that of the recessive allele.(e) You can’t develop a testable hypothesis in this situation.

99. Structure
of the ilium, femoral chondyles,
and hallux should provide evidence for (a)
phylogenetic relationships.(b) manner
of locomotion.(c) species to which a
specimen belongs.(d) size of a living
or fossil vertebrate.(e) all of these.

100. According
to commonly accepted classification schemes, you share enough structural
features to be placed in the same superfamily as (a) cats, dogs, and
raccoons.(b) chimpanzees, gibbons, and
certain fossil primates.(c) all mammals
with a humerus, radius, and ulna.(d)
only those mammals whose pectoral appendage bones are homologous.(e) all of these.