Re: An Aoristic Perfect Tense?

To follow up on Tauber's note, A.T.Robertson _A Grammar of the
Greek New Testament_ (1934), 898-902 also notes that in later greek
(300 CE on) the Perfect tense and the Aorist tense are basically the
same. However, he concludes his discussion by saying "the N.T.
wirters may be guilty of this idiom, but they have not as yet been
proven to be." The most plausible example to him is 2 Cor. 2:13,
which he discusses at length (900-901), but he notes that it is a
problem to make the whole case for the aoristic perfect out of one
example. I would recommend you read Robertson on this question.
Glenn Wooden
Acadia Divinity College
Wolfville, Nova Scotia, Canada